A 27-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician for foot pain. The patient states that she has pain in her foot and toes whenever she exerts herself or is at work. The patient is an executive at a medical device company and works 60 hours/week. She is currently training for a marathon. She has a past medical history of anxiety, constipation, and irritable bowel syndrome. Her current medications include clonazepam, sodium docusate, and hyoscyamine. Her temperature is 99.5°F (37.5°C), blood pressure is 100/60 mmHg, pulse is 50/min, respirations are 10/min, and oxygen saturation is 99% on room air. Cardiac and pulmonary exams are within normal limits. Examination of the lower extremity reveals 5/5 strength with 2+ reflexes. Palpation of the interdigital space between the third and fourth toes elicits pain and a clicking sound. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q82
A 52-year-old man is brought to the emergency department with severe epigastric discomfort and left-sided chest pain radiating to the back that began after waking up. He has also vomited several times since the pain began. He underwent an esophagogastroduodenoscopy the previous day for evaluation of epigastric pain. He has ischemic heart disease and underwent a coronary angioplasty 3 years ago. His mother died of pancreatic cancer when she was 60 years old. His current medications include aspirin, clopidogrel, metoprolol, ramipril, and rosuvastatin. He is pale, anxious, and diaphoretic. His temperature is 37.9°C (100.2°F), pulse is 140/min, respirations are 20/min, and blood pressure is 100/60 mm Hg in his upper extremities and 108/68 mm Hg in his lower extremities. Pulse oximetry on room air shows oxygen saturation at 98%. An S4 is audible over the precordium, in addition to crepitus over the chest. Abdominal examination shows tenderness to palpation in the epigastric area. Serum studies show an initial Troponin I level of 0.031 ng/mL (N < 0.1 ng/mL) and 0.026 ng/mL 6 hours later. A 12-lead ECG shows sinus tachycardia with nonspecific ST-T changes. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q83
A 58-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 2-year history of progressively worsening pain in her knees and fingers. The knee pain is worse when she walks for longer than 30 minutes. When she wakes up in the morning, her fingers and knees are stiff for about 15 minutes. She cannot recall any trauma to the joints. She was treated with amoxicillin following a tick bite 2 years ago. She is otherwise healthy and only takes a multivitamin and occasionally acetaminophen for the pain. She drinks 1–2 glasses of wine daily. She is 160 cm (5 ft 3 in) tall and weighs 79 kg (174 lb); BMI is 31 kg/m2. Her temperature is 36.9°C (98.4°F), pulse is 70/min, and blood pressure is 133/78 mm Hg. Examination of the lower extremities reveals mild genu varum. Range of motion of both knees is limited; there is palpable crepitus. Complete flexion and extension elicit pain. Tender nodules are present on the proximal and distal interphalangeal joints of the index, ring, and little fingers bilaterally. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q84
A 15-year-old Caucasian female presents with Parkinson-like symptoms. Serum analysis shows increased levels of free copper and elevated liver enzymes. What test would prove most helpful in diagnosing the patient's underlying disease?
Q85
A 67-year-old man presents to his primary care physician for fatigue. This has persisted for the past several months and has been steadily worsening. The patient has a past medical history of hypertension and diabetes; however, he is not currently taking any medications and does not frequently visit his physician. The patient has lost 20 pounds since his last visit. His laboratory values are shown below:
Hemoglobin: 9 g/dL
Hematocrit: 29%
Mean corpuscular volume: 90 µm^3
Serum:
Na+: 139 mEq/L
Cl-: 100 mEq/L
K+: 4.3 mEq/L
Ca2+: 11.8 mg/dL
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q86
A 45-year-old African-American woman presents with dyspnea, cough, and non-radiating chest pain. Her chest pain is relieved by leaning forward and worsens upon leaning backwards. A scratchy rub is heard best with the patient leaning forward. Physical examination did not elucidate evidence of a positive Kussmaul's sign, pulsus paradoxus, or pericardial knock. The patient most likely is suffering from which of the following?
