A 63-year-old woman presents to the primary care physician’s clinic complaining of fatigue, diarrhea, headaches, and a loss of appetite. She denies any personal history of blood clots in her past, but she says that her mother has also had to be treated for pulmonary embolism in the recent past. Her past medical history is significant for preeclampsia, hypertension, polycystic ovarian syndrome, and hypercholesterolemia. She currently smokes 1 pack of cigarettes per day, drinks a glass of wine per day, and she currently denies any illicit drug use, although she has a remote past of injection drug use with heroin. The vital signs include: temperature 36.7°C (98.0°F), blood pressure 126/74 mm Hg, heart rate 111/min and irregular, and respiratory rate 17/min. On physical examination, her pulses are bounding and complexion is pale, but breath sounds remain clear. Oxygen saturation was initially 91% on room air and electrocardiogram (ECG) showed atrial fibrillation. Upon further discussion with the patient, her physician discovers that she is having some cognitive difficulty. The laboratory results reveal: mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 111 fL; hemoglobin (Hgb) 9.3 g/dL; methylmalonic acid (MMA) and homocysteine are both elevated. Schilling test is positive. What is the next best step in the management of this patient?
Q122
A 52-year-old woman presents with fatigue, difficulty swallowing solid foods, and frequent choking spells. She says her symptoms gradually onset 3 months ago and have progressively worsened. Past medical history is unremarkable. She reports drinking alcohol occasionally but denies smoking or illicit drug use. Her vital signs include: temperature 36.6°C (97.8°F), blood pressure 115/72 mm Hg, pulse 82/min. Physical examination shows conjunctival pallor but is otherwise unremarkable. Laboratory results are significant for the following:
Hemoglobin 9.8 g/dL
Red cell count 2.5 million/mm3
Mean corpuscular volume 73 μm3
Serum ferritin 9.7 ng/mL
A barium swallow study is performed, which shows a proximal esophageal web. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
Q123
A 57-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 2-week history of worsening epigastric pain that improves with meals. She has had similar pain of lesser intensity for the past 4 years. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Upper endoscopy shows a 0.5-cm mucosal breach in the anterior duodenal bulb that extends into the submucosa. A biopsy specimen of the lesion shows hypertrophy of the Brunner glands. This patient is at the greatest risk for which of the following complications?
Q124
A 23-year-old man presents to his primary care physician with complaints of fatigue and cheek pain that started a day ago. He notes that he has nasal discharge that is yellow/green as well. Otherwise, he feels well and is generally healthy. The patient has a past medical history of type I diabetes mellitus and occasionally uses IV drugs. His temperature is 99.0°F (37.2°C), blood pressure is 120/84 mmHg, pulse is 70/min, respirations are 16/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. There is pain to palpation of the left and right maxilla. Pain is worsened when the patient bends over. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial step in management?
Q125
A 42-year-old man presents to his primary care provider for abdominal pain. He reports that for several months he has been experiencing a stabbing pain above the umbilicus during meals. He denies associated symptoms of nausea, vomiting, or diarrhea. The patient’s past medical history is significant for hypertension and hyperlipidemia for which he takes amlodipine and atorvastatin. His family history is significant for lung cancer in his father. The patient is a current smoker with a 20 pack-year smoking history and drinks 3-5 beers per week. Initial laboratory testing is as follows:
Serum:
Na+: 141 mEq/L
K+: 4.6 mEq/L
Cl-: 102 mEq/L
HCO3-: 25 mEq/L
Urea nitrogen: 14 mg/dL
Creatinine: 1.1 mg/dL
Glucose: 120 mg/dL
Calcium: 8.4 mg/dL
Alkaline phosphatase: 66 U/L
Aspartate aminotransferase (AST): 40 U/L
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT): 52 U/L
Gastrin: 96 pg/mL (<100 pg/mL)
Lipase: 90 U/L (<160 U/L)
The patient is started on a proton pump inhibitor without symptomatic improvement after 6 weeks. He is referred for an upper endoscopy, which demonstrates erosive gastritis, three ulcers in the duodenum, and one ulcer in the jejunum. Biopsy of the gastric mucosa is negative for H. pylori. Which of the following is the best next step in management?
