A 66-year-old man is transferred from another hospital after 3 days of progressively severe headache, vomiting, low-grade fever, and confusion. According to his partner, the patient has been dealing with some memory loss and complaining about headaches for the past 2 weeks. He has a history of interstitial pulmonary disease that required lung transplantation 2 years ago. Upon admission, he is found with a blood pressure of 160/100 mm Hg, a pulse of 58/min, a respiratory rate of 15/min, and a body temperature of 36°C (97°F). During the examination, he is found with oral thrush and symmetric and reactive pupils; there are no focal neurological signs or papilledema. A lumbar puncture is performed. Which of the following features would be expected to be found in this case?
Q22
A 19-year-old man with a past medical history significant only for moderate facial acne and mild asthma presents to his primary care physician with a new rash. He notes it has developed primarily over the backs of his elbows and is itchy. He also reports a 6-month history of foul-smelling diarrhea. He has no significant social or family history. The patient's blood pressure is 109/82 mm Hg, pulse is 66/min, respiratory rate is 16/min, and temperature is 36.7°C (98.0°F). Physical examination reveals crusting vesicular clusters on his elbows with a base of erythema and edema. What is the most likely underlying condition?
Q23
A 37‐year‐old woman presents with a severe, deep, sharp pain in her right hand and forearm. A week before she presented her pain symptoms, she fell on her right forearm and developed mild bruising. She has type-1 diabetes mellitus and is on an insulin treatment. The physical examination reveals that her right hand and forearm were warmer, more swollen, and had a more reddish appearance than the left side. She feels an intense pain upon light touching of her right hand and forearm. Her radial and brachial pulses are palpable. The neurological examination is otherwise normal. The laboratory test results are as follows:
Hemoglobin 15.2 g/dL
White blood cell count 6,700 cells/cm3
Platelets 300,000 cells/cm3
Alanine aminotransferase 32 units/L
Aspartate aminotransferase 38 units/L
C-reactive protein 0.4 mg/L
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate 7 mm/1st hour
The X-ray of the right hand and forearm do not show a fracture. The nerve conduction studies are also within normal limits. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Q24
A 25-year-old male presents to his primary doctor with difficulty sleeping. On exam, he is noted to have impaired upgaze bilaterally, although the rest of his ocular movements are intact. On pupillary exam, both pupils accommodate, but do not react to light. What is the most likely cause of his symptoms?
Q25
A 72-year-old man is brought into clinic by his daughter for increasing confusion. The daughter states that over the past 2 weeks, she has noticed that the patient “seems to stare off into space.” She reports he has multiple episodes a day during which he will walk into a room and forget why. She is also worried about his balance. She endorses that he has had several falls, the worst being 3 weeks ago when he tripped on the sidewalk getting the mail. The patient denies loss of consciousness, pre-syncope, chest pain, palpitations, urinary incontinence, or bowel incontinence. He complains of headache but denies dizziness. He reports nausea and a few episodes of non-bloody emesis but denies abdominal pain, constipation, or diarrhea. The patient’s medical history is significant for atrial fibrillation, diabetes, hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and osteoarthritis. He takes aspirin, warfarin, insulin, lisinopril, simvastatin, and ibuprofen. He drinks a half glass of whisky after dinner every night and smokes a cigar on the weekends. On physical examination, he is oriented to name and place but not to date. He is unable to spell "world" backward. When asked to remember 3 words, he recalls only 2. There are no motor or sensory deficits. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q26
An otherwise healthy 62-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 3-year history of hearing loss. To test her hearing, the physician performs two tests. First, a vibrating tuning fork is held against the mastoid bone of the patient and then near her ear, to which the patient responds she hears the sound better on both sides when the tuning fork is held near her ear. Next, the physician holds the tuning fork against the bridge of her forehead, to which the patient responds she hears the sound better on the right side than the left. The patient's examination findings are most consistent with which of the following conditions?
