A 21-year-old female presents to her obstetrician because she has stopped getting her period, after being irregular for the last 3 months. Upon further questioning, the patient reveals that she has had a 17 lb. unintended weight loss, endorses chronic diarrhea, abdominal pain, and constipation that waxes and wanes. Family history is notable only for an older brother with Type 1 Diabetes. She is healthy, and is eager to gain back some weight. Her OBGYN refers her to a gastroenterologist, but first sends serology laboratory studies for IgA anti-tissue transglutaminase antibodies (IgA-tTG). These results come back positive at > 10x the upper limit of normal. Which of the following is the gastroenterologist likely to find on endoscopy and duodenal biopsy?
Q112
A 55-year-old woman presents with fatigue. She says her symptoms are present throughout the day and gradually started 4 months ago. Her past medical history is significant for rheumatoid arthritis–treated with methotrexate, and diabetes mellitus type 2–treated with metformin. The patient is afebrile, and her vital signs are within normal limits. A physical examination reveals pallor of the mucous membranes. Initial laboratory tests show hemoglobin of 7.9 g/dL, hematocrit of 22%, and mean corpuscular volume of 79 fL. Which of the following is the best next diagnostic step in this patient?
Q113
A 55-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 6-month history of worsening fatigue. During this time, she has noted a decrease in her exercise capacity and she becomes short of breath when walking briskly. She has had occasional streaks of blood in her stools during periods of constipation. She was diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus at the age of 24 years and has a history of hypertension and hypercholesterolemia. She does not smoke or drink alcohol. Her current medications include insulin, lisinopril, aspirin, and atorvastatin. Her diet mostly consists of white meat and vegetables. Her pulse is 92/min and blood pressure is 145/92 mm Hg. Examination shows conjunctival pallor. Cardiac auscultation shows a grade 2/6 midsystolic ejection murmur best heard along the right upper sternal border. Sensation to pinprick is decreased bilaterally over the dorsum of her feet. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 9.2 g/dL
WBC count 7,200/mm3
Erythrocyte count 3.06 million/mm3
Mean corpuscular volume 84 μm3
Platelets 250,000/mm3
Reticulocyte count 0.6 %
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate 15 mm/h
Serum
Na+ 142 mEq/L
K+ 4.8 mEq/L
Ca2+ 8.1 mEq/L
Ferritin 145 ng/mL
Urea nitrogen 48 mg/dL
Creatinine 3.1 mg/dL
A fecal occult blood test is pending. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of this patient's condition?
Q114
A previously healthy 65-year-old man comes to the physician for chronic left-sided abdominal discomfort. About 3 months ago, he started experiencing early satiety and eating less. He has lost 7 kg (15.4 lb) during this period. He also occasionally has left shoulder pain. He recently retired from his job on a production line at a shoe factory. His pulse is 72/min, blood pressure is 130/70 mm Hg, and temperature is 37.8°C (100.1°F). Physical examination shows nontender, bilateral axillary and right-sided inguinal lymphadenopathy. The spleen is palpated 7 cm below the costal margin. Which of the following is the strongest indicator of a poor prognosis for this patient's condition?
Q115
A 27-year-old school teacher visits her doctor because of disfiguring skin lesions that started to appear in the past few days. The lesions are mostly located on her chest, shoulders, and back. They are 2–5 mm in diameter, droplike, erythematous papules with fine silver scales. Besides a sore throat and laryngitis requiring amoxicillin several weeks ago, she has no significant medical history. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Q116
A 32-year-old woman presents with a three-month history of difficulty swallowing. She says that it occurs with both solids and liquids with the sensation that food is getting stuck in her throat. Additionally, the patient reports that while shoveling snow this past winter, she had noticed that her hands would lose their color and become numb. She denies any cough, regurgitation, joint pains, shortness of breath, fever, or changes in weight. She does not smoke or drink alcohol. The patient’s physical exam is within normal limits, although she does appear to have thickened, tight skin on her fingers. She does not have any other skin findings. Which antibody will most likely be found on serological study in this patient?
Q117
A 65-year-old man with chronic myelogenous leukemia comes to the physician because of severe pain and swelling in both knees for the past day. He finished a cycle of chemotherapy 1 week ago. His temperature is 37.4°C (99.4°F). Physical examination shows swelling and erythema of both knees and the base of his left big toe. Laboratory studies show:
Leukocyte count 13,000/mm3
Serum
Creatinine 2.2 mg/dL
Calcium 8.2 mg/dL
Phosphorus 7.2 mg/dL
Arthrocentesis of the involved joints is most likely to show which of the following?