Q87
A 34-year-old G2P1 female at 37 weeks of gestation presents to the clinic for complaints of right-hand numbness and pain for the past month. She reports that the pain is usually worse at night and that she would sometimes wake up in the middle of the night from the “pins and needles.” She denies fever, weakness, or weight changes but endorses paresthesia and pain. The patient also reports a fall on her right hand 2 weeks ago. A physical examination demonstrates mild sensory deficits at the first 3 digits of the right hand but no tenderness with palpation. Strength is intact throughout. Which of the following findings would further support the diagnosis of this patient’s condition?
Q88
A 35-year-old woman comes to the physician because of progressive left flank pain and increased urinary frequency for the past two weeks. Her appetite is normal and she has not had any nausea or vomiting. She has a history of type 1 diabetes mellitus that is poorly controlled with insulin. She is sexually active with her boyfriend, and they use condoms inconsistently. Her temperature is 38° C (100.4° F), pulse is 90/min, and blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg. The abdomen is soft and there is tenderness to palpation in the left lower quadrant; there is no guarding or rebound. There is tenderness to percussion along the left flank. She complains of pain when her left hip is passively extended. Her leukocyte count is 16,000/mm3 and urine pregnancy test is negative. Urinalysis shows 3+ glucose. An ultrasound of the abdomen shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q89
A 59-year-old man is brought to the emergency department 30 minutes after having a seizure. His wife reports that the patient has been having recurrent headaches and has become increasingly irritable over the past 3 months. Physical examination shows a spastic paresis of the right lower extremity. The Babinski sign is present on the right side. An MRI of the brain is shown. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q90
A 75-year-old man presents to the physician because of bloody urine, which has occurred several times over the past month. He has no dysuria, flank pain, nausea, or vomiting. He has no history of serious illness and takes no medications. He is a 40-pack-year smoker. The vital signs are within normal limits. Physical exam shows no abnormalities except generalized lung wheezing. The laboratory test results are as follows:
Urine
Blood 3+
RBC > 100/hpf
WBC 1–2/hpf
RBC casts Negative
Bacteria Not seen
Which of the following is the most appropriate diagnostic study at this time?
Differential diagnosis US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 81: A 27-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician for foot pain. The patient states that she has pain in her foot and toes whenever she exerts herself or is at work. The patient is an executive at a medical device company and works 60 hours/week. She is currently training for a marathon. She has a past medical history of anxiety, constipation, and irritable bowel syndrome. Her current medications include clonazepam, sodium docusate, and hyoscyamine. Her temperature is 99.5°F (37.5°C), blood pressure is 100/60 mmHg, pulse is 50/min, respirations are 10/min, and oxygen saturation is 99% on room air. Cardiac and pulmonary exams are within normal limits. Examination of the lower extremity reveals 5/5 strength with 2+ reflexes. Palpation of the interdigital space between the third and fourth toes elicits pain and a clicking sound. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Inflammation and damage to the plantar fascia
B. Intermetatarsal plantar nerve neuroma (Correct Answer)
C. Compression of the tibial nerve
D. Damage to the trabeculae of the calcaneus
E. Anterior talofibular ligament strain
Explanation: ***Intermetatarsal plantar nerve neuroma***
- The classic presentation of **Morton's neuroma** includes pain in the interdigital space, often between the third and fourth toes, exacerbated by activity, and relieved by rest.
- The examination finding of pain and a **clicking sound** (Mulder's sign) upon palpation of the interdigital space specifically points towards an intermetatarsal plantar nerve neuroma.
*Inflammation and damage to the plantar fascia*
- **Plantar fasciitis** typically causes heel pain, especially with the first steps in the morning or after a period of rest.
- While activity can worsen it, the pain is specifically localized to the **heel** or arch, not primarily between the toes, and a clicking sound is not characteristic.
