Irritable bowel syndrome — MCQs

A 31-year-old woman visits the clinic with chronic diarrhea on most days for the past four months. She also complains of lower abdominal discomfort and cramping, which is relieved by episodes of diarrhea. She denies any recent change in her weight. Bowel movements are preceded by a sensation of urgency, associated with mucus discharge, and followed by a feeling of incomplete evacuation. The patient went camping several months earlier, and another member of her camping party fell ill recently. Her temperature is 37° C (98.6° F), respiratory rate is 15/min, pulse is 67/min, and blood pressure is 122/98 mm Hg. Her physical examination is unremarkable. A routine stool examination is within normal limits and blood test results show: Hb% 13 gm/dL Total count (WBC): 11,000/mm3 Differential count: Neutrophils: 70% Lymphocytes: 25% Monocytes: 5% ESR: 10 mm/hr What is the most likely diagnosis?

A 32-year-old female comes to the physician because of recurrent episodes of abdominal pain, bloating, and loose stools lasting several days to a couple weeks. She has had these episodes since she was 24 years old but they have worsened over the last 6 weeks. The site of the abdominal pain and the intensity of pain vary. She has around 3–4 bowel movements per day during these episodes. Menses are regular at 31 day intervals with moderate flow; she has moderate pain in her lower abdomen during menstruation. She moved from a different city 2 months ago to start a new demanding job. Her mother has been suffering from depression for 10 years. She does not smoke or drink alcohol. Her own medications include multivitamins and occasionally naproxen for pain. Temperature is 37.4°C (99.3°F), pulse is 88/min, and blood pressure is 110/82 mm Hg. Abdominal examination shows no abnormalities. Laboratory studies show: Hemoglobin 14.1 g/dL Leukocyte count 8100/mm3 Erythrocyte sedimentation rate 15 mm/h Serum Glucose 96 mg/dL Creatinine 1.1 mg/dL IgA anti-tissue transglutaminase antibody negative Urinalysis shows no abnormalities. Further evaluation is most likely to show which of the following in this patient?

A 24-year-old man comes to the physician with a 2-day history of fever, crampy abdominal pain, and blood-tinged diarrhea. He recently returned from a trip to Mexico. His temperature is 38.2°C (100.8°F). Abdominal examination shows diffuse tenderness to palpation; bowel sounds are hyperactive. Stool cultures grow nonlactose fermenting, oxidase-negative, gram-negative rods that do not produce hydrogen sulfide on triple sugar iron agar. Which of the following processes is most likely involved in the pathogenesis of this patient's condition?

Which neurotransmitter primarily mediates slow synaptic transmission in the enteric nervous system?

A 63-year-old woman comes to the physician because of diarrhea and weakness after her meals for 2 weeks. She has the urge to defecate 15–20 minutes after a meal and has 3–6 bowel movements a day. She also has palpitations, sweating, and needs to lie down soon after eating. One month ago, she underwent a distal gastrectomy for gastric cancer. She had post-operative pneumonia, which was treated with cefotaxime. She returned from a vacation to Brazil 6 weeks ago. Her immunizations are up-to-date. She is 165 cm (5 ft 5 in) tall and weighs 51 kg (112 lb); BMI is 18.6 kg/m2. Vital signs are within normal limits. Examination shows a well-healed abdominal midline surgical scar. The abdomen is soft and nontender. Bowel sounds are hyperactive. Rectal examination is unremarkable. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 25-year-old woman presents with abdominal pain and discomfort for the past 3 days. She was diagnosed with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) a couple of years ago, managed until recently with imipramine, psyllium, and loperamide. 5 days ago, because she had developed alternating diarrhea and constipation, bloating, and abdominal pain on her medication, she was started on alosetron. Her current temperature is 39.0°C (102.2°F), the heart rate is 115/min, the blood pressure is 90/60 mm Hg and the respiratory rate is 22/min. Abdominal examination shows diffuse tenderness to palpation with guarding but no rebound. Bowel sounds are hypoactive on auscultation. A fecal occult blood test is positive and laboratory tests show her white cell count to be 15,800/µL. Arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis reveals a metabolic acidosis. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?

A 23-year-old woman presents with flatulence and abdominal cramping after meals. For the last year, she has been feeling uneasy after meals and sometimes has severe pain after eating breakfast in the morning. She also experiences flatulence and, on rare occasions, diarrhea. She says she has either cereal or oats in the morning which she usually consumes with a glass of milk. The patient is afebrile and vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination is unremarkable. Which of the following drugs should be avoided in this patient?

A 24-year-old man presents to the emergency department for severe abdominal pain for the past day. The patient states he has had profuse, watery diarrhea and abdominal pain that is keeping him up at night. The patient also claims that he sees blood on the toilet paper when he wipes and endorses having lost 5 pounds recently. The patient's past medical history is notable for IV drug abuse and a recent hospitalization for sepsis. His temperature is 99.5°F (37.5°C), blood pressure is 120/68 mmHg, pulse is 100/min, respirations are 14/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. On physical exam, you note a young man clutching his abdomen in pain. Abdominal exam demonstrates hyperactive bowel sounds and diffuse abdominal tenderness. Cardiopulmonary exam is within normal limits. Which of the following is the next best step in management?

A 26-year-old woman presents with sudden-onset pain in her lower back. She says she was exercising in the gym several hours ago when she felt a sharp pain. The pain is radiating down the side of her leg and into her foot. On physical exam, her vital signs are as follows: HR 95, BP 120/70, T 37.2 degrees C. She has extreme pain shooting down her leg with a straight leg raise. Her sensation to light touch and pin-prick is intact throughout. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A 52-year-old woman presents to the clinic with several days of vomiting and diarrhea. She also complains of headaches, muscle aches, and fever, but denies tenesmus, urgency, and bloody diarrhea. Past medical history is insignificant. When asked about any recent travel she says that she just came back from a cruise ship vacation. Her temperature is 37°C (98.6° F), respiratory rate is 15/min, pulse is 67/min, and blood pressure is 122/98 mm Hg. Physical examination is non-contributory. Microscopic examination of the stool is negative for ova or parasites. What is the most likely diagnosis?