A 52-year-old woman complains of intermittent diffuse abdominal pain that becomes worse after eating meals and several episodes of diarrhea, the last of which was bloody. These symptoms have been present for the previous 6 months but have worsened recently. She has had significant weight loss since the onset of symptoms. Her past medical history includes systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), which has been difficult to manage medically. Vital signs include a blood pressure of 100/70 mm Hg, temperature of 37.1°C (98.8 °F), and pulse of 95/min. On physical examination, the patient appears to be in severe pain, and there is mild diffuse abdominal tenderness. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q102
A 25-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by police. The patient was found intoxicated at a local bar. The patient is combative and smells of alcohol. The patient has a past medical history of alcoholism, IV drug use, and schizophrenia. His current medications include IM haloperidol and ibuprofen. The patient is currently homeless and has presented to the emergency department similarly multiple times. His temperature is 97.0°F (36.1°C), blood pressure is 130/87 mmHg, pulse is 100/min, respirations are 15/min, and oxygen saturation is 96% on room air. Physical exam is deferred due to patient non-compliance. Laboratory values reveal an acute kidney injury and a normal PT/PTT. The patient is started on IV fluids and ketorolac to control symptoms of a headache. The patient begins to vomit into a basin. The nursing staff calls for help when the patient’s vomit appears grossly bloody. Which of the following best describes the most likely diagnosis?
Q103
A 65-year-old woman is brought to the emergency room by her family with complaints of confusion and change in behavior. Her family states that over the last 2 weeks, the patient has become increasingly irritable and confused as well as aggressive toward strangers. In addition to her altered mental status, her family also endorses recent episodes of abdominal pain and watery diarrhea. Her medications include HCTZ, enalapril, loperamide, and a calcium supplement. There is no history of recent travel outside the United States. Her temperature is 99.5°F (37.5°C), pulse is 112/min, blood pressure is 100/70 mmHg, respirations are 18/min, and oxygen saturation is 93% on room air. Physical exam is notable for a thin, ill-appearing woman. Cardiac exam is significant for sinus tachycardia and bowel sounds are hyperactive. Purple discoloration with scale-crust is noted around her neck and upper chest, as well as on her hands and feet. A chest radiograph shows clear lung fields bilaterally, but an echocardiogram shows thickening of the right ventricular endocardium with mild tricuspid stenosis. Which of the following is the next best diagnostic step?
Q104
A 68-year-old woman comes to the physician with dysphagia and halitosis for several months. She feels food sticking to her throat immediately after swallowing. Occasionally, she regurgitates undigested food hours after eating. She has no history of any serious illness and takes no medications. Her vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination including the oral cavity, throat, and neck shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate diagnostic study at this time?
Q105
A 55-year-old man presents to his primary care physician with a complaint of fatigue for a couple of months. He was feeling well during his last visit 6 months ago. He has a history of hypertension for the past 8 years, diabetes mellitus for the past 5 years, and chronic kidney disease (CKD) for a year. The vital signs include: blood pressure 138/84 mm Hg, pulse 81/min, temperature 36.8°C (98.2°F), and respiratory rate 9/min. On physical examination, moderate pallor is noted on the palpebral conjunctiva and nail bed.
Complete blood count results are as follows:
Hemoglobin 8.5 g/dL
RBC 4.2 million cells/µL
Hematocrit 39%
Total leukocyte count 6,500 cells/µL
Neutrophils 61%
Lymphocytes 34%
Monocytes 4%
Eosinophils 1%
Basophils 0%
Platelets 240,000 cells/µL
A basic metabolic panel shows:
Sodium 133 mEq/L
Potassium 5.8 mEq/L
Chloride 101 mEq/L
Bicarbonate 21 mEq/L
Albumin 3.1 mg/dL
Urea nitrogen 31 mg/dL
Creatinine 2.8 mg/dL
Uric acid 6.4 mg/dL
Calcium 8.1 mg/dL
Glucose 111 mg/dL
Which of the following explanations best explains the mechanism for his decreased hemoglobin?
Q106
A 35-year-old homeless man from New York City comes to the physician with a 2-month history of fever, night sweats, and a cough productive of white sputum. He uses intravenous heroin several times a week. His temperature is 38°C (100.4°F) and respirations are 22/min. Physical examination shows coarse crackles in the left upper posterior lung field. An x-ray of the chest shows a cavitary lesion in the left upper lobe. Which of the following is the most likely source of his pulmonary findings?
