A 32-year-old woman with a recurrent vesicular genital rash comes to the physician because of a 3-day history of a painful, pruritic rash that began on the extremities and has spread to her trunk. Her only medication is acyclovir. Her temperature is 38.1°C (100.6°F). Examination of the skin shows several reddish-purple papules and macules, some of which have a dusky center with a lighter ring around them. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q32
A 33-year-old woman comes to the physician because of vision impairment in her right eye for the past 2 weeks. During this period, she was unable to distinguish colors with her right eye. She also reports pain with eye movement. She has no double vision. She occasionally has headaches that are relieved by ibuprofen. One year ago, she had a similar episode that affected her left eye and resolved spontaneously. She has no history of serious illness. She works at a library and enjoys reading, even in poor lighting conditions. Her vital signs are within normal limits. The pupils are equal, round, and reactive to light and accommodation. Without correction, visual acuity is 20/50 in the left eye, and 20/100 in the right eye. With spectacles, the visual acuity is 20/20 in the left eye and 20/100 in the right eye. Slit lamp examination shows no abnormalities. A CT scan of the head shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q33
A 27-year-old young man presents to his primary care physician for weakness and tingling in his hand. The patient is an avid bodybuilder and has noticed that his grip strength has gradually worsened in both hands with symptoms worse at the end of a long workout. The patient has a past medical history of anabolic steroid use in high school. His current medications include a multivitamin, fish oil, and whey protein supplements. On physical exam, you note a muscular young man with male pattern hair loss. The patient has a loss of sensation bilaterally over the volar surface of the 4th and 5th digits and over the medial aspect of the dorsal hand. The patient has 3/5 grip strength of his left hand and 2/5 grip strength of his right hand. There is also notable weakness of finger adduction and abduction. The rest of the patient's physical exam is within normal limits.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q34
A 75-year-old female presents to your office with her daughter. The patient states that she feels perfectly well and that she does not know why she is present. The daughter states that over the last several years, the patient has become forgetful and recently forgot her grandchild's name, along with the groceries she was supposed to buy. She was also found lost 10 miles away from her house last week. The daughter also states that the patient has had urinary incontinence over the last few months and has been seeing little children in the morning that are not present. The patient denies any recent falls. Her vitals are normal and her physical exam does not reveal any focal neurological deficits. Her mini-mental status exam is scored 22/30. What is the most accurate test for this patient?
Q35
A 7-year-old girl comes in to the emergency department with her mother for swelling of her left periorbital region. Yesterday morning she woke up with a painful, warm, soft lump on her left eyelid. Eye movement does not worsen the pain. Physical examination shows redness and swelling of the upper left eyelid, involving the hair follicles. Upon palpation, the swelling drains purulent fluid. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q36
A 10-year-old girl is brought to the physician by her parents due to 2 months of a progressively worsening headache. The headaches were initially infrequent and her parents attributed them to stress from a recent move. However, over the last week the headaches have gotten significantly worse and she had one episode of vomiting this morning when she woke up. Her medical history is remarkable for a hospitalization during infancy for bacterial meningitis. On physical exam, the patient has difficulty looking up. The lower portion of her pupil is covered by the lower eyelid and there is sclera visible below the upper eyelid. A magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the brain is shown. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q37
A 32-year-old female presents with acute onset abdominal pain accompanied by nausea, vomiting, and hematuria. She is currently taking glipizide for type 2 diabetes mellitus. Past medical history is also significant for lactose intolerance. She has just started training for a marathon, and she drinks large amounts of sports drinks to replenish her electrolytes and eats a high-protein diet to assist in muscle recovery. She admits to using laxatives sporadically to help her manage her weight. On physical exam, the patient appears distressed and has difficulty getting comfortable. Her temperature is 36.8°C (98.2°F), heart rate is 103/min, respiratory rate is 15/min, blood pressure is 105/85 mm Hg, and oxygen saturation is 100% on room air. Her BMI is 21 kg/m2. CBC, CMP, and urinalysis are ordered. Renal ultrasound demonstrates an obstruction at the ureteropelvic junction (see image). Which of the following would most likely be seen in this patient?