Q126
A 43-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 3-week history of progressive weakness. She has had increased difficulty combing her hair and climbing stairs. She has hypertension. She has smoked a pack of cigarettes daily for 25 years. She does not drink alcohol. Her mother had coronary artery disease and systemic lupus erythematosus. Her current medications include chlorthalidone and vitamin supplements. Her temperature is 37.8°C (100.0°F), pulse is 71/min, and blood pressure is 132/84 mm Hg. Cardiopulmonary examination is unremarkable. A rash is shown that involves both her orbits. Skin examination shows diffuse erythema of the upper back, posterior neck, and shoulders. Which of the following antibodies are most likely to be present in this patient?
Q127
A 35-year old Caucasian woman visits a community clinic and is presenting with a long history of early satiety, diarrhea, fatigue, hair loss, and brittle nails. Her family history is insignificant. Her personal history is relevant for iron deficiency anemia and vitamin B12 deficiency, as seen in her lab reports a few months back. Her physical examination is unremarkable except for pale skin and mucous surfaces, and glossitis. She brings with herself an upper endoscopy report describing body and fundal atrophic gastritis. Which of the following tests would you expect to be positive in this patient?
Q128
A 52-year-old man presents to the emergency department with severe pain of the left first metatarsophalangeal joint. He says that the pain started 3 hours ago and describes it as sharp in character. The pain has been so severe that he has not been able to tolerate any movement of the joint. His past medical history is significant for hypertension for which he takes a thiazide diuretic. His diet consists primarily of red meat, and he drinks 5 bottles of beer per night. On physical exam, his left first metatarsophalangeal joint is swollen, erythematous, and warm to the touch. Which of the following characteristics would be seen with the most likely cause of this patient's symptoms?
Q129
A 46-year-old woman presents to your medical office complaining of ‘feeling tired’. The patient states that she has been having some trouble eating because her ‘tongue hurts’, but she has no other complaints. On examination, the patient has pale conjunctiva and skin and also appears tired. She has a smooth, red tongue that is tender to touch with a tongue depressor. The patient’s hands and feet feel cold. Fluoroscopic evaluation of the swallowing mechanism and esophagus is normal. Which of the following diagnoses is most likely?
Q130
A 53-year-old man comes to the emergency department for severe left knee pain for the past 8 hours. He describes it as an unbearable, burning pain that woke him up from his sleep. He has been unable to walk since. He has not had any trauma to the knee. Ten months ago, he had an episode of acute pain and swelling of the right great toe that subsided after treatment with indomethacin. He has hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, psoriasis, and hyperlipidemia. Current medications include topical betamethasone, metformin, glipizide, losartan, and simvastatin. Two weeks ago, hydrochlorothiazide was added to his medication regimen to improve blood pressure control. He drinks 1–2 beers daily. He is 170 cm (5 ft 7 in) tall and weighs 110 kg (242 lb); BMI is 38.1 kg/m2. His temperature is 38.4°C (101.1°F). Examination shows multiple scaly plaques over his palms and soles. The left knee is erythematous, swollen, and tender; range of motion is limited by pain. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Gastroenterology US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 121: A 63-year-old woman presents to the primary care physician’s clinic complaining of fatigue, diarrhea, headaches, and a loss of appetite. She denies any personal history of blood clots in her past, but she says that her mother has also had to be treated for pulmonary embolism in the recent past. Her past medical history is significant for preeclampsia, hypertension, polycystic ovarian syndrome, and hypercholesterolemia. She currently smokes 1 pack of cigarettes per day, drinks a glass of wine per day, and she currently denies any illicit drug use, although she has a remote past of injection drug use with heroin. The vital signs include: temperature 36.7°C (98.0°F), blood pressure 126/74 mm Hg, heart rate 111/min and irregular, and respiratory rate 17/min. On physical examination, her pulses are bounding and complexion is pale, but breath sounds remain clear. Oxygen saturation was initially 91% on room air and electrocardiogram (ECG) showed atrial fibrillation. Upon further discussion with the patient, her physician discovers that she is having some cognitive difficulty. The laboratory results reveal: mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 111 fL; hemoglobin (Hgb) 9.3 g/dL; methylmalonic acid (MMA) and homocysteine are both elevated. Schilling test is positive. What is the next best step in the management of this patient?
A. Lifelong Vitamin B12 supplementation (Correct Answer)
B. Obtain a Coomb’s test
C. Lifelong folic acid supplementation
D. Give corticosteroids and iron supplementation
E. Iron supplementation for 4–6 months
Explanation: ***Lifelong Vitamin B12 supplementation***
- The patient's **macrocytic anemia** (MCV 111 fL, Hgb 9.3 g/dL), elevated methylmalonic acid (MMA) and homocysteine, and a positive Schilling test strongly indicate **pernicious anemia**, a form of **Vitamin B12 deficiency** due to inadequate intrinsic factor.