*Compression of the tibial nerve*
- **Tarsal tunnel syndrome**, caused by compression of the tibial nerve, presents with pain, numbness, or tingling in the **arch and sole of the foot**.
- It does not typically cause interdigital pain or a clicking sound during palpation between the toes.
*Damage to the trabeculae of the calcaneus*
- This describes a **stress fracture** of the calcaneus, which would cause diffuse deep heel pain, often with focal tenderness over the calcaneus.
- It's less likely to present with interdigital pain or a specific clicking sign between the toes.
*Anterior talofibular ligament strain*
- A strain of the anterior talofibular ligament, common in **ankle sprains**, causes pain and swelling around the **lateral ankle**.
- It does not cause pain between the toes or a palpable clicking sensation in that area.
Question 82: A 52-year-old man is brought to the emergency department with severe epigastric discomfort and left-sided chest pain radiating to the back that began after waking up. He has also vomited several times since the pain began. He underwent an esophagogastroduodenoscopy the previous day for evaluation of epigastric pain. He has ischemic heart disease and underwent a coronary angioplasty 3 years ago. His mother died of pancreatic cancer when she was 60 years old. His current medications include aspirin, clopidogrel, metoprolol, ramipril, and rosuvastatin. He is pale, anxious, and diaphoretic. His temperature is 37.9°C (100.2°F), pulse is 140/min, respirations are 20/min, and blood pressure is 100/60 mm Hg in his upper extremities and 108/68 mm Hg in his lower extremities. Pulse oximetry on room air shows oxygen saturation at 98%. An S4 is audible over the precordium, in addition to crepitus over the chest. Abdominal examination shows tenderness to palpation in the epigastric area. Serum studies show an initial Troponin I level of 0.031 ng/mL (N < 0.1 ng/mL) and 0.026 ng/mL 6 hours later. A 12-lead ECG shows sinus tachycardia with nonspecific ST-T changes. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Esophageal perforation (Correct Answer)
B. Pneumothorax
C. Aortic dissection
D. Acute pancreatitis
E. Acute myocardial infarction
Explanation: ***Esophageal perforation***
- The patient's recent **esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD)**, followed by severe epigastric and chest pain radiating to the back, vomiting, and **subcutaneous emphysema (crepitus)**, is highly suggestive of esophageal perforation.
- **Mackler's triad** (vomiting, chest pain, and subcutaneous emphysema) is characteristic, and the overall clinical picture, including stable troponins and ECG, rules out cardiac events.
*Pneumothorax*
- While pneumothorax can cause chest pain and dyspnea, it typically presents with **diminished breath sounds** and **hyperresonance** on percussion, not crepitus over the chest (which indicates subcutaneous emphysema).
- A recent EGD is not a direct risk factor for pneumothorax, and the pain radiation to the back is less typical for a simple pneumothorax.
*Aortic dissection*
- Aortic dissection presents with sudden, **excruciating tearing chest pain** radiating to the back, and can cause a pulse deficit or **blood pressure differential** between limbs.
- While a slight BP differential is noted (100/60 vs 108/68), it's not significant enough for dissection, and the crepitus makes this diagnosis less likely without other definitive signs.
*Acute pancreatitis*
- Acute pancreatitis causes severe epigastric pain radiating to the back and vomiting, similar to this presentation.
- However, the presence of **crepitus** (subcutaneous emphysema) and a recent EGD makes esophageal perforation a more likely diagnosis, as EGD is not a typical trigger for acute pancreatitis.
*Acute myocardial infarction*
- The patient has risk factors for cardiac disease, and initial symptoms like chest pain and diaphoresis could suggest an MI.
- However, the **normal serial troponin levels** and **nonspecific ECG changes** rule out an acute myocardial infarction, especially given the presence of crepitus.