Q38
A 64-year-old woman comes to the physician for a follow-up examination. She has had difficulty reading for the past 6 months. She tried using multiple over-the-counter glasses with different strengths, but they have not helped. She has hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus. Current medications include insulin and enalapril. Her temperature is 37.1°C (98.8°F), pulse is 80/min, and blood pressure is 126/84 mm Hg. The pupils are round and react sluggishly to light. Visual acuity in the left eye is 6/60 and in the right eye counting fingers at 6 feet. Fundoscopy shows pallor of the optic disc bilaterally. The cup-to-disk ratio is 0.7 in the left eye and 0.9 in the right eye (N = 0.3). Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q39
A 25-year-old man presents to the emergency department with the sudden onset of neck pain and a severe spinning sensation for the last 6 hours. The symptoms initially began while he was lifting weights in the gym. He feels the room is spinning continuously, and he is unable to open his eyes or maintain his balance. The dizziness and pain are associated with nausea and vomiting. Past medical history is unremarkable. His blood pressure is 124/88 mm Hg, the heart rate is 84/min, the temperature is 37.0°C (98.6°F), the respiratory rate is 12/min, and the BMI is 21.6 kg/m2. On physical examination, he is awake and oriented to person, place, and time. Higher mental functions are intact. There are several horizontal beats of involuntary oscillatory eye movements on the left lateral gaze. He has difficulty performing repetitive pronation and supination movements on the left side. Electrocardiogram reveals normal sinus rhythm. Which of the following additional clinical features would you expect to be present?
Q40
A 37-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 10-month history of excessive daytime sleepiness and fatigue. She says she has difficulty concentrating and has fallen asleep at work on numerous occasions. She also reports having frequent headaches during the day. She has no difficulty falling asleep at night, but wakes up gasping for breath at least once. She has always snored loudly and began using an oral device to decrease her snoring a year ago. She has occasional lower back pain, for which she takes tramadol tablets 1–2 times per week. She also began taking one rabeprazole tablet daily 3 weeks ago. She does not smoke. She is 175 cm (5 ft 7 in) tall and weighs 119 kg (262 lb); BMI is 38.8 kg/m2. Her vital signs are within normal limits. Physical and neurologic examinations show no other abnormalities. Arterial blood gas analysis on room air shows:
pH 7.35
PCO2 51 mm Hg
PO2 64 mm Hg
HCO3- 29 mEq/L
O2 saturation 92%
An x-ray of the chest and ECG show no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's condition?
Differential diagnosis US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 31: A 32-year-old woman with a recurrent vesicular genital rash comes to the physician because of a 3-day history of a painful, pruritic rash that began on the extremities and has spread to her trunk. Her only medication is acyclovir. Her temperature is 38.1°C (100.6°F). Examination of the skin shows several reddish-purple papules and macules, some of which have a dusky center with a lighter ring around them. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Urticaria
B. Dermatitis herpetiformis
C. Eczema herpeticum
D. Stevens-Johnson syndrome
E. Erythema multiforme (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Erythema multiforme***
- The classic presentation of **target lesions** (reddish-purple papules and macules with a dusky center and lighter ring) starting on the extremities and spreading to the trunk is highly characteristic of erythema multiforme.
- This condition is often triggered by infections, particularly **herpes simplex virus (HSV)**, making the patient's history of recurrent genital herpes a significant predisposing factor.
*Urticaria*
- Urticaria typically presents as **migratory, pruritic wheals** (hives) that are transient and blanchable, lacking the targetoid morphology described.
- While pruritic, the lesions in urticaria do not have the distinct central dusky area or spreading pattern seen in erythema multiforme.
*Dermatitis herpetiformis*
- This condition is associated with **celiac disease** and presents with intensely pruritic, grouped vesicles and papules, predominantly on extensor surfaces like the elbows, knees, and buttocks.
- The lesions are usually uniform in appearance, not targetoid, and the associated pruritus is often more severe than described.
*Eczema herpeticum*
- Eczema herpeticum occurs in individuals with pre-existing **atopic dermatitis** or other chronic skin conditions, where HSV infection leads to widespread crusted, punched-out erosions and vesicles.
- While it involves HSV, the rash in this patient is not described as eczematous or having the characteristic "punched-out" lesions of eczema herpeticum.