- **Pernicious anemia** requires lifelong Vitamin B12 supplementation, usually via intramuscular injections due to impaired absorption.
- The **elevated MMA** is particularly specific for B12 deficiency (as opposed to folate deficiency, which does not elevate MMA).
*Obtain a Coombs test*
- A **Coombs test** is used to detect antibodies that coat red blood cells, which is relevant in **autoimmune hemolytic anemia**.
- The patient's clinical picture, particularly the elevated MMA/homocysteine and positive Schilling test, points away from **hemolytic anemia** and towards **Vitamin B12 deficiency**.
*Lifelong folic acid supplementation*
- While **folic acid deficiency** can also cause **macrocytic anemia** and elevated homocysteine, it does **not** cause elevated MMA.
- Supplementing with **folic acid alone** in the presence of **Vitamin B12 deficiency** can mask the hematological symptoms while allowing neurological damage to progress.
*Give corticosteroids and iron supplementation*
- **Corticosteroids** are typically used in conditions like **autoimmune hemolytic anemia** or other autoimmune diseases, which are not suggested by the lab results.
- **Iron supplementation** is indicated for **iron-deficiency anemia**, which presents with **microcytic** or **normocytic anemia**, not the **macrocytic anemia** seen here.
*Iron supplementation for 4–6 months*
- This intervention is appropriate for **iron-deficiency anemia**, which is characterized by **microcytic anemia** and low ferritin/iron levels.
- The patient's **macrocytic anemia** and elevated MMA/homocysteine rule out **iron-deficiency anemia** as the primary issue.
Question 122: A 52-year-old woman presents with fatigue, difficulty swallowing solid foods, and frequent choking spells. She says her symptoms gradually onset 3 months ago and have progressively worsened. Past medical history is unremarkable. She reports drinking alcohol occasionally but denies smoking or illicit drug use. Her vital signs include: temperature 36.6°C (97.8°F), blood pressure 115/72 mm Hg, pulse 82/min. Physical examination shows conjunctival pallor but is otherwise unremarkable. Laboratory results are significant for the following:
Hemoglobin 9.8 g/dL
Red cell count 2.5 million/mm3
Mean corpuscular volume 73 μm3
Serum ferritin 9.7 ng/mL
A barium swallow study is performed, which shows a proximal esophageal web. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
A. Idiopathic achalasia
B. Esophageal carcinoma
C. Plummer-Vinson syndrome (Correct Answer)
D. Zenker diverticulum
E. Diffuse esophageal spasm
Explanation: ***Plummer-Vinson syndrome***
- This syndrome is characterized by the triad of **iron deficiency anemia**, **dysphagia** due to **esophageal webs**, and **glossitis** or cheilosis, all of which are consistent with the patient's presentation including fatigue, pallor, low hemoglobin with microcytic indices, and difficulty swallowing.
- The presence of a **proximal esophageal web** on barium swallow, along with the severe **iron deficiency** (ferritin 9.7 ng/mL, normal range >20 ng/mL), strongly points to this diagnosis.
*Idiopathic achalasia*
- Achalasia is characterized by the **failure of the lower esophageal sphincter to relax** and loss of peristalsis in the distal esophagus, leading to dysphagia for both solids and liquids.
- It does not typically present with **iron deficiency anemia** or **esophageal webs** in the proximal esophagus.
*Esophageal carcinoma*
- While esophageal carcinoma can cause **dysphagia** and **weight loss**, it is less likely to present with **proximal esophageal webs** and clearly defined microcytic anemia without evidence of chronic blood loss or a mass on imaging.
- The patient's age and history do not strongly suggest the typical risk factors for esophageal carcinoma (e.g., long-standing GERD, smoking, high alcohol intake) particularly in the proximal esophagus.
*Zenker diverticulum*
- A Zenker diverticulum is a **pharyngoesophageal pouch** that can cause **dysphagia**, **regurgitation of undigested food**, and **halitosis**.
- It would appear as a **pouch** on barium swallow, not typically described as a "web," and is not directly associated with **iron deficiency anemia** unless there's chronic bleeding from the diverticulum itself, which is not indicated here.
*Diffuse esophageal spasm*
- This condition is characterized by **uncoordinated esophageal contractions** and **chest pain**, often triggered by hot or cold food, but typically does not cause **esophageal webs**.
- It is not associated with **iron deficiency anemia**.