Question 83: A 58-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 2-year history of progressively worsening pain in her knees and fingers. The knee pain is worse when she walks for longer than 30 minutes. When she wakes up in the morning, her fingers and knees are stiff for about 15 minutes. She cannot recall any trauma to the joints. She was treated with amoxicillin following a tick bite 2 years ago. She is otherwise healthy and only takes a multivitamin and occasionally acetaminophen for the pain. She drinks 1–2 glasses of wine daily. She is 160 cm (5 ft 3 in) tall and weighs 79 kg (174 lb); BMI is 31 kg/m2. Her temperature is 36.9°C (98.4°F), pulse is 70/min, and blood pressure is 133/78 mm Hg. Examination of the lower extremities reveals mild genu varum. Range of motion of both knees is limited; there is palpable crepitus. Complete flexion and extension elicit pain. Tender nodules are present on the proximal and distal interphalangeal joints of the index, ring, and little fingers bilaterally. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Septic arthritis
B. Lyme arthritis
C. Gout
D. Pseudogout
E. Osteoarthritis (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Osteoarthritis***
- The patient's presentation with **joint pain worse with activity**, **morning stiffness lasting less than 30 minutes**, **crepitus**, **limited range of motion**, **obesity**, and involvement of **DIP and PIP joints** (Heberden's and Bouchard's nodes) is classic for **osteoarthritis**.
- **Genu varum** (bow-leggedness) is also a common feature of long-standing knee osteoarthritis.
*Septic arthritis*
- Septic arthritis typically presents acutely with **severe, acute pain**, swelling, warmth, and systemic symptoms like **fever and chills**, which are absent here.
- It usually affects a **single joint** and is unlikely to present with chronic, bilateral, and polyarticular involvement over two years.
*Lyme arthritis*
- While the patient had a tick bite and received amoxicillin, **Lyme arthritis** often presents with **monoarticular** or **oligoarticular** large joint involvement, typically the knee, and usually has more significant effusions.
- The chronic, progressive, and polyarticular nature involving DIPs and PIPs, along with short morning stiffness, is not typical for Lyme arthritis.
*Gout*
- Gout typically presents with **acute, excruciating pain** in a single joint (often the **first MTP joint**), intense inflammation, and rapid resolution of attacks.
- The patient's chronic, symmetrical, and progressive pain, and morning stiffness are inconsistent with the typical presentation of gout.
*Pseudogout*
- Pseudogout (calcium pyrophosphate deposition disease) typically presents as **acute attacks** of pain and swelling, often in larger joints like the knee, wrist or shoulder, similar to gout.
- While it can involve multiple joints, the chronic, progressive nature with specific involvement of DIPs and PIPs with osteoarthritic features (crepitus, activity-related pain, short morning stiffness) is more consistent with osteoarthritis.
Question 84: A 15-year-old Caucasian female presents with Parkinson-like symptoms. Serum analysis shows increased levels of free copper and elevated liver enzymes. What test would prove most helpful in diagnosing the patient's underlying disease?
A. Slit lamp examination (Correct Answer)
B. Reflex test
C. Serum detection of anti-myelin antibodies
D. Vitamin B12 test
E. CT scan
Explanation: ***Slit lamp examination***
- The constellation of **Parkinson-like symptoms**, **elevated free copper** and **liver enzymes** in a young patient strongly suggests **Wilson's disease**.
- A slit lamp examination is crucial to detect **Kayser-Fleischer rings**, which are deposits of copper in the cornea and are pathognomonic for Wilson's disease.
*Reflex test*
- A reflex test assesses the integrity of the **peripheral nervous system** and **spinal cord reflexes**.
- While neurological symptoms are present, a reflex test would not directly help diagnose the underlying metabolic disorder of copper accumulation.
*Serum detection of anti-myelin antibodies*
- Detecting anti-myelin antibodies is relevant for demyelinating diseases like **multiple sclerosis**.
- This test is not indicated for a suspected **copper metabolism disorder** and would not explain the high free copper and liver enzyme levels.
*Vitamin B12 test*
- A Vitamin B12 test is used to diagnose **B12 deficiency**, which can cause neurological symptoms.