*Stevens-Johnson syndrome*
- SJS is a severe mucocutaneous reaction often triggered by medications, characterized by widespread epidermal detachment, **mucosal involvement** (oral, ocular, genital), and atypical target lesions.
- While SJS can have target-like lesions, they are often atypical and accompanied by widespread denudation and severe systemic symptoms, which are not fully described in this case, and the classic target lesions point more towards erythema multiforme.
Question 32: A 33-year-old woman comes to the physician because of vision impairment in her right eye for the past 2 weeks. During this period, she was unable to distinguish colors with her right eye. She also reports pain with eye movement. She has no double vision. She occasionally has headaches that are relieved by ibuprofen. One year ago, she had a similar episode that affected her left eye and resolved spontaneously. She has no history of serious illness. She works at a library and enjoys reading, even in poor lighting conditions. Her vital signs are within normal limits. The pupils are equal, round, and reactive to light and accommodation. Without correction, visual acuity is 20/50 in the left eye, and 20/100 in the right eye. With spectacles, the visual acuity is 20/20 in the left eye and 20/100 in the right eye. Slit lamp examination shows no abnormalities. A CT scan of the head shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Narrow-angle glaucoma
B. Retinal detachment
C. Macular degeneration
D. Retinitis pigmentosa
E. Optic neuritis (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Optic neuritis***
- This condition presents with **acute monocular vision loss**, **pain with eye movement**, and **dyschromatopsia** (inability to distinguish colors), which are classic symptoms of optic neuritis.
- The recurrent nature affecting different eyes (**recurrent episodes in each eye**) and the spontaneous resolution are highly suggestive of **demyelinating disease**, such as **multiple sclerosis**, of which optic neuritis is often the initial presentation.
*Narrow-angle glaucoma*
- **Narrow-angle glaucoma** typically presents with **sudden, severe eye pain**, blurred vision, headache, and halos around lights due to acutely elevated intraocular pressure.
- The examination would reveal a **mid-dilated pupil** and **conjunctival injection**, which are not described in this patient.
*Retinal detachment*
- Patients with **retinal detachment** usually report a sudden onset of **floaters**, **flashes of light**, and a **"curtain" or "shadow" obscuring part of their vision**.
- **Pain with eye movement** and **dyschromatopsia** are not typical features of retinal detachment.
*Macular degeneration*
- **Macular degeneration** primarily affects central vision, causing **blurred or distorted vision**, particularly reading difficulty, and difficulty recognizing faces.
- It usually presents in **older individuals** and is not characterized by pain with eye movement or sudden, recurrent episodes of vision loss with dyschromatopsia.
*Retinitis pigmentosa*
- **Retinitis pigmentosa** is a group of inherited eye diseases that cause progressive vision loss, beginning with **night blindness** and then gradual **peripheral vision loss** (tunnel vision).
- The patient's acute monocular vision loss with pain and dyschromatopsia is not typical of the slow, progressive nature of retinitis pigmentosa.
Question 33: A 27-year-old young man presents to his primary care physician for weakness and tingling in his hand. The patient is an avid bodybuilder and has noticed that his grip strength has gradually worsened in both hands with symptoms worse at the end of a long workout. The patient has a past medical history of anabolic steroid use in high school. His current medications include a multivitamin, fish oil, and whey protein supplements. On physical exam, you note a muscular young man with male pattern hair loss. The patient has a loss of sensation bilaterally over the volar surface of the 4th and 5th digits and over the medial aspect of the dorsal hand. The patient has 3/5 grip strength of his left hand and 2/5 grip strength of his right hand. There is also notable weakness of finger adduction and abduction. The rest of the patient's physical exam is within normal limits.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Brachial plexopathy
B. Carpal tunnel syndrome
C. Cubital tunnel compression (Correct Answer)
D. Posterior interosseous nerve compression
E. Guyon's canal compression
Explanation: ***Cubital tunnel compression***
- This condition presents with **weakness** and **tingling** in the 4th and 5th digits and dorsal medial hand due to **ulnar nerve compression** at the elbow.
- The patient's worsened symptoms with bodybuilding (repetitive elbow flexion), grip weakness, and weakness of finger adduction/abduction (interosseous muscles) are characteristic of **cubital tunnel syndrome**.