Question 123: A 57-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 2-week history of worsening epigastric pain that improves with meals. She has had similar pain of lesser intensity for the past 4 years. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Upper endoscopy shows a 0.5-cm mucosal breach in the anterior duodenal bulb that extends into the submucosa. A biopsy specimen of the lesion shows hypertrophy of the Brunner glands. This patient is at the greatest risk for which of the following complications?
A. Hematemesis
B. Pernicious anemia
C. Adenocarcinoma
D. Perforation (Correct Answer)
E. Gastric outlet obstruction
Explanation: ***Perforation***
- The patient has a **duodenal ulcer** in the **anterior duodenal bulb** (mucosal breach extending into the submucosa), presenting with the classic **pain-food-relief pattern**.
- **Anterior duodenal ulcers** have the **greatest risk of perforation** into the peritoneal cavity, which is a life-threatening surgical emergency.
- The **anatomical location is critical**: anterior ulcers erode anteriorly through the duodenal wall into the free peritoneal cavity, while posterior ulcers tend to erode into the gastroduodenal artery.
- The depth of this ulcer (extending into submucosa) further increases perforation risk.
*Hematemesis*
- Hematemesis or melena from bleeding is more characteristic of **posterior duodenal ulcers**, which can erode into the **gastroduodenal artery**.
- While anterior ulcers can bleed, their primary risk is perforation due to their anatomical position.
- The **anterior location** specified in this case makes perforation the greater concern.
*Pernicious anemia*
- This condition results from **autoimmune destruction of gastric parietal cells** leading to **vitamin B12 deficiency**.
- Pernicious anemia is completely unrelated to duodenal ulcers.
- No clinical information suggests autoimmune gastritis or B12 deficiency.
*Adenocarcinoma*
- **Duodenal ulcers virtually never undergo malignant transformation**, unlike gastric ulcers which rarely can.
- **Brunner gland hypertrophy** is a benign response to chronic duodenal injury and is not a precursor to malignancy.
- Duodenal adenocarcinoma is exceedingly rare and not associated with peptic ulcer disease.
*Gastric outlet obstruction*
- This complication results from **chronic inflammation and scarring** around pyloric or duodenal ulcers, causing progressive narrowing.
- While possible with chronic duodenal ulcers, it develops gradually over time.
- The **acute/greatest risk** from a deep anterior ulcer is perforation, not obstruction.
Question 124: A 23-year-old man presents to his primary care physician with complaints of fatigue and cheek pain that started a day ago. He notes that he has nasal discharge that is yellow/green as well. Otherwise, he feels well and is generally healthy. The patient has a past medical history of type I diabetes mellitus and occasionally uses IV drugs. His temperature is 99.0°F (37.2°C), blood pressure is 120/84 mmHg, pulse is 70/min, respirations are 16/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. There is pain to palpation of the left and right maxilla. Pain is worsened when the patient bends over. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial step in management?
A. MRI head
B. Amphotericin and debridement
C. Amoxicillin-clavulanate (Correct Answer)
D. CT head
E. Pseudoephedrine and follow up in 1 week
Explanation: ***Amoxicillin-clavulanate***
- This patient presents with **acute bacterial sinusitis**, characterized by maxillary pain and tenderness, purulent (yellow/green) nasal discharge, and pain worsening with bending forward (from increased pressure in the sinuses).
- The symptoms started **one day ago** with mild fever (99°F) and the patient otherwise feels well, which is typical for uncomplicated acute bacterial sinusitis.
- **Amoxicillin-clavulanate** is the appropriate first-line antibiotic for acute bacterial sinusitis, particularly when bacterial resistance is a concern or in patients with risk factors.
- While the patient has diabetes, the clinical presentation is classic for **bacterial sinusitis**, not an invasive fungal infection.
*Amphotericin and debridement*
- This aggressive treatment would be indicated for **mucormycosis** (invasive fungal sinusitis), which typically presents with black necrotic eschars, rapid progression, orbital involvement, altered mental status, or signs of tissue necrosis.
- This patient lacks the severe clinical features of mucormycosis: he has mild fever, feels generally well, and symptoms began only one day ago.
- While diabetes and IV drug use are risk factors for fungal infections, the **clinical presentation** here is consistent with common bacterial sinusitis, making this treatment inappropriately aggressive and premature.
*MRI head*
- MRI would be indicated if there were concern for complications such as orbital cellulitis, cavernous sinus thrombosis, or invasive fungal infection, none of which are suggested by this presentation.