- However, B12 deficiency does not lead to **elevated free copper** or **liver enzyme abnormalities**.
*CT scan*
- A CT scan of the brain could reveal **basal ganglia abnormalities** often seen in Wilson's disease.
- However, a **slit lamp examination** for Kayser-Fleischer rings is a more specific and diagnostic test for Wilson's disease in this clinical context.
Question 85: A 67-year-old man presents to his primary care physician for fatigue. This has persisted for the past several months and has been steadily worsening. The patient has a past medical history of hypertension and diabetes; however, he is not currently taking any medications and does not frequently visit his physician. The patient has lost 20 pounds since his last visit. His laboratory values are shown below:
Hemoglobin: 9 g/dL
Hematocrit: 29%
Mean corpuscular volume: 90 µm^3
Serum:
Na+: 139 mEq/L
Cl-: 100 mEq/L
K+: 4.3 mEq/L
Ca2+: 11.8 mg/dL
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Intravascular hemolysis
B. Vitamin B12 and folate deficiency
C. Bone marrow aplasia
D. Malignancy (Correct Answer)
E. Iron deficiency
Explanation: **Malignancy**
- The patient's **unexplained weight loss**, worsening fatigue, and **anemia** are highly suspicious for an underlying malignancy.
- The elevated **calcium level (11.8 mg/dL)** suggests a paraneoplastic syndrome or bone involvement, which is common in many cancers (e.g., multiple myeloma, solid tumors with bony metastases).
*Intravascular hemolysis*
- This would typically present with signs of red blood cell destruction, such as **jaundice**, dark urine, and elevated **lactate dehydrogenase (LDH)**, none of which are mentioned.
- The **normocytic anemia (MCV 90 µm^3)** is less typical for acute hemolysis, which can sometimes cause macrocytosis due to reticulocytosis.
*Vitamin B12 and folate deficiency*
- These deficiencies primarily cause **macrocytic anemia**, characterized by an **elevated mean corpuscular volume (MCV)**, which is not present here (MCV is 90 µm^3).
- While fatigue can be a symptom, the unexplained weight loss and hypercalcemia point away from these as the primary diagnosis.
*Bone marrow aplasia*
- **Aplastic anemia** typically presents with **pancytopenia** (low red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets), which is not indicated here beyond the anemia.
- This condition does not directly explain the significant weight loss or hypercalcemia.
*Iron deficiency*
- **Iron deficiency anemia** is typically a **microcytic, hypochromic anemia**, meaning the **MCV would be low**, which is not the case here (MCV is 90 µm^3).
- While it can cause fatigue, it does not explain the unexplained weight loss or hypercalcemia reported in this patient.
Question 86: A 45-year-old African-American woman presents with dyspnea, cough, and non-radiating chest pain. Her chest pain is relieved by leaning forward and worsens upon leaning backwards. A scratchy rub is heard best with the patient leaning forward. Physical examination did not elucidate evidence of a positive Kussmaul's sign, pulsus paradoxus, or pericardial knock. The patient most likely is suffering from which of the following?
A. Acute myocardial infarction
B. Constrictive pericarditis
C. Libman-Sacks endocarditis
D. Acute pericarditis (Correct Answer)
E. Cardiac tamponade
Explanation: **Correct Answer: Acute pericarditis**
- Chest pain that is **relieved by leaning forward** and **worsens with leaning backward** is a classic symptom of pericarditis.
- The presence of a **scratchy pericardial friction rub** highly suggests inflammation of the pericardial sac.
- The absence of hemodynamic compromise signs (no pulsus paradoxus, no Kussmaul's sign) indicates acute inflammation without progression to tamponade or constriction.
*Incorrect: Acute myocardial infarction*
- Chest pain in **acute myocardial infarction** is typically described as crushing, substernal, and often radiates to the left arm, jaw, or back, and is not positionally relieved.