- The sensory distribution includes both the volar 4th and 5th digits and the dorsal medial hand, consistent with ulnar nerve involvement proximal to the wrist.
*Brachial plexopathy*
- **Brachial plexopathy** would typically involve a broader distribution of sensory and motor deficits affecting multiple nerve roots or trunks, not isolated to the ulnar nerve distribution.
- While it can cause weakness and sensory changes, the specific pattern of 4th and 5th digit involvement with interosseous weakness points more directly to **ulnar nerve compression**.
*Carpal tunnel syndrome*
- **Carpal tunnel syndrome** involves compression of the **median nerve** at the wrist, causing symptoms in the thumb, index, middle, and radial half of the ring finger.
- The patient's symptoms are localized to the **ulnar nerve distribution** (4th and 5th digits plus dorsal medial hand), which is inconsistent with carpal tunnel syndrome.
*Posterior interosseous nerve compression*
- Compression of the **posterior interosseous nerve** (branch of the radial nerve) primarily causes **motor weakness** in the wrist and finger extensors, with no sensory deficits.
- The patient's primary symptoms include significant **sensory loss** and weakness in the ulnar distribution, which does not align with posterior interosseous nerve involvement.
*Guyon's canal compression*
- While **Guyon's canal compression** affects the **ulnar nerve** at the wrist, it typically spares the **dorsal cutaneous branch of the ulnar nerve**, meaning sensation on the dorsal hand would be intact.
- This patient has sensory loss on the **dorsal medial hand**, indicating compression proximal to where the dorsal cutaneous branch exits (approximately 5-6 cm proximal to the wrist), consistent with cubital tunnel syndrome rather than Guyon's canal.
Question 34: A 75-year-old female presents to your office with her daughter. The patient states that she feels perfectly well and that she does not know why she is present. The daughter states that over the last several years, the patient has become forgetful and recently forgot her grandchild's name, along with the groceries she was supposed to buy. She was also found lost 10 miles away from her house last week. The daughter also states that the patient has had urinary incontinence over the last few months and has been seeing little children in the morning that are not present. The patient denies any recent falls. Her vitals are normal and her physical exam does not reveal any focal neurological deficits. Her mini-mental status exam is scored 22/30. What is the most accurate test for this patient?
A. CT angiography of head
B. CT scan of head
C. Lumbar puncture
D. MRI scan of head (Correct Answer)
E. PET scan of head
Explanation: ***MRI scan of head***
- An MRI scan of the head is the **most accurate initial test** to evaluate cognitive decline and rule out structural/reversible causes of dementia.
- This patient's presentation includes **progressive memory loss, disorientation, urinary incontinence, and visual hallucinations** - suggestive of **Lewy Body Dementia (LBD)** or potentially **Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus (NPH)**, though gait disturbance (a key NPH feature) is notably absent.
- MRI provides detailed visualization of **brain atrophy patterns**, **ventricular enlargement** (for NPH), **white matter lesions** (vascular dementia), **hippocampal atrophy** (Alzheimer's), and excludes other reversible causes like **subdural hematoma, tumor, or stroke**.
- **Must be performed first** before any invasive procedures like lumbar puncture.
*CT scan of head*
- A CT scan is useful for acute conditions like **hemorrhage, stroke, or mass lesions**, but it is **significantly less sensitive** than MRI for detecting subtle changes critical for dementia diagnosis.
- Cannot adequately visualize **cortical atrophy, hippocampal volume loss, or subtle white matter changes** that help differentiate dementia subtypes.
- While faster and more accessible, it is not the "most accurate" test for cognitive decline evaluation.
*CT angiography of head*
- CT angiography specifically visualizes **blood vessels** to detect **aneurysms, stenoses, or vascular malformations**.
- While vascular disease can contribute to dementia, this test does not evaluate the **brain parenchyma** or structural changes necessary for diagnosing neurodegenerative conditions.
- Not indicated as the initial test for cognitive impairment without focal vascular symptoms.
*Lumbar puncture*
- Lumbar puncture analyzes **cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)** for biomarkers (**amyloid-beta, tau, alpha-synuclein**), infection, or inflammation.
- It is an **invasive procedure** that should only be performed **after neuroimaging** to rule out increased intracranial pressure, hydrocephalus, or mass lesions.