Q27
A 68-year-old community-dwelling woman is transported to the emergency department with decreased consciousness, headache, and nausea. The symptoms began after the patient had a syncopal episode and fell at her home. She has a history of arterial hypertension and atrial fibrillation. Her current medications include hydrochlorothiazide, lisinopril, metoprolol, and warfarin. On admission, her blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg, heart rate is 83/min and irregular, respiratory rate is 12/min, and temperature is 36.8°C (98.4°F). She is conscious and verbally responsive, albeit confused. She is able to follow motor commands. Her pupils are round, equal, and poorly reactive to light. She is unable to abduct both eyes on an eye movement examination. She has decreased strength and increased tone (Ashworth 1/4) and reflexes (3+) in her right upper and lower extremities. Her lungs are clear to auscultation. The cardiac examination shows the presence of S3 and a pulse deficit. A head CT scan is shown in the picture. Which of the following led to the patient’s condition?
Q28
A 43-year-old man presents with acute-onset left flank pain for the past 6 hours. He describes the pain as severe, intermittent, colicky, and “coming in waves”, and he points to the area of the left costovertebral angle (CVA). He says he recently has been restricting oral liquid intake to only 2 glasses of water per day based on the advice of his healer. He also reports nausea and vomiting. The patient has a history of hypertension, gout, and type 2 diabetes mellitus. He is afebrile, and his vital signs are within normal limits. On physical examination, he is writhing in pain and moaning. There is exquisite left CVA tenderness. A urinalysis shows gross hematuria. Which of the following is the next best step in the management of this patient?
Q29
A 55-year-old man presents to the emergency department for severe pain in his knee. The patient states that the pain began yesterday and has steadily worsened. The patient has a history of osteoarthritis of the knee, which was previously responsive to ibuprofen. He reports taking 3 doses of hydrochlorothiazide today after not taking his medication for 3 days. He recently attended a barbecue, which entailed eating beef and drinking alcohol. The patient was also recently treated for cellulitis. The patient has a past medical history of obesity, diabetes, and osteoarthritis. His temperature is 101°F (38.3°C), blood pressure is 157/98 mmHg, pulse is 95/min, respirations are 17/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Physical exam is notable for a warm and erythematous left knee. There is tenderness to palpation of the left knee with limited range of motion due to pain. Which of the following is the best next step in management?
Q30
A 63-year-old woman comes to the emergency department because of a 1-day history of progressive blurring and darkening of her vision in the right eye. Upon waking up in the morning, she suddenly started seeing multiple dark streaks. She has migraines and type 2 diabetes mellitus diagnosed at her last health maintenance examination 20 years ago. She has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for 40 years. Her only medication is sumatriptan. Her vitals are within normal limits. Ophthalmologic examination shows visual acuity of 20/40 in the left eye and 20/100 in the right eye. The fundus is obscured and difficult to visualize on fundoscopic examination of the right eye. The red reflex is diminished on the right. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Differential diagnosis US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 21: A 66-year-old man is transferred from another hospital after 3 days of progressively severe headache, vomiting, low-grade fever, and confusion. According to his partner, the patient has been dealing with some memory loss and complaining about headaches for the past 2 weeks. He has a history of interstitial pulmonary disease that required lung transplantation 2 years ago. Upon admission, he is found with a blood pressure of 160/100 mm Hg, a pulse of 58/min, a respiratory rate of 15/min, and a body temperature of 36°C (97°F). During the examination, he is found with oral thrush and symmetric and reactive pupils; there are no focal neurological signs or papilledema. A lumbar puncture is performed. Which of the following features would be expected to be found in this case?
A. Aspect: clear, opening pressure: normal, cell count: < 5 cells/µL, protein: normal, glucose: normal
B. Aspect: clear, opening pressure: normal, cell count: ↑ lymphocytes, protein: normal, glucose: normal
Explanation: ***Aspect: clear, opening pressure: ↑, cell count: ↑ lymphocytes, protein: ↑, glucose: ↓***
- This patient presents with symptoms highly suggestive of **cryptococcal meningitis**, a common opportunistic infection in immunocompromised individuals like transplant recipients.
- **Cryptococcal meningitis** characteristically presents with **clear CSF** (not cloudy, which differentiates it from bacterial meningitis), **markedly elevated opening pressure** (often >25 cm H₂O), **lymphocytic pleocytosis**, **elevated protein**, and **decreased glucose** due to fungal metabolism.