- While dyspnea can occur, a **pericardial friction rub** is not a characteristic finding; it might be seen in post-infarction pericarditis (Dressler's syndrome), but not typically acutely.
*Incorrect: Constrictive pericarditis*
- This condition involves a **thickened, fibrotic pericardium** limiting diastolic filling, often presenting with signs of right heart failure like Kussmaul's sign and a pericardial knock, which are explicitly stated as absent here.
- Chest pain is less prominent, and the **presenting friction rub** is characteristic of acute inflammation rather than chronic constriction.
*Incorrect: Libman-Sacks endocarditis*
- This is a form of **non-bacterial thrombotic endocarditis** typically associated with systemic lupus erythematosus, involving vegetations on heart valves.
- It would not cause the classic positional chest pain or a widespread pericardial friction rub described, and its symptoms primarily relate to **embolic events** or valvular dysfunction.
*Incorrect: Cardiac tamponade*
- Cardiac tamponade is a life-threatening condition caused by **accumulated pericardial fluid** compressing the heart, leading to **Beck's triad** (hypotension, muffled heart sounds, JVD), pulsus paradoxus, and can include Kussmaul's sign, all explicitly noted as absent.
- While it originates from pericardial effusion, the described **pericardial rub indicates inflammation** before significant effusion leading to tamponade has occurred.
Question 87: A 34-year-old G2P1 female at 37 weeks of gestation presents to the clinic for complaints of right-hand numbness and pain for the past month. She reports that the pain is usually worse at night and that she would sometimes wake up in the middle of the night from the “pins and needles.” She denies fever, weakness, or weight changes but endorses paresthesia and pain. The patient also reports a fall on her right hand 2 weeks ago. A physical examination demonstrates mild sensory deficits at the first 3 digits of the right hand but no tenderness with palpation. Strength is intact throughout. Which of the following findings would further support the diagnosis of this patient’s condition?
A. Tingling when the right wrist is percussed (Correct Answer)
B. Loss of sensation at the thenar eminence
C. Small cross-sectional area of the median nerve on ultrasonography
D. Hairline fracture of the scaphoid bone on magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
E. Tingling when the wrists are flexed 90 degrees for 60 seconds
Explanation: ***Tingling when the right wrist is percussed***
- This describes a **positive Tinel's sign**, which is elicited by percussion over the **median nerve** at the wrist and is highly suggestive of **carpal tunnel syndrome**.
- The patient's symptoms of **nocturnal pain**, **numbness**, and **paresthesia** in the first three digits are classic presentations of **median nerve compression** within the carpal tunnel.
*Loss of sensation at the thenar eminence*
- The **thenar eminence** receives innervation from the **palmar cutaneous branch of the median nerve**, which typically branches off *before* the carpal tunnel.
- Thus, **sensation in the thenar eminence** is usually *preserved* in carpal tunnel syndrome, distinguishing it from more proximal median nerve lesions.
*Small cross-sectional area of the median nerve on ultrasonography*
- In **carpal tunnel syndrome**, the median nerve is **compressed and edematous**, leading to an *increase* in its **cross-sectional area** on ultrasonography, not a decrease.
- A smaller cross-sectional area would indicate nerve atrophy or hypoplasia, which is inconsistent with acute compression.
*Hairline fracture of the scaphoid bone on magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)*
- While the patient reports a fall on her right hand, her symptoms are primarily **neuropathic** (numbness, pain, paresthesias in specific nerve distribution) rather than symptomatic of a **scaphoid fracture**.
- A scaphoid fracture typically causes ** localized pain in the anatomical snuffbox**, tenderness, and difficulty with gripping, which are not highlighted in this patient's presentation.
*Tingling when the wrists are flexed 90 degrees for 60 seconds*
- This describes a **positive Phalen's sign**, which is a recognized diagnostic test for **carpal tunnel syndrome**, but the question asks for *additional findings* that would further support the diagnosis.