- This patient has **uncomplicated acute sinusitis** that should be treated empirically with antibiotics first.
*CT head*
- CT imaging is not routinely indicated for uncomplicated acute bacterial sinusitis and would not change initial management.
- Imaging would be considered if symptoms persist despite appropriate antibiotic therapy, or if complications are suspected.
*Pseudoephedrine and follow up in 1 week*
- While symptomatic treatment with decongestants can be helpful, antibiotics are warranted in this case given the purulent discharge and significant facial pain.
- However, observation with symptomatic treatment alone would be reasonable for mild cases of viral rhinosinusitis lasting less than 10 days.
Question 125: A 42-year-old man presents to his primary care provider for abdominal pain. He reports that for several months he has been experiencing a stabbing pain above the umbilicus during meals. He denies associated symptoms of nausea, vomiting, or diarrhea. The patient’s past medical history is significant for hypertension and hyperlipidemia for which he takes amlodipine and atorvastatin. His family history is significant for lung cancer in his father. The patient is a current smoker with a 20 pack-year smoking history and drinks 3-5 beers per week. Initial laboratory testing is as follows:
Serum:
Na+: 141 mEq/L
K+: 4.6 mEq/L
Cl-: 102 mEq/L
HCO3-: 25 mEq/L
Urea nitrogen: 14 mg/dL
Creatinine: 1.1 mg/dL
Glucose: 120 mg/dL
Calcium: 8.4 mg/dL
Alkaline phosphatase: 66 U/L
Aspartate aminotransferase (AST): 40 U/L
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT): 52 U/L
Gastrin: 96 pg/mL (<100 pg/mL)
Lipase: 90 U/L (<160 U/L)
The patient is started on a proton pump inhibitor without symptomatic improvement after 6 weeks. He is referred for an upper endoscopy, which demonstrates erosive gastritis, three ulcers in the duodenum, and one ulcer in the jejunum. Biopsy of the gastric mucosa is negative for H. pylori. Which of the following is the best next step in management?
A. Calcium infusion study
B. Serum prolactin level
C. Serum chromogranin A level
D. Empiric triple therapy
E. Secretin stimulation test (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Secretin stimulation test***
- The presence of multiple ulcers in unusual locations (duodenum and jejunum), **erosive gastritis**, despite PPI therapy and negative *H. pylori* test, is highly suggestive of **Zollinger-Ellison syndrome (ZES)**.
- A secretin stimulation test is the most accurate diagnostic test for ZES. It assesses the paradoxical increase in gastrin levels after secretin administration, which is characteristic of **gastrinomas**.
*Calcium infusion study*
- While sometimes used in ZES diagnosis, especially if secretin stimulation test is inconclusive, a **calcium infusion study** is less specific and sensitive than the secretin stimulation test.
- It involves infusing calcium and monitoring gastrin levels; however, it has a higher incidence of side effects.
*Serum prolactin level*
- **Serum prolactin level** is used to diagnose **prolactinomas**, a type of pituitary adenoma, which causes symptoms like galactorrhea, amenorrhea, or erectile dysfunction.
- These symptoms are unrelated to the patient’s presentation of severe dyspepsia and refractory ulcers.
*Serum chromogranin A level*
- **Chromogranin A** is a tumor marker for neuroendocrine tumors, including gastrinomas. However, its specificity is low, as levels can be elevated in conditions like chronic atrophic gastritis, chronic renal failure, and during PPI use.
- It is often used for monitoring treatment response or recurrence rather than initial diagnosis of ZES.
*Empiric triple therapy*
- **Empiric triple therapy** is the standard treatment for *H. pylori* infection, consisting of a PPI, amoxicillin, and clarithromycin (or metronidazole).
- The patient's gastric biopsy was already **negative for *H. pylori***, and his ulcers are refractory to standard PPI therapy, indicating that *H. pylori* is not the cause and further empiric treatment would be ineffective.
Question 126: A 43-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 3-week history of progressive weakness. She has had increased difficulty combing her hair and climbing stairs. She has hypertension. She has smoked a pack of cigarettes daily for 25 years. She does not drink alcohol. Her mother had coronary artery disease and systemic lupus erythematosus. Her current medications include chlorthalidone and vitamin supplements. Her temperature is 37.8°C (100.0°F), pulse is 71/min, and blood pressure is 132/84 mm Hg. Cardiopulmonary examination is unremarkable. A rash is shown that involves both her orbits. Skin examination shows diffuse erythema of the upper back, posterior neck, and shoulders. Which of the following antibodies are most likely to be present in this patient?