Q107
Three days after admission to the hospital with a clinical diagnosis of ischemic colitis, a 65-year-old man has recovered from his initial symptoms of bloody diarrhea and abdominal pain with tenderness. He feels well at this point and wishes to go home. He has a 15-year history of diabetes mellitus. Currently, he receives nothing by mouth, and he is on IV fluids, antibiotics, and insulin. His temperature is 36.7°C (98.1°F), pulse is 68/min, respiratory rate is 13/min, and blood pressure is 115/70 mm Hg. Physical examination of the abdomen shows no abnormalities. His most recent laboratory studies are all within normal limits, including glucose. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Q108
A 45-year-old man comes to the physician for evaluation of a recurrent rash. He has multiple skin lesions on his legs, buttocks, and around his mouth. The rash first appeared a year ago and tends to resolve spontaneously in one location before reappearing in another location a few days later. It begins with painless, reddish spots that gradually increase in size and then develop into painful and itchy blisters. The patient also reports having repeated bouts of diarrhea and has lost 10 kg (22 lb) over the past year. One year ago, the patient was diagnosed with major depressive syndrome and was started on fluoxetine. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows multiple crusty patches with central areas of bronze-colored induration, as well as tender eruptive lesions with irregular borders and on his legs, buttocks, and around his lips. The Nikolsky sign is negative. His hemoglobin concentration is 10.2 g/dL, mean corpuscular volume is 88 μm3, and serum glucose is 210 mg/dL. A skin biopsy of the lesion shows epidermal necrosis. Which of the following additional findings is most likely to be found in this patient?
Q109
A 52-year-old African-American woman presents to the office complaining of difficulty swallowing for 1 week, and described it as "food getting stuck in her throat". Her discomfort is mainly for solid foods, and she does not have any problem with liquids. She further adds that she has frequent heartburn and lost 5 pounds in the last month because of this discomfort. She sometimes takes antacids to relieve her heartburn. Her past medical history is insignificant. She is an occasional drinker and smokes a half pack of cigarettes a day. On examination, her skin is shiny and taut especially around her lips and fingertips. A barium swallow study is ordered. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q110
A 70-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department due to worsening lethargy. She lives with her husband who says she has had severe diarrhea for the past few days. Examination shows a blood pressure of 85/60 mm Hg, pulse of 100/min, and temperature of 37.8°C (100.0°F). The patient is stuporous, while her skin appears dry and lacks turgor. Laboratory tests reveal:
Serum electrolytes
Sodium 144 mEq/L
Potassium 3.5 mEq/L
Chloride 115 mEq/L
Bicarbonate 19 mEq/L
Serum pH 7.3
PaO2 80 mm Hg
Pco2 38 mm Hg
This patient has which of the following acid-base disturbances?
Gastroenterology US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 101: A 52-year-old woman complains of intermittent diffuse abdominal pain that becomes worse after eating meals and several episodes of diarrhea, the last of which was bloody. These symptoms have been present for the previous 6 months but have worsened recently. She has had significant weight loss since the onset of symptoms. Her past medical history includes systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), which has been difficult to manage medically. Vital signs include a blood pressure of 100/70 mm Hg, temperature of 37.1°C (98.8 °F), and pulse of 95/min. On physical examination, the patient appears to be in severe pain, and there is mild diffuse abdominal tenderness. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Ischemic bowel disease (Correct Answer)
B. Small bowel obstruction
C. Acute pancreatitis
D. Gastroenteritis
E. Ulcerative colitis
Explanation: ***Ischemic bowel disease***
- The patient's history of **diffuse abdominal pain worsening after meals** (postprandial pain or "abdominal angina"), **bloody diarrhea**, and **significant weight loss** is highly suggestive of **chronic mesenteric ischemia**.
- Her history of **systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)**, which can cause **vasculitis** and **hypercoagulability**, increases the risk of mesenteric artery thrombosis or emboli, leading to bowel ischemia.
*Small bowel obstruction*
- This typically presents with **colicky abdominal pain**, **vomiting**, and **abdominal distension**, often with obstipation.
- While it can cause pain, it does not typically lead to **bloody diarrhea** or chronic postprandial worsening of symptoms.