Q118
A 30-year-old forest landscape specialist is brought to the emergency department with hematemesis and confusion. One week ago she was diagnosed with influenza when she had fevers, severe headaches, myalgias, hip and shoulder pain, and a maculopapular rash. After a day of relative remission, she developed abdominal pain, vomiting, and diarrhea. A single episode of hematemesis occurred prior to admission. Two weeks ago she visited rainforests and caves in western Africa where she had direct contact with animals, including apes. She has no history of serious illnesses or use of medications. She is restless. Her temperature is 38.0℃ (100.4℉); the pulse is 95/min, the respiratory rate is 20/min; and supine and upright blood pressure is 130/70 mm Hg and 100/65 mm Hg, respectively. Conjunctival suffusion is noted. Ecchymoses are observed on the lower extremities. She is bleeding from one of her intravenous lines. The peripheral blood smear is negative for organisms. Filovirus genomes were detected during a reverse transcription-polymerase chain reaction. The laboratory studies show the following:
Laboratory test
Hemoglobin 10 g/dL
Leukocyte count 1,000/mm3
Segmented neutrophils 65%
Lymphocytes 20%
Platelet count 50,000/mm3
Partial thromboplastin time (activated) 60 seconds
Prothrombin time 25 seconds
Fibrin split products positive
Serum
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 85 U/L
Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) 120 U/L
γ-Glutamyltransferase (GGT) 83 U/L
Creatinine 2 mg/dL
Which of the following is the most appropriate immediate step in management?
Q119
A 37-year-old woman comes to the physician because of difficulty swallowing for the past 1 year. She was diagnosed with gastroesophageal reflux 3 years ago and takes pantoprazole. She has smoked a pack of cigarettes daily for 14 years. Examination shows hardening of the skin of the fingers and several white papules on the fingertips. There are small dilated blood vessels on the face. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's difficulty swallowing?
Q120
A 70-year-old man comes to the clinic for generalized fatigue. He says that he is more tired than before and has difficulty catching his breath while walking upstairs. He feels tired quickly doing his usual activity such as gardening and shopping. He does not have any symptoms of fever, change in bowel habits, abdominal pain, rectal bleeding, or weight loss. His appetite is normal. His last colonoscopy was done 10 years ago and it was normal. His blood pressure is 116/74 and heart rate is 87/min. On physical examination, his conjunctivae are pale. A routine blood test shows iron deficiency anemia with hemoglobin of 10 gm/dL. His stool is positive for occult blood. He is then sent for a colonoscopy (image is shown). What is the most likely diagnosis for the above condition?
Gastroenterology US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 111: A 21-year-old female presents to her obstetrician because she has stopped getting her period, after being irregular for the last 3 months. Upon further questioning, the patient reveals that she has had a 17 lb. unintended weight loss, endorses chronic diarrhea, abdominal pain, and constipation that waxes and wanes. Family history is notable only for an older brother with Type 1 Diabetes. She is healthy, and is eager to gain back some weight. Her OBGYN refers her to a gastroenterologist, but first sends serology laboratory studies for IgA anti-tissue transglutaminase antibodies (IgA-tTG). These results come back positive at > 10x the upper limit of normal. Which of the following is the gastroenterologist likely to find on endoscopy and duodenal biopsy?
A. Friable mucosal pseudopolyps with biopsy notable for crypt abscesses
B. Cobblestoning with biopsy showing transmural inflammation and noncaseating granulomas
C. Villous atrophy with crypt lengthening and intraepithelial lymphocytes (Correct Answer)
D. Foamy macrophages, which stain PAS positive
E. Normal appearing villi and biopsy
Explanation: ***Villous atrophy with crypt lengthening and intraepithelial lymphocytes***
- The patient's symptoms (amenorrhea, weight loss, diarrhea, abdominal pain, constipation) combined with a **positive IgA anti-tissue transglutaminase antibody (IgA-tTG)** strongly suggest **celiac disease**.
- The characteristic endoscopic and histological findings in celiac disease are **villous atrophy**, **crypt hyperplasia (lengthening)**, and increased **intraepithelial lymphocytes** in the small intestine.
*Friable mucosal pseudopolyps with biopsy notable for crypt abscesses*
- This description is characteristic of **ulcerative colitis**, an inflammatory bowel disease, which typically causes **bloody diarrhea** and is not associated with positive IgA-tTG antibodies.
- **Pseudopolyps** result from cycles of ulceration and regeneration, and **crypt abscesses** are hallmarks of active inflammation in ulcerative colitis.