- While useful for confirming specific dementia diagnoses (e.g., Alzheimer's or LBD biomarkers), it is a **second-line test**, not the initial most accurate diagnostic study.
*PET scan of head*
- PET imaging (FDG-PET or amyloid-PET) measures **metabolic activity** or **specific protein deposits** and is highly specific for certain dementias like **Alzheimer's disease** or **Frontotemporal dementia**.
- It is typically a **specialized second-line test** used after structural imaging when the diagnosis remains unclear.
- **More expensive and less available** than MRI, and not necessary as the initial most accurate test for broad cognitive impairment evaluation.
Question 35: A 7-year-old girl comes in to the emergency department with her mother for swelling of her left periorbital region. Yesterday morning she woke up with a painful, warm, soft lump on her left eyelid. Eye movement does not worsen the pain. Physical examination shows redness and swelling of the upper left eyelid, involving the hair follicles. Upon palpation, the swelling drains purulent fluid. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Xanthelasma
B. Chalazion
C. Dacryocystitis
D. Blepharitis
E. Hordeolum (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Hordeolum***
- A hordeolum (stye) is an **acute bacterial infection** of the sebaceous glands of the eyelid, often involving a hair follicle, presenting as a **painful, warm, soft lump with purulent drainage**.
- The swelling of the eyelid **involving hair follicles** and the presence of **purulent fluid** are classic signs of a hordeolum.
*Xanthelasma*
- **Xanthelasma** consists of **yellowish plaques** on the eyelids, typically caused by cholesterol deposits, and is painless and not inflammatory.
- It is a **chronic condition** and does not present with acute pain, warmth, or purulent discharge.
*Chalazion*
- A **chalazion** is a **painless, firm, non-tender nodule** resulting from a blocked meibomian gland, which is usually not painful or associated with acute inflammation and purulence.
- Unlike a hordeolum, it is a **granulomatous reaction** and typically presents as a non-infectious, chronic lesion.
*Dacryocystitis*
- **Dacryocystitis** is an infection of the **lacrimal sac**, located at the inner corner of the eye, presenting with swelling, redness, and pain in that specific area.
- This condition would not typically involve the eyelid's hair follicles or present with general eyelid purulence.
*Blepharitis*
- **Blepharitis** is a **chronic inflammation of the eyelid margins**, characterized by redness, flaking, and crusting of the eyelashes, often with itching or burning.
- It causes **generalized eyelid discomfort and irritation**, but not a localized warm, painful, purulent lump like described in the scenario.
Question 36: A 10-year-old girl is brought to the physician by her parents due to 2 months of a progressively worsening headache. The headaches were initially infrequent and her parents attributed them to stress from a recent move. However, over the last week the headaches have gotten significantly worse and she had one episode of vomiting this morning when she woke up. Her medical history is remarkable for a hospitalization during infancy for bacterial meningitis. On physical exam, the patient has difficulty looking up. The lower portion of her pupil is covered by the lower eyelid and there is sclera visible below the upper eyelid. A magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the brain is shown. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Ependymoma
B. Medulloblastoma
C. Craniopharyngioma
D. Pinealoma (Correct Answer)
E. Pituitary Adenoma
Explanation: ***Pinealoma***
- The constellation of a progressively worsening headache, vomiting, and difficulty looking up (Parinaud's syndrome or **dorsal midbrain syndrome**) with **hydrocephalus** visible on MRI points strongly to a **pineal region tumor** that compresses the **tectal plate** and obstructs CSF flow. The visible sclera below the upper eyelid is due to **retraction of the upper eyelids**, a component of Parinaud's syndrome.
- The MRI shows significant **ventricular dilation**, particularly of the lateral and third ventricles, indicating **obstructive hydrocephalus**, which is consistent with a mass in the pineal region compressing the **cerebral aqueduct**.
*Ependymoma*
- Ependymomas most commonly occur in the **fourth ventricle** in children and can cause hydrocephalus by obstructing CSF flow at that level.
- However, typical symptoms would be more associated with **cerebellar dysfunction** (ataxia, nystagmus), and Parinaud's syndrome is not characteristic.