*Acute pancreatitis*
- Characterized by **severe epigastric pain** radiating to the back, often associated with nausea and vomiting, and elevated lipase/amylase.
- It does not typically present with **bloody diarrhea** or a chronic history of symptoms worsening after eating.
*Gastroenteritis*
- Usually presents with **acute onset** of nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and fever, often resolving within a few days to a week.
- The **chronic nature** (6 months) of symptoms, significant weight loss, and the specific pattern of postprandial pain make gastroenteritis unlikely.
*Ulcerative colitis*
- While it causes **bloody diarrhea** and abdominal pain, it typically involves the colon and rectum, and pain is less commonly described as diffuse and worsening specifically after meals due to ischemia.
- The primary symptoms are usually **tenesmus**, frequent bowel movements, and rectal bleeding, and it does not typically present with the specific "abdominal angina" associated with mesenteric ischemia.
Question 102: A 25-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by police. The patient was found intoxicated at a local bar. The patient is combative and smells of alcohol. The patient has a past medical history of alcoholism, IV drug use, and schizophrenia. His current medications include IM haloperidol and ibuprofen. The patient is currently homeless and has presented to the emergency department similarly multiple times. His temperature is 97.0°F (36.1°C), blood pressure is 130/87 mmHg, pulse is 100/min, respirations are 15/min, and oxygen saturation is 96% on room air. Physical exam is deferred due to patient non-compliance. Laboratory values reveal an acute kidney injury and a normal PT/PTT. The patient is started on IV fluids and ketorolac to control symptoms of a headache. The patient begins to vomit into a basin. The nursing staff calls for help when the patient’s vomit appears grossly bloody. Which of the following best describes the most likely diagnosis?
A. Gastric mucosal erosion
B. Mucosal tear at the gastroesophageal junction (Correct Answer)
C. Transmural erosion of the gastric wall
D. Dilated submucosal esophageal veins
E. Transmural distal esophagus tear
Explanation: ***Mucosal tear at the gastroesophageal junction***
- The patient's history of **alcoholism** and acute onset of **forceful vomiting** leading to hematemesis is highly suggestive of a **Mallory-Weiss tear**.
- This condition involves a longitudinal tear in the **mucosa** or **submucosa** at the **gastroesophageal junction**, often caused by sudden increases in intra-abdominal pressure from retching or vomiting.
- The **direct temporal relationship** between the vomiting episode and grossly bloody emesis is the key diagnostic clue.
*Gastric mucosal erosion*
- While the patient is at significant risk due to **alcoholism**, **ibuprofen** use, and recent **ketorolac** administration, gastric erosions typically cause slow, persistent bleeding (melena or occult bleeding) rather than the sudden, profuse, grossly bloody emesis described.
- NSAID-induced mucosal injury develops over time and would not cause acute hematemesis immediately after a single dose of ketorolac.
- The acute, forceful vomiting **immediately preceding** the hematemesis points more specifically to a mechanical tear.
*Transmural erosion of the gastric wall*
- A transmural erosion implies a **perforation** through the entire gastric wall, which would present with signs of peritonitis, such as severe abdominal pain, guarding, and rigidity, none of which are described.
- This is a much more severe condition than a mucosal tear and would require urgent surgical intervention.
*Dilated submucosal esophageal veins*
- **Esophageal varices** are dilated veins typically seen in patients with **portal hypertension** (e.g., due to cirrhosis from chronic alcoholism), and while they can cause severe hematemesis, the onset is usually not as directly linked to an acute episode of forceful vomiting in the way a Mallory-Weiss tear is.
- The question emphasizes the immediate preceding vomiting as the trigger for bleeding, which is pathognomonic for Mallory-Weiss tear.
*Transmural distal esophagus tear*
- A transmural tear of the esophagus (**Boerhaave syndrome**) is a more severe injury involving all layers of the esophageal wall, often associated with a \"retching and tearing\" sensation followed by severe chest pain and subcutaneous emphysema.
- It results in **mediastinitis** and systemic illness with signs of sepsis, which is a more profound presentation than a simple mucosal tear and not suggested by the provided vital signs or initial symptoms beyond hematemesis.