*Cobblestoning with biopsy showing transmural inflammation and noncaseating granulomas*
- This describes the typical findings in **Crohn's disease**, another inflammatory bowel disease, which can cause **abdominal pain** and **diarrhea** but is not linked to IgA-tTG antibodies.
- **Transmural inflammation** means inflammation extends through all layers of the bowel wall, and **noncaseating granulomas** are a key distinguishing feature.
*Foamy macrophages, which stain PAS positive*
- These findings are characteristic of **Whipple's disease**, a rare bacterial infection caused by *Tropheryma whipplei*.
- While Whipple's disease can present with **malabsorption** and **weight loss**, it is not associated with positive celiac serology.
*Normal appearing villi and biopsy*
- Given the patient's strong clinical suspicion for celiac disease and a **highly positive IgA-tTG** test, normal findings on endoscopy and biopsy would be highly unlikely.
- A definitive diagnosis of celiac disease typically requires characteristic histological changes to confirm the serological findings.
Question 112: A 55-year-old woman presents with fatigue. She says her symptoms are present throughout the day and gradually started 4 months ago. Her past medical history is significant for rheumatoid arthritis–treated with methotrexate, and diabetes mellitus type 2–treated with metformin. The patient is afebrile, and her vital signs are within normal limits. A physical examination reveals pallor of the mucous membranes. Initial laboratory tests show hemoglobin of 7.9 g/dL, hematocrit of 22%, and mean corpuscular volume of 79 fL. Which of the following is the best next diagnostic step in this patient?
A. Serum ferritin level and total iron-binding capacity (TIBC)
B. Serum ferritin and serum iron levels
C. Serum ferritin and soluble transferrin receptor levels (Correct Answer)
D. Serum iron level
E. Serum ferritin level
Explanation: ***Serum ferritin and soluble transferrin receptor levels***
- This patient has **anemia** (hemoglobin 7.9 g/dL) with **microcytic** (MCV 79 fL) and **hypochromic** features, suggesting either **iron deficiency anemia (IDA)** or **anemia of chronic disease (ACD)**. Given her history of **rheumatoid arthritis**, ACD is highly likely, but co-existing IDA needs to be excluded.
- **Serum ferritin** is an acute-phase reactant, so it can be elevated in ACD masking a co-existing iron deficiency. **Soluble transferrin receptor (sTfR)** levels are increased in IDA and remain normal or only mildly elevated in ACD, making it a reliable marker to differentiate between these two conditions when ferritin is uninterpretable due to inflammation.
*Serum ferritin level and total iron-binding capacity (TIBC)*
- While these tests are useful for diagnosing iron deficiency, **ferritin** can be falsely elevated in the context of inflammation (e.g., from **rheumatoid arthritis**), making it unreliable for diagnosing IDA in this patient.
- **TIBC** can be decreased in ACD, complicating its interpretation for IDA when inflammation is present.
*Serum ferritin and serum iron levels*
- As mentioned, **serum ferritin** is an acute-phase reactant and may be elevated due to **rheumatoid arthritis**, potentially masking **iron deficiency**.
- **Serum iron levels** fluctuate significantly and are not a reliable standalone indicator for iron status, especially in the context of chronic disease.
*Serum iron level*
- **Serum iron levels** are highly variable and not sufficient for diagnosing **iron deficiency** or differentiating it from **anemia of chronic disease**.
- A low serum iron can be seen in both IDA and ACD but does not provide definitive diagnostic information on its own.
*Serum ferritin level*
- Measuring **serum ferritin** alone is insufficient because it is an **acute-phase reactant** that can be elevated due to the patient's **rheumatoid arthritis**, even if she has co-existing **iron deficiency anemia**.
- A normal or high ferritin level in this context does not rule out **iron deficiency**.
Question 113: A 55-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 6-month history of worsening fatigue. During this time, she has noted a decrease in her exercise capacity and she becomes short of breath when walking briskly. She has had occasional streaks of blood in her stools during periods of constipation. She was diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus at the age of 24 years and has a history of hypertension and hypercholesterolemia. She does not smoke or drink alcohol. Her current medications include insulin, lisinopril, aspirin, and atorvastatin. Her diet mostly consists of white meat and vegetables. Her pulse is 92/min and blood pressure is 145/92 mm Hg. Examination shows conjunctival pallor. Cardiac auscultation shows a grade 2/6 midsystolic ejection murmur best heard along the right upper sternal border. Sensation to pinprick is decreased bilaterally over the dorsum of her feet. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 9.2 g/dL
WBC count 7,200/mm3
Erythrocyte count 3.06 million/mm3
Mean corpuscular volume 84 μm3
Platelets 250,000/mm3
Reticulocyte count 0.6 %
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate 15 mm/h
Serum
Na+ 142 mEq/L
K+ 4.8 mEq/L
Ca2+ 8.1 mEq/L
Ferritin 145 ng/mL
Urea nitrogen 48 mg/dL
Creatinine 3.1 mg/dL
A fecal occult blood test is pending. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of this patient's condition?