- While positive, it describes a similar maneuver to Tinel's sign and doesn't offer as distinct a "further" supportive finding as Tinel's, especially given that Phalen's test assesses active symptom provocation (which is already described by the patient's complaints).
Question 88: A 35-year-old woman comes to the physician because of progressive left flank pain and increased urinary frequency for the past two weeks. Her appetite is normal and she has not had any nausea or vomiting. She has a history of type 1 diabetes mellitus that is poorly controlled with insulin. She is sexually active with her boyfriend, and they use condoms inconsistently. Her temperature is 38° C (100.4° F), pulse is 90/min, and blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg. The abdomen is soft and there is tenderness to palpation in the left lower quadrant; there is no guarding or rebound. There is tenderness to percussion along the left flank. She complains of pain when her left hip is passively extended. Her leukocyte count is 16,000/mm3 and urine pregnancy test is negative. Urinalysis shows 3+ glucose. An ultrasound of the abdomen shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Psoas muscle abscess (Correct Answer)
B. Urinary tract infection
C. Ectopic pregnancy
D. Nephrolithiasis
E. Uterine leiomyoma
Explanation: ***Psoas muscle abscess***
- The patient presents with **left flank pain**, **fever**, **leukocytosis**, and pain with passive extension of the hip (the **psoas sign**), which are classic symptoms of a psoas abscess.
- Her history of **poorly controlled type 1 diabetes mellitus** is a significant risk factor for compromised immunity and subsequent infections, including psoas abscesses.
*Urinary tract infection*
- While she has increased urinary frequency and flank tenderness, the presence of a strong **psoas sign** and normal abdominal ultrasound makes a complicated UTI like pyelonephritis less likely as the primary diagnosis, as pyelonephritis typically involves kidney issues visible on ultrasound.
- Although the urinalysis is not provided, the combination of a negative abdominal ultrasound and a clear psoas sign points away from a simple or complicated UTI as the sole explanation.
*Ectopic pregnancy*
- An **ectopic pregnancy** is ruled out by the **negative urine pregnancy test**.
- Symptoms of ectopic pregnancy typically include vaginal bleeding and severe abdominal pain, which are not described here.
*Nephrolithiasis*
- **Nephrolithiasis** (kidney stones) usually causes severe, colicky flank pain that often radiates to the groin, and may be associated with hematuria.
- The abdominal ultrasound showing **no abnormalities** makes nephrolithiasis unlikely, as stones are typically visible on ultrasound.
*Uterine leiomyoma*
- **Uterine leiomyomas** (fibroids) are benign uterine tumors that can cause pelvic pain, heavy menstrual bleeding, or pressure symptoms, but they are not typically associated with fever, leukocytosis, or a positive psoas sign.
- An abdominal ultrasound would likely show the fibroids if they were the cause of her symptoms.
Question 89: A 59-year-old man is brought to the emergency department 30 minutes after having a seizure. His wife reports that the patient has been having recurrent headaches and has become increasingly irritable over the past 3 months. Physical examination shows a spastic paresis of the right lower extremity. The Babinski sign is present on the right side. An MRI of the brain is shown. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Oligodendroglioma
B. Metastatic brain tumor
C. Pituitary adenoma
D. Ependymoma
E. Meningioma (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Meningioma***
- The patient's presentation with **seizures**, **progressive neurological deficits** (spastic paresis, Babinski sign), and **personality changes** suggests a slow-growing intracranial mass.
- While an MRI image is essential for definitive diagnosis, a meningioma is a **common primary brain tumor** in this age group, often arising from the **dura mater** and causing symptoms by **compressing surrounding brain tissue**.
*Oligodendroglioma*
- These tumors often present with **seizures** and are typically found in the **cerebral hemispheres**, but they are often characterized by **calcifications** on imaging and may have a more infiltrative growth pattern.
- While they can cause neurological deficits, the classic presentation and typical MRI appearance (which is not provided but is assumed to show features consistent with meningioma) do not perfectly align.