Question 103: A 65-year-old woman is brought to the emergency room by her family with complaints of confusion and change in behavior. Her family states that over the last 2 weeks, the patient has become increasingly irritable and confused as well as aggressive toward strangers. In addition to her altered mental status, her family also endorses recent episodes of abdominal pain and watery diarrhea. Her medications include HCTZ, enalapril, loperamide, and a calcium supplement. There is no history of recent travel outside the United States. Her temperature is 99.5°F (37.5°C), pulse is 112/min, blood pressure is 100/70 mmHg, respirations are 18/min, and oxygen saturation is 93% on room air. Physical exam is notable for a thin, ill-appearing woman. Cardiac exam is significant for sinus tachycardia and bowel sounds are hyperactive. Purple discoloration with scale-crust is noted around her neck and upper chest, as well as on her hands and feet. A chest radiograph shows clear lung fields bilaterally, but an echocardiogram shows thickening of the right ventricular endocardium with mild tricuspid stenosis. Which of the following is the next best diagnostic step?
A. Anti-nuclear antibody titer
B. Stool culture
C. CT scan of the head
D. Serum 5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid levels (Correct Answer)
E. CT scan of the abdomen
Explanation: ***Serum 5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid levels***
- The patient's symptoms are highly suggestive of **carcinoid syndrome**, caused by excessive serotonin production from a neuroendocrine tumor.
- Key features include: **watery diarrhea**, **neuropsychiatric symptoms** (confusion, aggressiveness), **pellagra-like dermatitis** (the "purple discoloration with scale-crust" in sun-exposed areas - neck, chest, hands, feet), and **right-sided heart valve disease** (tricuspid stenosis and RV endocardial thickening from serotonin-induced fibrosis).
- The **pellagra** occurs because tryptophan is diverted to serotonin production rather than niacin synthesis, causing niacin deficiency.
- **Elevated serum 5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid (5-HIAA)**, a serotonin metabolite excreted in urine, is the key biochemical diagnostic marker for carcinoid syndrome and should be measured first.
*Anti-nuclear antibody titer*
- An **ANA titer** screens for **autoimmune diseases** such as systemic lupus erythematosus or scleroderma.
- The constellation of **neuropsychiatric symptoms**, **secretory diarrhea**, **pellagra-like dermatitis**, and **right-sided valvular heart disease** is pathognomonic for carcinoid syndrome, not autoimmune disease.
*Stool culture*
- A **stool culture** would evaluate for infectious causes of diarrhea such as bacterial gastroenteritis.
- However, infectious diarrhea does not explain the patient's **confusion**, **pellagra-like skin lesions**, and **cardiac valve thickening**.
*CT scan of the head*
- A **CT scan of the head** would be appropriate for evaluating **acute confusion** and **altered mental status** to rule out stroke, intracranial hemorrhage, or mass lesions.
- However, the presence of other systemic symptoms (**diarrhea**, **pellagra**, **cardiac involvement**) indicates a systemic metabolic cause rather than a primary neurological etiology.
*CT scan of the abdomen*
- An **abdominal CT scan** could help identify and localize a **carcinoid tumor** in the gastrointestinal tract (most commonly in the small bowel or appendix).
- However, **biochemical confirmation** with elevated **5-HIAA levels** is typically performed first to establish the diagnosis of carcinoid syndrome before proceeding with imaging to localize the primary tumor.
Question 104: A 68-year-old woman comes to the physician with dysphagia and halitosis for several months. She feels food sticking to her throat immediately after swallowing. Occasionally, she regurgitates undigested food hours after eating. She has no history of any serious illness and takes no medications. Her vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination including the oral cavity, throat, and neck shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate diagnostic study at this time?
A. Cervical magnetic resonance imaging
B. Upper gastrointestinal series
C. Chest computed tomography scan
D. Barium swallow with video fluoroscopy (Correct Answer)
E. Chest X-ray
Explanation: ***Barium swallow with video fluoroscopy***
- This is the most appropriate initial diagnostic step to visualize the act of swallowing and identify structural abnormalities in the esophagus and pharynx, such as a **Zenker's diverticulum** (which is strongly suggested by symptoms of dysphagia, halitosis, and regurgitation of undigested food hours after eating).
- It allows for the detection of **motility disorders**, strictures, or outpouchings that can cause the described symptoms.
*Upper gastrointestinal series*
- While it uses barium, an upper GI series focuses more on the **stomach and duodenum** rather than the pharynx and esophagus in dynamic motion during swallowing.