A. Anti-Ro antibodies
B. Voltage-gated calcium channel antibodies
C. Anti-centromere antibodies
D. Anti-Jo-1 antibodies (Correct Answer)
E. Anti-histone antibodies
Explanation: ***Anti-Jo-1 antibodies***
- The patient's symptoms of **progressive proximal muscle weakness** (difficulty combing hair, climbing stairs), skin findings including a **heliotrope rash** (rash involving the orbits), and **diffuse erythema of the upper back** (shawl sign) are highly suggestive of **dermatomyositis**.
- **Anti-Jo-1 antibodies** are a specific type of **anti-synthetase antibody** associated with anti-synthetase syndrome, which manifests with dermatomyositis or polymyositis, interstitial lung disease, Raynaud's phenomenon, and "mechanic's hands."
*Anti-Ro antibodies*
- **Anti-Ro (SSA) antibodies** are commonly associated with **Sjögren's syndrome** and **systemic lupus erythematosus** (SLE), particularly subacute cutaneous lupus and neonatal lupus.
- While the patient's mother had SLE, the patient's primary symptoms of proximal muscle weakness and characteristic rashes point away from Sjögren's syndrome or typical SLE presentation.
*Voltage-gated calcium channel antibodies*
- These antibodies are characteristic of **Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome (LEMS)**, a presynaptic disorder of neuromuscular transmission often associated with small cell lung cancer.
- LEMS typically causes proximal muscle weakness, but also autonomic dysfunction and absent or diminished reflexes, and does not present with the characteristic skin findings seen in this patient.
*Anti-centromere antibodies*
- **Anti-centromere antibodies** are highly specific for **CREST syndrome**, a limited form of systemic sclerosis.
- CREST syndrome involves **calcinosis, Raynaud's phenomenon, esophageal dysmotility, sclerodactyly, and telangiectasias**, none of which are described in this patient's presentation.
*Anti-histone antibodies*
- **Anti-histone antibodies** are primarily associated with **drug-induced lupus erythematosus**, particularly with drugs like procainamide, hydralazine, and isoniazid.
- Although the patient is on chlorthalidone (which can rarely induce lupus-like symptoms), her symptoms of severe proximal muscle weakness and characteristic dermatomyositis rash are not typical for drug-induced lupus.
Question 127: A 35-year old Caucasian woman visits a community clinic and is presenting with a long history of early satiety, diarrhea, fatigue, hair loss, and brittle nails. Her family history is insignificant. Her personal history is relevant for iron deficiency anemia and vitamin B12 deficiency, as seen in her lab reports a few months back. Her physical examination is unremarkable except for pale skin and mucous surfaces, and glossitis. She brings with herself an upper endoscopy report describing body and fundal atrophic gastritis. Which of the following tests would you expect to be positive in this patient?
A. Anti-parietal cell antibodies (Correct Answer)
B. Anti-Saccharomyces cerevisiae antibodies (ASCAs)
C. Anti-Helicobacter pylori antibodies
D. Anti-IgA antibodies
E. Anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (ANCAs)
Explanation: ***Anti-parietal cell antibodies***
- The patient's symptoms (early satiety, diarrhea, fatigue, glossitis), history of **iron deficiency anemia** and **vitamin B12 deficiency**, and findings of **atrophic gastritis** are classic for **pernicious anemia**, an autoimmune condition affecting gastric parietal cells.
- **Anti-parietal cell antibodies** are present in about 90% of individuals with pernicious anemia and are highly specific for this condition.
*Anti-Saccharomyces cerevisiae antibodies (ASCAs)*
- **ASCAs** are typically associated with **Crohn's disease**, an inflammatory bowel disease, which is not suggested by the patient's presentation of atrophic gastritis and specific nutrient deficiencies.
- Crohn's disease primarily causes chronic inflammation of the GI tract, leading to symptoms like abdominal pain, weight loss, and malabsorption, but not specifically autoantibody-mediated atrophic gastritis.
*Anti-Helicobacter pylori antibodies*
- While *H. pylori* can cause atrophic gastritis, it does not typically lead to the profound **vitamin B12 deficiency** seen with pernicious anemia due to autoimmune destruction of parietal cells responsible for intrinsic factor production.
- The patient's presentation is more consistent with an autoimmune etiology rather than an infectious one, despite the possibility of *H. pylori* co-infection.