- The presence of **oral thrush** strongly suggests fungal infection in this immunocompromised patient.
*Aspect: clear, opening pressure: normal, cell count: < 5 cells/µL, protein: normal, glucose: normal*
- This describes **normal cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)** parameters, which would not be expected in a patient presenting with signs and symptoms of meningitis, such as headache, vomiting, fever, and confusion.
- The patient's history of lung transplantation and oral thrush suggests an immunocompromised state and an opportunistic infection, ruling out normal CSF.
*Aspect: clear, opening pressure: normal, cell count: ↑ lymphocytes, protein: normal, glucose: normal*
- While **increased lymphocytes** can be seen in aseptic or viral meningitis, the overall picture of normal opening pressure, protein, and glucose does not fit this immunocompromised patient with subacute meningitis.
- The presence of **oral thrush** and **2 weeks of symptoms** indicate a more severe opportunistic infection like cryptococcal meningitis, which would show elevated opening pressure and abnormal protein and glucose levels.
*Aspect: cloudy, opening pressure: ↑, cell count: ↑ neutrophils, protein: ↑, glucose: ↓*
- This CSF profile is characteristic of **bacterial meningitis**, which is primarily marked by **cloudy CSF** due to significant **neutrophilic pleocytosis**.
- While the patient is immunocompromised, the history of **subacute symptoms** (2 weeks of headache/memory loss) and gradual deterioration is more typical of a fungal infection like **cryptococcal meningitis** rather than acute bacterial meningitis, which presents more acutely.
*Aspect: xanthochromic, opening pressure: normal, cell count: ↑ red blood cells, protein: normal, glucose: normal*
- **Xanthochromic CSF** with **elevated red blood cells** indicates subarachnoid hemorrhage.
- While headache is present, the patient's symptoms of fever, progressive confusion, oral thrush, and immunocompromised status point away from a primary hemorrhagic event and towards an infectious etiology.
Question 22: A 19-year-old man with a past medical history significant only for moderate facial acne and mild asthma presents to his primary care physician with a new rash. He notes it has developed primarily over the backs of his elbows and is itchy. He also reports a 6-month history of foul-smelling diarrhea. He has no significant social or family history. The patient's blood pressure is 109/82 mm Hg, pulse is 66/min, respiratory rate is 16/min, and temperature is 36.7°C (98.0°F). Physical examination reveals crusting vesicular clusters on his elbows with a base of erythema and edema. What is the most likely underlying condition?
A. Type 2 diabetes mellitus
B. Celiac disease (Correct Answer)
C. Food allergy
D. IgA nephropathy
E. Hyperparathyroidism
Explanation: ***Celiac disease***
- The combination of **dermatitis herpetiformis** (pruritic, vesicular rash on extensor surfaces like elbows) and **malabsorption** symptoms (foul-smelling diarrhea) is highly suggestive of celiac disease.
- Dermatitis herpetiformis is a chronic, intensely pruritic, **papulovesicular rash** that is considered the cutaneous manifestation of celiac disease, characterized by IgA deposition in the dermal papillae.
*Type 2 diabetes mellitus*
- While type 2 diabetes can present with various skin manifestations (e.g., **acanthosis nigricans**, necrobiosis lipoidica), these are typically not pruritic vesicular rashes on the elbows.
- The patient's age and lack of typical risk factors for diabetes make it less likely, and foul-smelling diarrhea is not a primary symptom.
*Food allergy*
- Food allergies typically present with acute symptoms such as **urticaria**, angioedema, or anaphylaxis shortly after exposure to an allergen.
- A chronic vesicular rash and persistent foul-smelling diarrhea are not characteristic presentations of a typical food allergy.
*IgA nephropathy*
- IgA nephropathy primarily affects the **kidneys**, presenting with hematuria and proteinuria, and does not cause a vesicular rash or malabsorptive diarrhea.
- While it involves IgA deposition, it is in the glomeruli, not the skin or gut in the described manner.
*Hyperparathyroidism*
- Hyperparathyroidism is a disorder of calcium and phosphate metabolism, leading to symptoms like **bone pain**, kidney stones, and psychiatric symptoms.