A. Chronic occult blood loss
B. Deficient vitamin B12 intake
C. Decreased erythropoietin production (Correct Answer)
D. Malignant plasma cell replication
E. Drug-induced bone marrow failure
Explanation: ***Decreased erythropoietin production***
- This patient presents with **normocytic anemia** (MCV 84 μm3), **elevated BUN and creatinine** indicative of renal dysfunction, and a history of **long-standing type 1 diabetes mellitus** and **hypertension**, all of which predispose to **chronic kidney disease**.
- **Chronic kidney disease** is the most common cause of reduced **erythropoietin production**, leading to impaired red blood cell synthesis and **anemia of chronic disease**. Her **ferritin level (145 ng/mL)** is within normal range, making iron deficiency less likely despite the reported blood streaks.
*Chronic occult blood loss*
- While she has reported occasional streaks of blood in her stools, her **ferritin level** is within the normal range to elevated, which would typically be very low in significant **chronic blood loss** leading to iron deficiency anemia.
- Furthermore, her **MCV is normal**, whereas chronic blood loss often leads to **microcytic anemia** due to iron deficiency.
*Deficient vitamin B12 intake*
- **Vitamin B12 deficiency** typically causes **macrocytic anemia** (MCV > 100 μm3), which is not seen in this patient (MCV 84 μm3).
- Although she has type 1 diabetes, which can be associated with autoimmune gastritis and thus B12 deficiency, her normal MCV makes this diagnosis unlikely.
*Malignant plasma cell replication*
- **Malignant plasma cell replication**, such as in **multiple myeloma**, can cause anemia, kidney failure, and elevated creatinine.
- However, multiple myeloma typically presents with an **elevated calcium level**, bone pain, and often a **hypergammaglobulinemia**, none of which are explicitly indicated or align with the primary presentation of her anemia.
*Drug-induced bone marrow failure*
- While several medications can cause **bone marrow suppression**, there is no evidence in the patient's history or lab results (normal WBC and platelet counts, normal reticulocyte count that is only relatively low given the anemia) to suggest **global bone marrow failure**.
- The anemia is specifically normocytic and associated with clear signs of **chronic kidney disease**, a more direct cause of decreased red blood cell production.
Question 114: A previously healthy 65-year-old man comes to the physician for chronic left-sided abdominal discomfort. About 3 months ago, he started experiencing early satiety and eating less. He has lost 7 kg (15.4 lb) during this period. He also occasionally has left shoulder pain. He recently retired from his job on a production line at a shoe factory. His pulse is 72/min, blood pressure is 130/70 mm Hg, and temperature is 37.8°C (100.1°F). Physical examination shows nontender, bilateral axillary and right-sided inguinal lymphadenopathy. The spleen is palpated 7 cm below the costal margin. Which of the following is the strongest indicator of a poor prognosis for this patient's condition?
A. Thrombocytopenia
B. Lymphocytosis
C. Bone lesions
D. BCR-ABL gene
E. Peripheral lymphadenopathy (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Peripheral lymphadenopathy***
- The presence of **widespread peripheral lymphadenopathy** (bilateral axillary and inguinal) combined with massive splenomegaly indicates **advanced-stage chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)**.
- In the **Rai staging system**, lymphadenopathy places patients at Stage I-II, and when combined with splenomegaly (Stage II) or organomegaly, indicates **intermediate risk**. Multiple lymph node regions involved suggests more advanced disease.
- In the **Binet staging system**, involvement of ≥3 lymphoid areas (axillary bilateral + inguinal + spleen) places the patient at **Stage B or C**, associated with **poorer prognosis**.
- Extensive lymphadenopathy reflects **higher tumor burden** and is a well-established poor prognostic factor in CLL and low-grade lymphomas.
*Thrombocytopenia*
- While thrombocytopenia in CLL indicates **Rai Stage IV** (highest risk), it is **not mentioned in this patient's presentation**.
- Thrombocytopenia would indeed be a poor prognostic sign if present, but the question asks about findings from the clinical scenario provided.