*Metastatic brain tumor*
- While metastatic brain tumors are common in adults and can cause similar symptoms, they often present with a history of **primary cancer elsewhere** and may show **multiple lesions** or a more aggressive growth pattern on imaging.
- The patient's presentation, while consistent with an intracranial mass, does not explicitly point to a metastatic origin without further information.
*Pituitary adenoma*
- These tumors arise from the **pituitary gland** and commonly cause **endocrine abnormalities** and **visual field deficits** (bitemporal hemianopsia) due to compression of the optic chiasm.
- While they can grow large enough to cause mass effect symptoms like headaches, seizures and spastic paresis without accompanying endocrine or visual changes are less typical.
*Ependymoma*
- Ependymomas are typically found in the **ventricular system** and **spinal cord**, more commonly seen in **children** (infratentorial) or adults (spinal cord).
- While they can cause headaches and neurological deficits, their typical location and age distribution make them a less likely diagnosis for a 59-year-old with a supratentorial mass causing seizures and limb spasticity.
Question 90: A 75-year-old man presents to the physician because of bloody urine, which has occurred several times over the past month. He has no dysuria, flank pain, nausea, or vomiting. He has no history of serious illness and takes no medications. He is a 40-pack-year smoker. The vital signs are within normal limits. Physical exam shows no abnormalities except generalized lung wheezing. The laboratory test results are as follows:
Urine
Blood 3+
RBC > 100/hpf
WBC 1–2/hpf
RBC casts Negative
Bacteria Not seen
Which of the following is the most appropriate diagnostic study at this time?
A. Intravenous (IV) pyelography
B. Computed tomography (CT) urogram
C. Cystoscopy (Correct Answer)
D. Chest X-ray
E. Ureteroscopy
Explanation: ***Cystoscopy***
- Given the patient's age, history of **40-pack-year smoking**, and **painless gross hematuria** without signs of infection or renal disease, there is a high suspicion for **bladder cancer**.
- **Cystoscopy** is the **most appropriate initial diagnostic study** because it allows **direct visualization of the bladder mucosa** and enables **immediate biopsy** of any suspicious lesions.
- The clinical presentation (painless hematuria + smoking history + absence of upper tract symptoms) strongly suggests a **bladder origin**, making cystoscopy the highest-yield diagnostic test.
- Per **AUA guidelines**, cystoscopy is essential for all patients with gross hematuria and risk factors for urothelial malignancy.
*Intravenous (IV) pyelography*
- This older imaging modality has been **largely replaced by CT urogram** due to lower sensitivity and poorer visualization of both upper and lower urinary tract structures.
- It cannot provide direct mucosal visualization or tissue diagnosis.
*Computed tomography (CT) urogram*
- A **CT urogram** is excellent for evaluating the **upper urinary tract** (kidneys, ureters) and is typically part of a complete hematuria workup.
- However, when the clinical picture strongly suggests **bladder pathology** (as in this case), **cystoscopy is the more direct and definitive diagnostic test**.
- CT urogram would be complementary imaging but cannot replace cystoscopy for evaluating the bladder mucosa and obtaining tissue diagnosis.
- In practice, both studies are often performed, but cystoscopy is the **most appropriate initial study** for suspected bladder cancer.
*Chest X-ray*
- While the patient has **wheezing** (likely related to his smoking history), a chest X-ray does not evaluate the source of **hematuria**.
- It might be useful for staging if bladder cancer is confirmed, but it is not the appropriate diagnostic study for evaluating urinary tract bleeding.
*Ureteroscopy*
- **Ureteroscopy** is indicated for evaluating and treating lesions within the **ureters or renal pelvis**, typically after imaging suggests an upper tract abnormality.
- It is more invasive than cystoscopy and is not the first-line approach when clinical features point to a **bladder source**.
- There are no signs suggesting upper tract pathology (no flank pain, no hydronephrosis).