- It is less effective in evaluating the **pharyngeal phase of swallowing** and subtle motility issues compared to a dedicated barium swallow with fluoroscopy.
*Cervical magnetic resonance imaging*
- MRI is excellent for soft tissue evaluation but is not the first-line investigation for **dysphagia caused by structural or motility issues** in the pharynx or esophagus.
- It does not provide real-time functional assessment of swallowing and may not clearly visualize the mucosal details or a small diverticulum.
*Chest computed tomography scan*
- A chest CT scan is primarily used to evaluate structures within the **chest cavity**, including the lungs, mediastinum, and large vessels.
- It is generally not the initial diagnostic tool for evaluating **oropharyngeal or esophageal dysphagia** as it offers limited dynamic information about swallowing mechanics.
*Chest X-ray*
- A chest X-ray provides a static image of the chest and is mainly used to assess cardiopulmonary pathology.
- It has **limited utility** in evaluating the esophagus or pharynx for the causes of dysphagia and regurgitation, as it cannot visualize soft tissue details or dynamic swallowing processes.
Question 105: A 55-year-old man presents to his primary care physician with a complaint of fatigue for a couple of months. He was feeling well during his last visit 6 months ago. He has a history of hypertension for the past 8 years, diabetes mellitus for the past 5 years, and chronic kidney disease (CKD) for a year. The vital signs include: blood pressure 138/84 mm Hg, pulse 81/min, temperature 36.8°C (98.2°F), and respiratory rate 9/min. On physical examination, moderate pallor is noted on the palpebral conjunctiva and nail bed.
Complete blood count results are as follows:
Hemoglobin 8.5 g/dL
RBC 4.2 million cells/µL
Hematocrit 39%
Total leukocyte count 6,500 cells/µL
Neutrophils 61%
Lymphocytes 34%
Monocytes 4%
Eosinophils 1%
Basophils 0%
Platelets 240,000 cells/µL
A basic metabolic panel shows:
Sodium 133 mEq/L
Potassium 5.8 mEq/L
Chloride 101 mEq/L
Bicarbonate 21 mEq/L
Albumin 3.1 mg/dL
Urea nitrogen 31 mg/dL
Creatinine 2.8 mg/dL
Uric acid 6.4 mg/dL
Calcium 8.1 mg/dL
Glucose 111 mg/dL
Which of the following explanations best explains the mechanism for his decreased hemoglobin?
A. Progressive metabolic acidosis
B. Side effect of his medication
C. Failure of adequate erythropoietin production (Correct Answer)
D. Failure of 1-alpha-hydroxylation of 25-hydroxycholecalciferol
E. Increased retention of uremic products
Explanation: ***Failure of adequate erythropoietin production***
- The patient's history of **chronic kidney disease (CKD)** is the key factor. As kidney function declines, the peritubular interstitial cells in the renal cortex, which produce **erythropoietin (EPO)**, are damaged, leading to inadequate EPO synthesis.
- **Erythropoietin** is essential for stimulating red blood cell production in the bone marrow, so its deficiency directly causes **normocytic, normochromic anemia**, consistent with the patient's low hemoglobin (8.5 g/dL) and pallor.
*Progressive metabolic acidosis*
- While metabolic acidosis can occur in CKD, it primarily impacts overall metabolic function and can mildly suppress bone marrow, but it is not the **primary mechanism** for severe anemia in CKD.
- The patient's bicarbonate of 21 mEq/L indicates mild acidosis, not severe enough to be the dominant cause of his profound anemia.
*Side effect of his medication*
- Although some medications can cause anemia (e.g., ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers can rarely worsen renal anemia), there is no information provided about specific medications that would directly cause this degree of **hemoglobin reduction** as their primary side effect in this context.
- His complex medical history and lab findings point more directly to a CKD-related etiology for anemia rather than an unmentioned medication side effect.
*Failure of 1-alpha-hydroxylation of 25-hydroxycholecalciferol*
- This process is crucial for the production of **calcitriol (active vitamin D)** in the kidneys, and its failure primarily leads to **hypocalcemia** and **renal osteodystrophy**.
- While related to CKD, impairment of vitamin D activation does not directly explain **decreased hemoglobin production** or significant anemia.
*Increased retention of uremic products*
- The accumulation of **uremic toxins** in CKD can indeed suppress bone marrow, shorten red blood cell survival, and impair iron utilization, contributing to anemia.