*Lymphocytosis*
- **Lymphocytosis** is the hallmark laboratory finding in CLL and required for diagnosis.
- However, **isolated lymphocytosis** without lymphadenopathy or organomegaly represents **Rai Stage 0** (low risk) or **Binet Stage A** (best prognosis).
- The **degree of lymphocytosis alone** is not as strong a prognostic indicator as the extent of lymph node and organ involvement.
*Bone lesions*
- **Lytic bone lesions** are characteristic of **multiple myeloma**, not CLL.
- CLL typically causes **bone marrow infiltration** but not destructive bone lesions.
- The clinical presentation (lymphadenopathy, splenomegaly, no bone pain) does not suggest myeloma.
*BCR-ABL gene*
- The **BCR-ABL fusion gene** (Philadelphia chromosome) is the defining feature of **chronic myeloid leukemia (CML)**, not CLL.
- CML typically presents with **marked leukocytosis** (often >100,000/μL), **basophilia**, and massive splenomegaly but **rarely has significant lymphadenopathy**.
- This patient's presentation with **prominent lymphadenopathy** strongly suggests a **lymphoproliferative disorder** (CLL or lymphoma), not CML.
Question 115: A 27-year-old school teacher visits her doctor because of disfiguring skin lesions that started to appear in the past few days. The lesions are mostly located on her chest, shoulders, and back. They are 2–5 mm in diameter, droplike, erythematous papules with fine silver scales. Besides a sore throat and laryngitis requiring amoxicillin several weeks ago, she has no significant medical history. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Bullous pemphigoid
B. Plaque psoriasis
C. Pemphigus vulgaris
D. Guttate psoriasis (Correct Answer)
E. Inverse psoriasis
Explanation: ***Guttate psoriasis***
- This condition is characterized by **acute onset** of **small (2–5 mm)**, **droplike**, erythematous papules with **fine silver scales**, predominantly on the trunk.
- It often follows an **upper respiratory tract infection**, particularly with *Streptococcus pyogenes*, as indicated by the recent **sore throat and laryngitis** requiring amoxicillin.
*Bullous pemphigoid*
- This autoimmune blistering disease primarily affects the **elderly** and presents with large, **tense bullae** on an erythematous or urticarial base.
- It does not typically present with small, scaly papules or have a direct association with recent streptococcal infections.
*Plaque psoriasis*
- The most common type of psoriasis, presenting with **well-demarcated**, erythematous plaques covered by **thick, silvery scales**, usually larger than 5 mm.
- While it can be found on the trunk, its lesions are typically larger and chronologically more stable than the acute, droplike lesions described.
*Pemphigus vulgaris*
- This is a severe autoimmune blistering disease characterized by **flaccid bullae** and erosions on the skin and **mucous membranes**.
- It involves intraepidermal blistering due to acantholysis and is not associated with recent sore throat or small, scaly papules.
*Inverse psoriasis*
- This form of psoriasis affects **skin folds** (e.g., axillae, groin, inframammary regions) and presents as **smooth, erythematous plaques** without significant scaling due to moisture.
- Its location and lack of typical scaling differ from the described lesions on the chest, shoulders, and back.
Question 116: A 32-year-old woman presents with a three-month history of difficulty swallowing. She says that it occurs with both solids and liquids with the sensation that food is getting stuck in her throat. Additionally, the patient reports that while shoveling snow this past winter, she had noticed that her hands would lose their color and become numb. She denies any cough, regurgitation, joint pains, shortness of breath, fever, or changes in weight. She does not smoke or drink alcohol. The patient’s physical exam is within normal limits, although she does appear to have thickened, tight skin on her fingers. She does not have any other skin findings. Which antibody will most likely be found on serological study in this patient?
A. Anti-mitochondrial antibodies
B. Anti-U1-RNP antibodies
C. Anti-CCP antibodies
D. Anti-topoisomerase antibodies
E. Anti-centromere antibodies (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Anti-centromere antibodies***
- The patient's symptoms of **dysphagia for solids and liquids**, **Raynaud's phenomenon** (hands losing color and becoming numb), and **tightened skin on the fingers** are classic features of **CREST syndrome**, a limited form of systemic sclerosis.
- **Anti-centromere antibodies** are highly specific for CREST syndrome (Calcinosis, Raynaud's phenomenon, Esophageal dysmotility, Sclerodactyly, Telangiectasias).
*Anti-mitochondrial antibodies*
- These antibodies are the hallmark of **primary biliary cholangitis (PBC)**, a chronic autoimmune liver disease.
- PBC presents with **fatigue, pruritus, and jaundice**, not the symptoms described in the patient.