*Medulloblastoma*
- Medulloblastomas are highly malignant **cerebellar tumors** in children, typically arising from the vermis, and often cause **ataxia**, truncal instability, and hydrocephalus due to fourth ventricle obstruction.
- While they cause hydrocephalus and headaches, they do not typically present with Parinaud's syndrome.
*Craniopharyngioma*
- Craniopharyngiomas are **suprasellar tumors** that originate from Rathke's pouch remnants and can cause headaches, visual field defects (**bitemporal hemianopsia**), and **endocrine dysfunction** (e.g., growth delays, diabetes insipidus).
- They are typically located anteriorly, compressing the **optic chiasm** and hypothalamus, not directly obstructing the cerebral aqueduct to cause Parinaud's syndrome.
*Pituitary Adenoma*
- Pituitary adenomas are rare in children and typically cause symptoms related to **hormonal overproduction** or compression of adjacent structures, such as **visual field defects** (bitemporal hemianopsia).
- While large adenomas can cause headaches, they are not typically associated with **Parinaud's syndrome** or rapid-onset **obstructive hydrocephalus** in this manner.
Question 37: A 32-year-old female presents with acute onset abdominal pain accompanied by nausea, vomiting, and hematuria. She is currently taking glipizide for type 2 diabetes mellitus. Past medical history is also significant for lactose intolerance. She has just started training for a marathon, and she drinks large amounts of sports drinks to replenish her electrolytes and eats a high-protein diet to assist in muscle recovery. She admits to using laxatives sporadically to help her manage her weight. On physical exam, the patient appears distressed and has difficulty getting comfortable. Her temperature is 36.8°C (98.2°F), heart rate is 103/min, respiratory rate is 15/min, blood pressure is 105/85 mm Hg, and oxygen saturation is 100% on room air. Her BMI is 21 kg/m2. CBC, CMP, and urinalysis are ordered. Renal ultrasound demonstrates an obstruction at the ureteropelvic junction (see image). Which of the following would most likely be seen in this patient?
A. Positional urinary retention
B. Rebound tenderness, pain exacerbated by coughing
C. Edema and anuria
D. Colicky pain radiating to the groin
E. Flank pain that does not radiate to the groin (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Flank pain that does not radiate to the groin***
- An obstruction at the **ureteropelvic junction (UPJ)** typically causes **flank pain** due to distention of the renal pelvis, but it often does not involve radiation to the groin because the obstruction is proximal to the ureter's course through the pelvis.
- The patient's presentation with acute abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, hematuria, and distress is consistent with **renal colic** caused by a UPJ obstruction.
*Positional urinary retention*
- **Positional urinary retention** is typically associated with neurological conditions, prostate issues, or bladder outlet obstruction, which are not suggested by the patient's symptoms or findings.
- While an obstruction can cause urinary symptoms, the pain pattern and imaging finding of a UPJ obstruction are not characteristic of positional retention.
*Rebound tenderness, pain exacerbated by coughing*
- **Rebound tenderness** and pain exacerbated by coughing are classic signs of **peritoneal irritation** (e.g., appendicitis, peritonitis), which is not indicated by the renal ultrasound showing a UPJ obstruction.
- The patient's symptoms are localized to the urinary tract with hematuria, pointing away from a primary peritoneal process.
*Edema and anuria*
- **Edema** and **anuria** typically suggest severe renal failure or bilateral urinary tract obstruction, which is less likely with a unilateral UPJ obstruction unless there is pre-existing renal compromise or the obstruction has been prolonged and severe.
- The acute presentation with pain and hematuria, without signs of systemic fluid overload, makes these findings less probable.
*Colicky pain radiating to the groin*
- **Colicky pain radiating to the groin** is characteristic of a **ureteral stone** as it descends down the ureter, causing spasms and obstruction further along the urinary tract.
- The imaging showing an obstruction at the **ureteropelvic junction (UPJ)** indicates the obstruction is higher up, at the kidney's outlet, which typically causes flank pain without radiation to the groin.