- However, the most significant and direct mechanism for anemia in CKD, especially at this stage, is the **lack of erythropoietin production**, which is a hormonal deficiency rather than a toxic effect.
Question 106: A 35-year-old homeless man from New York City comes to the physician with a 2-month history of fever, night sweats, and a cough productive of white sputum. He uses intravenous heroin several times a week. His temperature is 38°C (100.4°F) and respirations are 22/min. Physical examination shows coarse crackles in the left upper posterior lung field. An x-ray of the chest shows a cavitary lesion in the left upper lobe. Which of the following is the most likely source of his pulmonary findings?
A. Exposure to contaminated hot water tanks
B. Aspiration of oral flora
C. Reactivation of a latent infection (Correct Answer)
D. Embolization of a bacterial vegetation
E. Close contact with pigeon droppings
Explanation: ***Reactivation of a latent infection***
- The patient's history of **homelessness**, **IV drug use**, and residence in New York City (a high-prevalence area) makes him highly susceptible to **active tuberculosis (TB)**, which often results from the reactivation of a latent *Mycobacterium tuberculosis* infection.
- The symptoms of fever, night sweats, cough with white sputum, and a **cavitary lesion in the left upper lobe** are classic presentations of post-primary (reactivation) TB.
*Exposure to contaminated hot water tanks*
- This mode of transmission is typically associated with **Legionnaires' disease**, caused by *Legionella pneumophila*.
- While Legionnaires' can cause pneumonia, it does not typically present with **cavitary lesions** and is less likely given the long duration of symptoms and high-risk factors for TB.
*Aspiration of oral flora*
- Aspiration pneumonia usually occurs in individuals with impaired consciousness or swallowing difficulties, often leading to **abscess formation** in dependent lung segments (e.g., posterior segments of upper lobes, superior segments of lower lobes).
- While cavitary lesions can occur, the chronicity of symptoms, night sweats, and this patient's specific risk factors point more strongly to TB.
*Embolization of a bacterial vegetation*
- This describes **septic pulmonary emboli**, often seen in IV drug users due to **tricuspid valve endocarditis**.
- This typically results in multiple, bilateral, frequently cavitating nodules, not usually a single, large cavitary lesion in the upper lobe which is highly suggestive of tuberculosis.
*Close contact with pigeon droppings*
- Exposure to pigeon droppings is a risk factor for **cryptococcosis** (*Cryptococcus neoformans*) or **histoplasmosis** (*Histoplasma capsulatum*) in immunocompromised individuals.
- While these can cause pulmonary disease and sometimes cavitation, the presentation is less typical for a single cavitary lesion and less common than TB in this demographic in NYC.
Question 107: Three days after admission to the hospital with a clinical diagnosis of ischemic colitis, a 65-year-old man has recovered from his initial symptoms of bloody diarrhea and abdominal pain with tenderness. He feels well at this point and wishes to go home. He has a 15-year history of diabetes mellitus. Currently, he receives nothing by mouth, and he is on IV fluids, antibiotics, and insulin. His temperature is 36.7°C (98.1°F), pulse is 68/min, respiratory rate is 13/min, and blood pressure is 115/70 mm Hg. Physical examination of the abdomen shows no abnormalities. His most recent laboratory studies are all within normal limits, including glucose. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Laparoscopy
B. Discharge home with follow-up in one month
C. Laparotomy
D. Total parenteral nutrition
E. Colonoscopy (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Colonoscopy***
- A colonoscopy is crucial for **evaluating the extent of ischemic damage**, identifying strictures, and ruling out other pathologies like inflammatory bowel disease or malignancy.
- While the patient is clinically stable, direct visualization of the colonic mucosa a few days after the acute event is necessary to **assess healing** and guide future management.
*Laparoscopy*
- **Laparoscopy is an invasive surgical procedure** primarily used for diagnosis and intervention in acute abdominal conditions, which are not present here.
- Given the patient's stable condition and resolution of symptoms, a less invasive diagnostic tool like colonoscopy is more appropriate at this stage.
*Discharge home with follow-up in one month*
- Discharging the patient without further investigation is **premature** as the full extent of the ischemic injury and potential long-term complications are unknown.
- There is a risk of **stricture formation** or recurrent ischemia, necessitating a comprehensive assessment before discharge.