*Anti-IgA antibodies*
- **Anti-IgA antibodies** are relevant in **celiac disease** diagnostics, particularly when a patient with suspected IgA deficiency is being tested for anti-tissue transglutaminase (tTG-IgA) antibodies.
- The patient's symptoms do not specifically point to celiac disease, and the finding of antral atrophic gastritis is not characteristic of celiac disease.
*Anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (ANCAs)*
- **ANCAs** are associated with **vasculitic conditions** such as granulomatosis with polyangiitis and microscopic polyangiitis or certain inflammatory bowel diseases like ulcerative colitis.
- The clinical picture provided, including specific malabsorption and atrophic gastritis, does not align with the typical manifestations of ANCA-associated diseases.
Question 128: A 52-year-old man presents to the emergency department with severe pain of the left first metatarsophalangeal joint. He says that the pain started 3 hours ago and describes it as sharp in character. The pain has been so severe that he has not been able to tolerate any movement of the joint. His past medical history is significant for hypertension for which he takes a thiazide diuretic. His diet consists primarily of red meat, and he drinks 5 bottles of beer per night. On physical exam, his left first metatarsophalangeal joint is swollen, erythematous, and warm to the touch. Which of the following characteristics would be seen with the most likely cause of this patient's symptoms?
A. Positively birefringent crystals in the joint
B. Fractures with bony consolidations
C. Negatively birefringent crystals in the joint (Correct Answer)
D. Inflammatory pannus formation
E. Subchondral sclerosis and osteophyte formation
Explanation: ***Negatively birefringent crystals in the joint***
- This patient presents with classic **acute gouty arthritis**: sudden onset of severe pain in the **first metatarsophalangeal joint (podagra)**, with **erythema**, **swelling**, and **warmth**.
- Key risk factors include **thiazide diuretic use** (decreases uric acid excretion), heavy **red meat consumption** (high purine intake), and **alcohol intake** (increases uric acid production and decreases excretion).
- **Gout** is caused by precipitation of **monosodium urate (MSU) crystals** in joints due to hyperuricemia.
- On **synovial fluid analysis**, MSU crystals appear as **needle-shaped, negatively birefringent** crystals under polarized light microscopy (yellow when parallel to the polarizer axis, blue when perpendicular).
*Positively birefringent crystals in the joint*
- **Positively birefringent** rhomboid-shaped crystals of **calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate (CPPD)** are characteristic of **pseudogout** (blue when parallel, yellow when perpendicular to polarizer).
- Pseudogout typically affects larger joints like the **knee** or wrist and occurs in older patients, often associated with metabolic conditions (hyperparathyroidism, hemochromatosis).
- The acute presentation in the **first MTP joint** with the patient's specific risk factors makes gout far more likely.
*Fractures with bony consolidations*
- This finding suggests **previous trauma** with healing fractures, not consistent with this acute inflammatory presentation.
- While trauma could cause acute joint pain, the described **inflammatory signs** (warmth, erythema), **specific location** (1st MTP), and **risk factors** point away from traumatic etiology.
*Inflammatory pannus formation*
- **Pannus formation** (hypertrophied, invasive synovial tissue) is a hallmark of **rheumatoid arthritis**.
- Rheumatoid arthritis typically presents with **symmetrical polyarthritis**, **morning stiffness lasting >30 minutes**, gradual onset over weeks to months, and often affects **metacarpophalangeal (MCP) and proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joints**.
- The **acute monoarticular** presentation and **first MTP joint** involvement are not typical of RA.
*Subchondral sclerosis and osteophyte formation*
- These are characteristic radiographic features of **osteoarthritis**, representing chronic degenerative changes.
- Osteoarthritis develops **gradually**, is associated with **mechanical pain** that worsens with activity and improves with rest, and lacks the **acute inflammatory signs** seen in this patient.
- The patient's young age (52) and acute presentation make primary OA of the first MTP joint unlikely.
Question 129: A 46-year-old woman presents to your medical office complaining of ‘feeling tired’. The patient states that she has been having some trouble eating because her ‘tongue hurts’, but she has no other complaints. On examination, the patient has pale conjunctiva and skin and also appears tired. She has a smooth, red tongue that is tender to touch with a tongue depressor. The patient’s hands and feet feel cold. Fluoroscopic evaluation of the swallowing mechanism and esophagus is normal. Which of the following diagnoses is most likely?