Question 38: A 64-year-old woman comes to the physician for a follow-up examination. She has had difficulty reading for the past 6 months. She tried using multiple over-the-counter glasses with different strengths, but they have not helped. She has hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus. Current medications include insulin and enalapril. Her temperature is 37.1°C (98.8°F), pulse is 80/min, and blood pressure is 126/84 mm Hg. The pupils are round and react sluggishly to light. Visual acuity in the left eye is 6/60 and in the right eye counting fingers at 6 feet. Fundoscopy shows pallor of the optic disc bilaterally. The cup-to-disk ratio is 0.7 in the left eye and 0.9 in the right eye (N = 0.3). Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Open-angle glaucoma (Correct Answer)
B. Optic neuritis
C. Diabetic retinopathy
D. Age-related macular degeneration
E. Hypertensive retinopathy
Explanation: ***Open-angle glaucoma***
- The combination of **progressive vision loss**, **pallor of the optic disc**, and a significantly **increased cup-to-disk ratio** (0.7 and 0.9, normal <0.3) is highly characteristic of glaucoma.
- The patient's **diabetes** and **hypertension** are risk factors for glaucoma, and the sluggish pupillary reaction can also be seen in advanced stages.
*Optic neuritis*
- Typically presents with **acute, painful vision loss** and often an **afferent pupillary defect** (Marcus Gunn pupil).
- While it can cause optic disc pallor in chronic cases, the marked elevation of the cup-to-disk ratio is not a primary feature.
*Diabetic retinopathy*
- Characterized by microaneurysms, hemorrhages, exudates, and neovascularization on fundoscopy, not primarily **optic disc pallor** or an **increased cup-to-disk ratio**.
- Visual changes are usually due to macular edema or tractional retinal detachment.
*Age-related macular degeneration*
- Primarily causes **central vision loss** and is characterized by drusen, pigmentary changes, or neovascularization in the macula.
- It does not cause an **increased cup-to-disk ratio** or optic disc pallor.
*Hypertensive retinopathy*
- Features include **arteriolar narrowing**, AV nipping, flame hemorrhages, cotton wool spots, and papilledema (in severe cases), directly related to high blood pressure.
- While it can affect the optic nerve, it usually doesn't lead to a sustained, progressive increase in the **cup-to-disk ratio** as the primary finding.
Question 39: A 25-year-old man presents to the emergency department with the sudden onset of neck pain and a severe spinning sensation for the last 6 hours. The symptoms initially began while he was lifting weights in the gym. He feels the room is spinning continuously, and he is unable to open his eyes or maintain his balance. The dizziness and pain are associated with nausea and vomiting. Past medical history is unremarkable. His blood pressure is 124/88 mm Hg, the heart rate is 84/min, the temperature is 37.0°C (98.6°F), the respiratory rate is 12/min, and the BMI is 21.6 kg/m2. On physical examination, he is awake and oriented to person, place, and time. Higher mental functions are intact. There are several horizontal beats of involuntary oscillatory eye movements on the left lateral gaze. He has difficulty performing repetitive pronation and supination movements on the left side. Electrocardiogram reveals normal sinus rhythm. Which of the following additional clinical features would you expect to be present?
A. Sensory aphasia
B. Past-pointing (Correct Answer)
C. Expressive aphasia
D. Hemiplegia
E. Bitemporal hemianopsia
Explanation: ***Past-pointing***
- The patient's symptoms (sudden onset of neck pain, severe spinning sensation, inability to maintain balance, horizontal nystagmus, and dysdiadochokinesia on the left) strongly suggest a posterior circulation stroke, likely involving the **cerebellum** or brainstem.
- **Past-pointing**, a form of dysmetria, is a classic sign of cerebellar dysfunction, characterized by the inability to accurately touch a target due to issues with movement coordination and range.
*Sensory aphasia*
- **Sensory aphasia** (Wernicke's aphasia) is characterized by impaired comprehension and is typically associated with damage to the **left superior temporal gyrus** (Wernicke's area) in the dominant hemisphere.
- The patient's higher mental functions are intact, making sensory aphasia an unlikely finding.
*Expressive aphasia*
- **Expressive aphasia** (Broca's aphasia) involves difficulty in speech production while comprehension remains relatively intact; it is usually linked to damage in the **left inferior frontal gyrus** (Broca's area).
- Given the intact higher mental functions and the presentation of **posterior circulation symptoms**, expressive aphasia is not expected.
