Diverticular disease — MCQs

A 62-year-old man presents to the emergency department with acute pain in the left lower abdomen and profuse rectal bleeding. These symptoms started 3 hours ago. The patient has chronic constipation and bloating, for which he takes lactulose. His family history is negative for gastrointestinal disorders. His temperature is 38.2°C (100.8°F), blood pressure is 90/60 mm Hg, and pulse is 110/min. On physical examination, the patient appears drowsy, and there is tenderness with guarding in the left lower abdominal quadrant. Flexible sigmoidoscopy shows multiple, scattered diverticula with acute mucosal inflammation in the sigmoid colon. Which of the following is the best initial treatment for this patient?

A 75-year-old man presents to the emergency department for abdominal pain. The patient states the pain started this morning and has been worsening steadily. He decided to come to the emergency department when he began vomiting. The patient has a past medical history of obesity, diabetes, alcohol abuse, and hypertension. His current medications include captopril, insulin, metformin, sodium docusate, and ibuprofen. His temperature is 104.0°F (40°C), blood pressure is 160/97 mmHg, pulse is 90/min, respirations are 15/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Abdominal exam reveals left lower quadrant tenderness. Cardiac exam reveals a crescendo systolic murmur heard best by the right upper sternal border. Lab values are ordered and return as below. Hemoglobin: 15 g/dL Hematocrit: 42% Leukocyte count: 19,500 cells/mm^3 with normal differential Platelet count: 226,000/mm^3 Serum: Na+: 139 mEq/L Cl-: 101 mEq/L K+: 4.4 mEq/L HCO3-: 24 mEq/L BUN: 22 mg/dL Glucose: 144 mg/dL Creatinine: 1.2 mg/dL Ca2+: 9.8 mg/dL Which of the following is the most accurate test for this patient's condition?

A 24-year-old man presents to the emergency department for severe abdominal pain for the past day. The patient states he has had profuse, watery diarrhea and abdominal pain that is keeping him up at night. The patient also claims that he sees blood on the toilet paper when he wipes and endorses having lost 5 pounds recently. The patient's past medical history is notable for IV drug abuse and a recent hospitalization for sepsis. His temperature is 99.5°F (37.5°C), blood pressure is 120/68 mmHg, pulse is 100/min, respirations are 14/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. On physical exam, you note a young man clutching his abdomen in pain. Abdominal exam demonstrates hyperactive bowel sounds and diffuse abdominal tenderness. Cardiopulmonary exam is within normal limits. Which of the following is the next best step in management?

Please refer to the summary above to answer this question Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? Patient information Age: 61 years Gender: F, self-identified Ethnicity: unspecified Site of care: emergency department History Reason for Visit/Chief Concern: "My belly really hurts." History of Present Illness: developed abdominal pain 12 hours ago pain constant; rated at 7/10 has nausea and has vomited twice has had two episodes of nonbloody diarrhea in the last 4 hours 12-month history of intermittent constipation reports no sick contacts or history of recent travel Past medical history: hypertension type 2 diabetes mellitus mild intermittent asthma allergic rhinitis Social history: diet consists mostly of high-fat foods does not smoke drinks 1–2 glasses of wine per week does not use illicit drugs Medications: lisinopril, metformin, albuterol inhaler, fexofenadine, psyllium husk fiber Allergies: no known drug allergies Physical Examination Temp Pulse Resp. BP O2 Sat Ht Wt BMI 38.4°C (101.1°F) 85/min 16/min 134/85 mm Hg – 163 cm (5 ft 4 in) 94 kg (207 lb) 35 kg/m2 Appearance: lying back in a hospital bed; appears uncomfortable Neck: no jugular venous distention Pulmonary: clear to auscultation; no wheezes, rales, or rhonchi Cardiac: regular rate and rhythm; normal S1 and S2; no murmurs, rubs, or gallops Abdominal: obese; soft; tender to palpation in the left lower quadrant; no guarding or rebound tenderness; normal bowel sounds Extremities: no edema; warm and well-perfused Skin: no rashes; dry Neurologic: alert and oriented; cranial nerves grossly intact; no focal neurologic deficits

A 68-year-old female presents to your office for her annual check-up. Her vitals are HR 85, T 98.8 F, RR 16, BP 125/70. She has a history of smoking 1 pack a day for 35 years, but states she quit five years ago. She had her last pap smear at age 64 and states all of her pap smears have been normal. She had her last colonoscopy at age 62, which was also normal. Which of the following is the next best test for this patient?