A. Herpes simplex virus-1 infection
B. Oral candidiasis infection
C. Kawasaki disease
D. Pernicious anemia (Correct Answer)
E. Plummer-Vinson syndrome
Explanation: ***Pernicious anemia***
- The symptoms, including **fatigue**, **pale conjunctiva and skin**, **smooth red tongue (atrophic glossitis)**, and cold extremities, are classic manifestations of **vitamin B12 deficiency**, often caused by pernicious anemia.
- Pernicious anemia results from impaired absorption of vitamin B12 due to a lack of **intrinsic factor**, leading to **megaloblastic anemia** with neurological symptoms often observed in later stages.
*Herpes simplex virus-1 infection*
- HSV-1 typically causes **oral lesions** like cold sores or fever blisters, which are usually painful vesicles and ulcers, not a diffuse smooth, red tongue.
- While it can cause oral discomfort, it does not explain the systemic symptoms of **fatigue** and **pallor** suggestive of anemia.
*Oral candidiasis infection*
- Oral candidiasis (thrush) presents as **white, creamy patches** on the tongue and oral mucosa that can be scraped off, often associated with immunocompromise.
- This presentation does not match the **smooth, red tongue** described, nor does it typically cause profound systemic fatigue and pallor in an otherwise healthy adult.
*Kawasaki disease*
- Kawasaki disease is a **vasculitis primarily affecting children**, characterized by fever, conjunctivitis, rash, lymphadenopathy, and a **strawberry tongue**.
- It is highly unlikely in a 46-year-old woman and does not manifest with the **pale skin** or classic presentation of **pernicious anemia**.
*Plummer-Vinson syndrome*
- Plummer-Vinson syndrome is characterized by the triad of **iron deficiency anemia**, **dysphagia** (due to esophageal webs), and **glossitis**.
- While glossitis and anemia are present, the history notes **normal fluoroscopic evaluation of the swallowing mechanism and esophagus**, ruling out esophageal webs, which are a hallmark of Plummer-Vinson syndrome.
Question 130: A 53-year-old man comes to the emergency department for severe left knee pain for the past 8 hours. He describes it as an unbearable, burning pain that woke him up from his sleep. He has been unable to walk since. He has not had any trauma to the knee. Ten months ago, he had an episode of acute pain and swelling of the right great toe that subsided after treatment with indomethacin. He has hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, psoriasis, and hyperlipidemia. Current medications include topical betamethasone, metformin, glipizide, losartan, and simvastatin. Two weeks ago, hydrochlorothiazide was added to his medication regimen to improve blood pressure control. He drinks 1–2 beers daily. He is 170 cm (5 ft 7 in) tall and weighs 110 kg (242 lb); BMI is 38.1 kg/m2. His temperature is 38.4°C (101.1°F). Examination shows multiple scaly plaques over his palms and soles. The left knee is erythematous, swollen, and tender; range of motion is limited by pain. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Arthrocentesis (Correct Answer)
B. Serum uric acid level
C. Oral methotrexate
D. Intra-articular triamcinolone
E. Oral colchicine
Explanation: **Arthrocentesis**
- **Arthrocentesis** is crucial to confirm the diagnosis of **gout** by identifying **negatively birefringent needle-shaped crystals** in the joint fluid, while also ruling out **septic arthritis**.
- Given the patient's **acute monoarticular pain**, fever, and predisposing risk factors (obesity, hypertension, hyperlipidemia, diuretics, alcohol), **septic arthritis** is a critical consideration requiring immediate differentiation.
*Serum uric acid level*
- A **serum uric acid level** should be checked, but it is not the most appropriate immediate next step given the acute presentation.
- Serum uric acid can be **normal or even low during an acute gout flare** due to increased renal excretion in response to inflammation.
*Oral methotrexate*
- **Methotrexate** is a disease-modifying antirheumatic drug (DMARD) used for long-term management of **psoriatic arthritis** or severe chronic gout, not for acute flares.
- It works by suppressing the immune system and takes weeks to months to show effect, making it unsuitable for immediate pain relief.
*Intra-articular triamcinolone*
- **Intra-articular corticosteroids** like triamcinolone could be considered for acute gout management but only after **septic arthritis has been definitively ruled out by arthrocentesis**.
- Administering corticosteroids into an infected joint can worsen the infection and lead to severe joint damage.
*Oral colchicine*
- **Oral colchicine** is an effective treatment for acute gout flares, but it is not the most appropriate *next step* because **septic arthritis must first be excluded**.
- Without arthrocentesis, treating a potentially infected joint with anti-inflammatory medication alone would be a critical omission.