*Laparotomy*
- **Laparotomy is a major open surgical procedure** reserved for cases with severe ischemia, perforation, or peritonitis, none of which are indicated by the patient's current status.
- The patient's stable vital signs and resolution of initial symptoms make this overly aggressive and unnecessary.
*Total parenteral nutrition*
- **Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) is used when the gastrointestinal tract cannot be used** for an extended period, such as in severe short bowel syndrome or prolonged postoperative ileus.
- The patient is currently on IV fluids and is NPO, but there's no indication of long-term inability to use his gut, and the nutritional support does not address the need for structural assessment of the colon.
Question 108: A 45-year-old man comes to the physician for evaluation of a recurrent rash. He has multiple skin lesions on his legs, buttocks, and around his mouth. The rash first appeared a year ago and tends to resolve spontaneously in one location before reappearing in another location a few days later. It begins with painless, reddish spots that gradually increase in size and then develop into painful and itchy blisters. The patient also reports having repeated bouts of diarrhea and has lost 10 kg (22 lb) over the past year. One year ago, the patient was diagnosed with major depressive syndrome and was started on fluoxetine. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows multiple crusty patches with central areas of bronze-colored induration, as well as tender eruptive lesions with irregular borders and on his legs, buttocks, and around his lips. The Nikolsky sign is negative. His hemoglobin concentration is 10.2 g/dL, mean corpuscular volume is 88 μm3, and serum glucose is 210 mg/dL. A skin biopsy of the lesion shows epidermal necrosis. Which of the following additional findings is most likely to be found in this patient?
A. Increased serum vasoactive intestinal polypeptide level
B. Antibodies against desmoglein 1 and 3
C. Increased fasting serum glucagon level (Correct Answer)
D. Antibodies against glutamic acid decarboxylase
E. Antibodies against hemidesmosomes
Explanation: ***Increased fasting serum glucagon level***
- The constellation of **migratory necrolytic erythema** (the described rash), **weight loss**, **diarrhea**, and **hyperglycemia** is highly characteristic of a **glucagonoma**.
- A glucagonoma is a **pancreatic neuroendocrine tumor** that overproduces **glucagon**, leading to these systemic manifestations.
*Increased serum vasoactive intestinal polypeptide level*
- Elevated **VIP (vasoactive intestinal polypeptide)** levels are associated with **VIPomas**, which typically present with **watery diarrhea**, hypokalemia, and achlorhydria (WDHA syndrome).
- While diarrhea is present in this patient, the prominent skin rash, weight loss, and hyperglycemia point away from a VIPoma as the primary diagnosis.
*Antibodies against desmoglein 1 and 3*
- These antibodies are characteristic of **pemphigus vulgaris**, an autoimmune bullous disease that causes **flaccid blisters** and a positive Nikolsky sign.
- The patient's presentation of crusty patches with central induration, a negative Nikolsky sign, and epidermal necrosis on biopsy are inconsistent with pemphigus vulgaris.
*Antibodies against glutamic acid decarboxylase*
- **GAD antibodies** are strongly associated with **Type 1 diabetes mellitus** and **Stiff-person syndrome**.
- While the patient has hyperglycemia, the rash and other systemic symptoms are not typical features of Type 1 diabetes, and there are no signs of neurological stiffness.
*Antibodies against hemidesmosomes*
- Antibodies against hemidesmosomes (specifically BP180 and BP230) are found in **bullous pemphigoid**, an autoimmune blistering disease.
- Bullous pemphigoid typically presents with **tense blisters** on an erythematous base and usually affects older individuals, but the distinctive migratory rash, weight loss, and diarrhea are not consistent with this diagnosis.
Question 109: A 52-year-old African-American woman presents to the office complaining of difficulty swallowing for 1 week, and described it as "food getting stuck in her throat". Her discomfort is mainly for solid foods, and she does not have any problem with liquids. She further adds that she has frequent heartburn and lost 5 pounds in the last month because of this discomfort. She sometimes takes antacids to relieve her heartburn. Her past medical history is insignificant. She is an occasional drinker and smokes a half pack of cigarettes a day. On examination, her skin is shiny and taut especially around her lips and fingertips. A barium swallow study is ordered. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Scleroderma (Correct Answer)
B. Zenker's diverticulum
C. Diffuse esophageal spasm
D. Achalasia
E. Polymyositis
Explanation: ***Scleroderma***
- The combination of **dysphagia for solids**, **heartburn**, **weight loss**, and characteristic **skin changes** (shiny, taut skin around lips and fingertips) is highly suggestive of **scleroderma (systemic sclerosis)**.