*Hemiplegia*
- **Hemiplegia** (paralysis of one side of the body) points to damage in the **contralateral motor cortex** or descending motor pathways, often from an anterior circulation stroke.
- While vertebrobasilar stroke can sometimes cause motor deficits, the prominent symptoms here point to cerebellar and brainstem involvement rather than widespread motor cortex damage.
*Bitemporal hemianopsia*
- **Bitemporal hemianopsia** is a visual field defect characterized by loss of vision in the outer half of both visual fields, typically caused by compression of the **optic chiasm**, often by a pituitary tumor.
- This condition is not associated with the acute onset of vertigo, neck pain, and cerebellar signs seen in this patient's presentation.
Question 40: A 37-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 10-month history of excessive daytime sleepiness and fatigue. She says she has difficulty concentrating and has fallen asleep at work on numerous occasions. She also reports having frequent headaches during the day. She has no difficulty falling asleep at night, but wakes up gasping for breath at least once. She has always snored loudly and began using an oral device to decrease her snoring a year ago. She has occasional lower back pain, for which she takes tramadol tablets 1–2 times per week. She also began taking one rabeprazole tablet daily 3 weeks ago. She does not smoke. She is 175 cm (5 ft 7 in) tall and weighs 119 kg (262 lb); BMI is 38.8 kg/m2. Her vital signs are within normal limits. Physical and neurologic examinations show no other abnormalities. Arterial blood gas analysis on room air shows:
pH 7.35
PCO2 51 mm Hg
PO2 64 mm Hg
HCO3- 29 mEq/L
O2 saturation 92%
An x-ray of the chest and ECG show no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's condition?
A. Chronic inflammatory airflow limitation
B. Thickening of alveolar membranes
C. Drug-induced respiratory depression
D. Diurnal alveolar hypoventilation
E. Apneic episodes with obstructed upper airways (Correct Answer)
Explanation: **Apneic episodes with obstructed upper airways**
- This patient has classic **obstructive sleep apnea (OSA)**, characterized by **loud snoring**, **waking up gasping for breath** (witnessed apneas), and **excessive daytime sleepiness**.
- Her **obesity (BMI 38.8)** is a major risk factor for OSA, as excess soft tissue in the upper airway predisposes to collapse during sleep.
- The ABG shows **compensated respiratory acidosis (pH 7.35, PCO2 51, HCO3- 29)** and **hypoxemia (PO2 64, O2 sat 92%)**, indicating chronic hypoventilation from recurrent apneic episodes.
- OSA is the **underlying cause** of her condition; the oral device she uses is typically employed to treat OSA by repositioning the jaw to maintain airway patency.
- The question asks for the **cause** of her condition, which is the **obstructed upper airways** leading to apneic episodes during sleep.
*Diurnal alveolar hypoventilation*
- While this patient does have daytime (diurnal) hypoventilation as evidenced by the elevated PCO2, this is a **consequence** of severe OSA, not the primary cause.
- This describes **Obesity Hypoventilation Syndrome (OHS)**, which overlaps with OSA but refers specifically to the chronic hypoventilation state.
- The **obstructed airways causing apneic episodes** are the underlying pathophysiology that leads to the chronic hypoventilation.
*Chronic inflammatory airflow limitation*
- This refers to **COPD**, which typically presents with **dyspnea, chronic cough, and wheezing**.
- The patient is a **non-smoker**, has a **normal chest x-ray**, and lacks respiratory symptoms typical of COPD.
- The clinical picture is classic for OSA, not obstructive lung disease.
*Thickening of alveolar membranes*
- This describes **interstitial lung diseases (ILD)**, which present with **progressive dyspnea, restrictive physiology**, and often **interstitial infiltrates on imaging**.
- The patient's **normal chest x-ray** and lack of exertional dyspnea make ILD unlikely.
- Her symptoms are related to sleep-disordered breathing, not parenchymal lung disease.
*Drug-induced respiratory depression*
- **Tramadol** (an opioid) can cause respiratory depression, but she takes it only **1-2 times per week** for back pain.
- The ABG shows **compensated** respiratory acidosis with elevated bicarbonate, indicating a **chronic process** lasting weeks to months, not acute drug effect.
- Her symptoms (snoring, gasping, daytime sleepiness) and obesity clearly point to OSA as the cause.