*Anti-U1-RNP antibodies*
- These antibodies are characteristic of **mixed connective tissue disease (MCTD)**, which has overlapping features of several autoimmune diseases.
- While MCTD can include Raynaud's and esophageal dysmotility, the combination of specific sclerodactyly and dysphagia points more strongly to CREST in this context.
*Anti-CCP antibodies*
- **Anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (anti-CCP) antibodies** are highly specific for **rheumatoid arthritis (RA)**.
- RA typically presents with **symmetrical polyarthritis** and joint swelling, which the patient denies.
*Anti-topoisomerase antibodies*
- Also known as **anti-Scl-70 antibodies**, these are associated with **diffuse systemic sclerosis**, a more severe form of scleroderma.
- Diffuse systemic sclerosis typically involves **widespread skin thickening** and earlier onset of **internal organ involvement**, including lung fibrosis and renal crisis, which are not described.
Question 117: A 65-year-old man with chronic myelogenous leukemia comes to the physician because of severe pain and swelling in both knees for the past day. He finished a cycle of chemotherapy 1 week ago. His temperature is 37.4°C (99.4°F). Physical examination shows swelling and erythema of both knees and the base of his left big toe. Laboratory studies show:
Leukocyte count 13,000/mm3
Serum
Creatinine 2.2 mg/dL
Calcium 8.2 mg/dL
Phosphorus 7.2 mg/dL
Arthrocentesis of the involved joints is most likely to show which of the following?
A. Calcium phosphate crystals
B. Monosodium urate crystals (Correct Answer)
C. Gram-negative diplococci
D. Gram-positive cocci in clusters
E. Calcium pyrophosphate crystals
Explanation: **Correct Answer: Monosodium urate crystals**
- The patient has a history of **chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML)** and recently underwent **chemotherapy**, increasing the risk of **tumor lysis syndrome** and subsequent hyperuricemia.
- The presentation of acute, severe joint pain and swelling in multiple joints, including the **left big toe** (podagra), with elevated creatinine, phosphorus, and mildly low calcium, is highly suggestive of **gout**.
- Laboratory findings of **hyperphosphatemia (7.2 mg/dL)** and **acute kidney injury (Cr 2.2 mg/dL)** with **hypocalcemia (8.2 mg/dL)** are classic for **tumor lysis syndrome**, which causes massive purine breakdown and hyperuricemia.
*Incorrect: Calcium phosphate crystals*
- These are associated with **hydroxyapatite deposition disease**, which typically presents with periarticular calcification and inflammation, often involving the shoulder, but not typically with the **biochemical abnormalities** seen here (hyperphosphatemia, elevated creatinine).
- The clinical picture of **podagra** and the context of chemotherapy-induced **hyperuricemia** strongly point away from calcium phosphate crystals.
*Incorrect: Gram-negative diplococci*
- This would indicate **gonococcal arthritis**, which typically occurs in younger, sexually active individuals and presents with fever, skin lesions (pustules), and tenosynovitis, which are absent here.
- The patient's age (65), lack of significant fever, and specific presentation of podagra with relevant **chemotherapy history** do not support infectious arthritis, especially gonococcal.
*Incorrect: Gram-positive cocci in clusters*
- This suggests **Staphylococcal septic arthritis**, which would often present with a higher fever, chills, and typically affects a single joint, although multiple joints can be involved.
- While chemotherapy can lead to immunocompromise, the elevated **uric acid precursors** (due to tumor lysis) and the characteristic **podagra** in the big toe make gout a much more likely diagnosis than septic arthritis.
*Incorrect: Calcium pyrophosphate crystals*
- These cause **pseudogout**, also known as calcium pyrophosphate deposition disease (CPPD), which can affect knees and mimic gout, but it is not directly associated with leukemia or chemotherapy-induced **tumor lysis syndrome**.
- The laboratory findings of **hyperphosphatemia** and history of chemotherapy, leading to high cell turnover, are more consistent with **hyperuricemia** from tumor lysis than with pseudogout.