- Scleroderma can cause **esophageal dysmotility** due to fibrosis and atrophy of the smooth muscle, leading to impaired peristalsis and a weakened lower esophageal sphincter.
*Zenker's diverticulum*
- This condition typically presents with **regurgitation of undigested food**, **halitosis**, and sometimes a **gurgling sound** in the neck, which are not described here.
- It involves a **pouch protruding from the pharyngeal wall** and is less commonly associated with widespread skin changes.
*Diffuse esophageal spasm*
- Characterized by **intermittent dysphagia** for both solids and liquids and **chest pain** that can mimic angina.
- While it causes dysphagia, it typically does not present with the specific dermatological features seen in this patient.
*Achalasia*
- Presents with progressive **dysphagia for both solids and liquids**, often accompanied by **regurgitation of undigested food** and occasional chest pain.
- It is caused by the **failure of the lower esophageal sphincter to relax** and loss of peristalsis in the esophageal body, but lacks the characteristic skin findings of scleroderma.
*Polymyositis*
- This is an **inflammatory myopathy** affecting skeletal muscles, leading to muscle weakness, particularly in the proximal muscles.
- While it can cause **oropharyngeal dysphagia** due to striated muscle involvement, it typically does not cause the esophageal dysmotility or the characteristic skin changes seen in this case.
Question 110: A 70-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department due to worsening lethargy. She lives with her husband who says she has had severe diarrhea for the past few days. Examination shows a blood pressure of 85/60 mm Hg, pulse of 100/min, and temperature of 37.8°C (100.0°F). The patient is stuporous, while her skin appears dry and lacks turgor. Laboratory tests reveal:
Serum electrolytes
Sodium 144 mEq/L
Potassium 3.5 mEq/L
Chloride 115 mEq/L
Bicarbonate 19 mEq/L
Serum pH 7.3
PaO2 80 mm Hg
Pco2 38 mm Hg
This patient has which of the following acid-base disturbances?
A. Chronic respiratory acidosis
B. Anion gap metabolic acidosis with respiratory compensation
C. Anion gap metabolic acidosis
D. Non-anion gap metabolic acidosis with respiratory compensation (Correct Answer)
E. Non-anion gap metabolic acidosis
Explanation: ***Non-anion gap metabolic acidosis with respiratory compensation***
- This patient has significant **diarrhea**, which causes a loss of **bicarbonate** from the gastrointestinal tract, leading to a **non-anion gap metabolic acidosis**.
- The **serum pH of 7.3** confirms acidosis, and the **Pco2 of 38 mm Hg** (which is slightly below the normal range, considering the acidosis) indicates effective **respiratory compensation** for the metabolic disturbance. Calculating the **anion gap** = Na - (Cl + HCO3) = 144 - (115 + 19) = **10 mEq/L** (normal range 8-12 mEq/L), which is within normal limits.
*Chronic respiratory acidosis*
- This would involve an elevated **Pco2** and a compensatory increase in **bicarbonate**, neither of which are observed in this patient.
- The patient's primary problem is loss of bicarbonate due to diarrhea, not impaired CO2 excretion.
*Anion gap metabolic acidosis with respiratory compensation*
- An **anion gap metabolic acidosis** would show an elevated anion gap (>12 mEq/L), which is not present here (anion gap is 10 mEq/L).
- While respiratory compensation is occurring, the underlying acidosis is **non-anion gap**.
*Anion gap metabolic acidosis*
- This diagnosis requires an **elevated anion gap**, which is calculated as Na - (Cl + HCO3) = 144 - (115 + 19) = **10 mEq/L**.
- Since the anion gap is within the normal range, an anion gap metabolic acidosis is excluded.
*Non-anion gap metabolic acidosis*
- While the patient does have a **non-anion gap metabolic acidosis** due to bicarbonate loss from diarrhea, this option doesn't account for the **respiratory compensation** indicated by the Pco2.
- The slightly reduced Pco2 demonstrates the body's attempt to normalize pH, making "with respiratory compensation" a more complete description.