A 65-year-old man presents to his primary care physician for a yearly checkup. He states he feels he has been in good health other than minor fatigue, which he attributes to aging. The patient has a past medical history of hypertension and is currently taking chlorthalidone. He drinks 1 glass of red wine every night. He has lost 5 pounds since his last appointment 4 months ago. His temperature is 99.2°F (37.3°C), blood pressure is 147/98 mmHg, pulse is 80/min, respirations are 14/min, and oxygen saturation is 99% on room air. Physical exam reveals an obese man in no acute distress. Laboratory values are ordered as seen below. Hemoglobin: 9 g/dL Hematocrit: 27% Mean corpuscular volume: 72 µm^3 Leukocyte count: 6,500/mm^3 with normal differential Platelet count: 193,000/mm^3 Serum: Na+: 139 mEq/L Cl-: 101 mEq/L K+: 4.3 mEq/L HCO3-: 25 mEq/L BUN: 20 mg/dL Glucose: 99 mg/dL Creatinine: 1.1 mg/dL Ca2+: 9.0 mg/dL AST: 32 U/L ALT: 20 U/L 25-OH vitamin D: 15 ng/mL Which of the following is the best next step in management?

A 26-year-old white man comes to the physician because of increasing generalized fatigue for 6 months. He has been unable to work out at the gym during this period. He has also had cramping lower abdominal pain and diarrhea for the past 5 weeks that is occasionally bloody. His father was diagnosed with colon cancer at the age of 65. He has smoked half a pack of cigarettes daily for the past 10 years. He drinks 1–2 beers on social occasions. His temperature is 37.3°C (99.1°F), pulse is 88/min, and blood pressure is 116/74 mm Hg. Physical examination shows dry mucous membranes. The abdomen is soft and nondistended with slight tenderness to palpation over the lower quadrants bilaterally. Rectal examination shows stool mixed with blood. His hemoglobin concentration is 13.5 g/dL, leukocyte count is 7,500/mm3, and platelet count is 480,000/mm3. Urinalysis is within normal limits. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

Three days after admission to the hospital with a clinical diagnosis of ischemic colitis, a 65-year-old man has recovered from his initial symptoms of bloody diarrhea and abdominal pain with tenderness. He feels well at this point and wishes to go home. He has a 15-year history of diabetes mellitus. Currently, he receives nothing by mouth, and he is on IV fluids, antibiotics, and insulin. His temperature is 36.7°C (98.1°F), pulse is 68/min, respiratory rate is 13/min, and blood pressure is 115/70 mm Hg. Physical examination of the abdomen shows no abnormalities. His most recent laboratory studies are all within normal limits, including glucose. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 43-year-old woman visits her primary care physician complaining of abdominal pain for the past 6 months. She reports that the pain is localized to her lower abdomen and often resolves with bowel movements. She states that some days she has diarrhea while other times she will go 4-5 days without having a bowel movement. She started a gluten-free diet in hopes that it would help her symptoms, but she has not noticed much improvement. She denies nausea, vomiting, hematochezia, or melena. Her medical history is significant for generalized anxiety disorder and hypothyroidism. Her father has a history of colon cancer. The patient takes citalopram and levothyroxine. Physical examination reveals mild abdominal tenderness with palpation of lower quadrant but no guarding or rebound. A guaiac test is negative. A complete blood count is pending. Which of the following is the next best step in management?

A 65-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a fever and weakness. He states his symptoms started yesterday and have been gradually worsening. The patient has a past medical history of obesity, diabetes, alcohol abuse, as well as a 30 pack-year smoking history. He lives in a nursing home and has presented multiple times in the past for ulcers and delirium. His temperature is 103°F (39.4°C), blood pressure is 122/88 mmHg, pulse is 129/min, respirations are 24/min, and oxygen saturation is 99% on room air. Physical exam is notable for a murmur. The patient is started on vancomycin and piperacillin-tazobactam and is admitted to the medicine floor. During his hospital stay, blood cultures grow Streptococcus bovis and his antibiotics are appropriately altered. A transesophageal echocardiograph is within normal limits. The patient’s fever decreases and his symptoms improve. Which of the following is also necessary in this patient?