Question 118: A 30-year-old forest landscape specialist is brought to the emergency department with hematemesis and confusion. One week ago she was diagnosed with influenza when she had fevers, severe headaches, myalgias, hip and shoulder pain, and a maculopapular rash. After a day of relative remission, she developed abdominal pain, vomiting, and diarrhea. A single episode of hematemesis occurred prior to admission. Two weeks ago she visited rainforests and caves in western Africa where she had direct contact with animals, including apes. She has no history of serious illnesses or use of medications. She is restless. Her temperature is 38.0℃ (100.4℉); the pulse is 95/min, the respiratory rate is 20/min; and supine and upright blood pressure is 130/70 mm Hg and 100/65 mm Hg, respectively. Conjunctival suffusion is noted. Ecchymoses are observed on the lower extremities. She is bleeding from one of her intravenous lines. The peripheral blood smear is negative for organisms. Filovirus genomes were detected during a reverse transcription-polymerase chain reaction. The laboratory studies show the following:
Laboratory test
Hemoglobin 10 g/dL
Leukocyte count 1,000/mm3
Segmented neutrophils 65%
Lymphocytes 20%
Platelet count 50,000/mm3
Partial thromboplastin time (activated) 60 seconds
Prothrombin time 25 seconds
Fibrin split products positive
Serum
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 85 U/L
Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) 120 U/L
γ-Glutamyltransferase (GGT) 83 U/L
Creatinine 2 mg/dL
Which of the following is the most appropriate immediate step in management?
A. Esophagogastroduodenoscopy
B. Postexposure vaccination of close contacts
C. Parenteral artesunate plus sulfadoxine/pyrimethamine
D. Use of N95 masks
E. Intravenous fluids and electrolytes (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Intravenous fluids and electrolytes***
- The patient presents with **orthostatic hypotension**, internal bleeding (hematemesis, ecchymoses), and deranged renal function (elevated creatinine). These indicate significant **fluid loss** and potential **hypovolemic shock**, making immediate fluid resuscitation critical.
- **Ebola virus disease** (indicated by the travel history, symptoms, and positive filovirus genomes) often leads to severe dehydration due to fluid loss from vomiting, diarrhea, and internal bleeding, necessitating aggressive fluid and electrolyte replacement as a cornerstone of supportive care.
*Esophagogastroduodenoscopy*
- While the patient has hematemesis, her overall clinical picture with **severe coagulopathy** (elevated PT/aPTT, low platelets, positive fibrin split products) and **multisystem involvement** suggests a systemic bleeding disorder rather than a focal upper GI bleed that would be the primary target of an EGD.
- Performing an invasive procedure like EGD in a patient with severe coagulopathy and a highly contagious disease like Ebola (implied by filovirus detection) carries significant risks and is not the most immediate priority compared to stabilizing vital signs and correcting fluid deficits.
*Postexposure vaccination of close contacts*
- This is a crucial public health measure for **Ebola virus disease** but is a secondary step in management focused on prevention for others, not the immediate stabilization or treatment of the acutely ill patient.
- While important, it does not address the patient's immediate, life-threatening symptoms of hypovolemia, bleeding, and organ dysfunction.
*Parenteral artesunate plus sulfadoxine/pyrimethamine*
- This regimen is an antimalarial treatment. While the patient traveled to Western Africa, her symptoms and the detection of **filovirus genomes** rule out malaria as the primary diagnosis requiring this specific treatment.
- Administering antimalarials would delay appropriate supportive care for Ebola virus disease and is not indicated given the specific viral diagnosis.
*Use of N95 masks*
- **N95 masks** are important for healthcare worker protection given the patient's symptoms and confirmed filovirus. However, the question asks for the most appropriate *immediate step in management* of the patient's condition.
- While infection control is paramount, providing immediate direct patient care like fluid resuscitation takes precedence for the patient's survival over PPE considerations, assuming adequate PPE is already being donned by healthcare providers.
Question 119: A 37-year-old woman comes to the physician because of difficulty swallowing for the past 1 year. She was diagnosed with gastroesophageal reflux 3 years ago and takes pantoprazole. She has smoked a pack of cigarettes daily for 14 years. Examination shows hardening of the skin of the fingers and several white papules on the fingertips. There are small dilated blood vessels on the face. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's difficulty swallowing?
A. Tissue membrane obstructing esophageal lumen
B. Demyelination of brain and spinal cord axons
C. Degeneration of neurons within esophageal wall
D. Outpouching of the lower pharyngeal mucosa
E. Esophageal smooth muscle fibrosis (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Esophageal smooth muscle fibrosis***
- The patient's symptoms are highly suggestive of **systemic sclerosis (scleroderma)**, specifically **CREST syndrome** (limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis), characterized by **Calcinosis**, **Raynaud's phenomenon**, **Esophageal dysmotility**, **Sclerodactyly**, and **Telangiectasias**.
- The **white papules on fingertips** represent **calcinosis cutis** (subcutaneous calcium deposits), and **skin hardening** indicates sclerodactyly.
- In scleroderma, **fibrosis** and atrophy of the **esophageal smooth muscle** (particularly the distal two-thirds) lead to impaired peristalsis and lower esophageal sphincter dysfunction, causing the described **dysphagia** and reflux.
- This is the most common GI manifestation of systemic sclerosis.
*Tissue membrane obstructing esophageal lumen*
- An **esophageal web** or **Schatzki ring** can cause dysphagia, typically to solids, but it does not explain the systemic findings like sclerodactyly, calcinosis, or telangiectasias.
- These conditions are structural obstructions, whereas the patient's presentation suggests a systemic connective tissue disease affecting esophageal motility.
*Demyelination of brain and spinal cord axons*
- **Demyelination**, as seen in conditions like **multiple sclerosis**, can cause bulbar symptoms and dysphagia, but it would not explain the **cutaneous manifestations** such as sclerodactyly, calcinosis, and telangiectasias.
- This etiology would typically present with other neurological deficits, which are not mentioned here.
*Degeneration of neurons within esophageal wall*
- **Achalasia**, involving the degeneration of inhibitory neurons in the myenteric plexus, causes absent esophageal peristalsis and impaired LES relaxation, leading to dysphagia.
- However, achalasia does not typically present with **sclerodactyly**, **calcinosis**, or **telangiectasias**, which point strongly towards systemic sclerosis.
*Outpouching of the lower pharyngeal mucosa*
- An **esophageal diverticulum**, such as **Zenker's diverticulum**, can cause dysphagia, regurgitation of undigested food, and halitosis.
- This condition is a localized structural abnormality and does not account for the **systemic connective tissue** findings observed in the patient.
Question 120: A 70-year-old man comes to the clinic for generalized fatigue. He says that he is more tired than before and has difficulty catching his breath while walking upstairs. He feels tired quickly doing his usual activity such as gardening and shopping. He does not have any symptoms of fever, change in bowel habits, abdominal pain, rectal bleeding, or weight loss. His appetite is normal. His last colonoscopy was done 10 years ago and it was normal. His blood pressure is 116/74 and heart rate is 87/min. On physical examination, his conjunctivae are pale. A routine blood test shows iron deficiency anemia with hemoglobin of 10 gm/dL. His stool is positive for occult blood. He is then sent for a colonoscopy (image is shown). What is the most likely diagnosis for the above condition?
A. Colon cancer
B. Angiodysplasia (Correct Answer)
C. Intestinal obstruction
D. Hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia
E. Diverticulitis
Explanation: ***Angiodysplasia***
- The patient's presentation with **iron deficiency anemia**, **generalized fatigue**, **dyspnea on exertion**, and **positive fecal occult blood** in an elderly individual is highly suggestive of chronic gastrointestinal blood loss. The colonoscopy image would likely show the characteristic vascular malformations of angiodysplasia.
- **Angiodysplasia** is a common cause of GI bleeding in the elderly, often occurring in the **right colon**. These lesions are fragile and prone to intermittent, painless bleeding leading to iron deficiency anemia.
*Colon cancer*
- While **colon cancer** can cause iron deficiency anemia and positive fecal occult blood, the patient's lack of other alarm symptoms such as **weight loss**, **change in bowel habits**, or **abdominal pain** makes it less likely, especially with a normal colonoscopy 10 years prior (though a new lesion is possible).
- The colonoscopy image would typically show a **polypoid mass** or ulcerated lesion, not the distinct vascular malformations characteristic of angiodysplasia.
*Intestinal obstruction*
- **Intestinal obstruction** would primarily present with symptoms like **nausea**, **vomiting**, **abdominal distension**, and **constipation**, which are not reported by the patient.
- It is not a direct cause of **chronic GI blood loss** leading to iron deficiency anemia, although some causes of obstruction (like a tumor) could also bleed.
*Hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia*
- **Hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia (HHT)**, or **Osler-Weber-Rendu syndrome**, is characterized by widespread **mucocutaneous telangiectasias** and recurrent bleeding from various sites, including the GI tract.
- However, HHT is a genetic disorder usually presenting with symptoms **earlier in life** and affecting multiple organs; there are no signs of other affected systems or mucocutaneous lesions mentioned.
*Diverticulitis*
- **Diverticulitis** typically presents with acute **left lower quadrant abdominal pain**, **fever**, and changes in bowel habits, which are absent in this patient.
- While **diverticulosis** (the presence of diverticula) can cause significant GI bleeding, **diverticulitis** refers to inflammation or infection of the diverticula, not directly chronic, occult bleeding leading to anemia in this context without other symptoms.