- It does not cause a pruritic vesicular rash or foul-smelling diarrhea.
Question 23: A 37‐year‐old woman presents with a severe, deep, sharp pain in her right hand and forearm. A week before she presented her pain symptoms, she fell on her right forearm and developed mild bruising. She has type-1 diabetes mellitus and is on an insulin treatment. The physical examination reveals that her right hand and forearm were warmer, more swollen, and had a more reddish appearance than the left side. She feels an intense pain upon light touching of her right hand and forearm. Her radial and brachial pulses are palpable. The neurological examination is otherwise normal. The laboratory test results are as follows:
Hemoglobin 15.2 g/dL
White blood cell count 6,700 cells/cm3
Platelets 300,000 cells/cm3
Alanine aminotransferase 32 units/L
Aspartate aminotransferase 38 units/L
C-reactive protein 0.4 mg/L
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate 7 mm/1st hour
The X-ray of the right hand and forearm do not show a fracture. The nerve conduction studies are also within normal limits. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Complex regional pain syndrome (Correct Answer)
B. Compartment syndrome
C. Diabetic neuropathy
D. Cellulitis
E. Limb ischemia
Explanation: ***Complex regional pain syndrome***
- This patient's symptoms of **severe pain**, **allodynia** (pain from light touch), **vasomotor changes** (warmth, swelling, redness), and **trophic changes** (initially normal X-ray) following a mild trauma align with the diagnosis of CRPS I.
- The absence of significant inflammation markers (normal CRP, ESR), normal pulses, and normal neurological exam further supports CRPS over other inflammatory or ischemic conditions.
*Compartment syndrome*
- This condition is characterized by the **"6 Ps"** – pain, pallor, paresthesia, pulselessness, paralysis, and poikilothermia – resulting from increased pressure within a muscle compartment.
- While pain is severe, the patient's **palpable pulses** and normal neurological exam make compartment syndrome less likely, as it typically involves significant neurological deficits and vascular compromise, often requiring urgent fasciotomy.
*Diabetic neuropathy*
- This condition typically presents as **bilateral, symmetrical pain** and sensory loss, often described as burning or tingling, primarily affecting the distal extremities (stocking-glove distribution).
- The patient's **unilateral, acute onset of severe pain** and the presence of significant vasomotor changes do not fit the typical presentation of diabetic neuropathy.
*Cellulitis*
- Cellulitis is a **bacterial skin infection** characterized by localized redness, warmth, swelling, and pain, often with fever and elevated inflammatory markers.
- The patient's **normal white blood cell count**, **normal CRP**, and **normal ESR** make an active infectious process like cellulitis highly unlikely.
*Limb ischemia*
- **Acute limb ischemia** typically presents with severe pain, pallor, paresthesia, pulselessness, and paralysis, due to a sudden lack of blood flow to the limb.
- The patient's **palpable radial and brachial pulses** rule out significant large vessel obstruction, making limb ischemia an improbable diagnosis.
Question 24: A 25-year-old male presents to his primary doctor with difficulty sleeping. On exam, he is noted to have impaired upgaze bilaterally, although the rest of his ocular movements are intact. On pupillary exam, both pupils accommodate, but do not react to light. What is the most likely cause of his symptoms?
A. Melanoma with temporal lobe metastasis
B. Craniopharyngioma
C. Pinealoma (Correct Answer)
D. Spinal cord ependymoma
E. Frontal lobe cavernoma
Explanation: **Pinealoma**
- The constellation of **impaired upgaze** (Parinaud syndrome) and **pupils that accommodate but do not react to light** (Argyll Robertson-like pupils) is highly suggestive of a lesion in the **dorsal midbrain**, a classic presentation of a **pinealoma**.
- **Pinealomas** are tumors of the pineal gland, which is located in the dorsal midbrain area, leading to compression of surrounding structures.
*Melanoma with temporal lobe metastasis*
- **Temporal lobe metastases** typically cause symptoms related to the temporal lobe function, such as **seizures**, memory deficits, or language disturbances.
- It would not specifically explain the characteristic ocular findings of **impaired upgaze** and **light-near dissociation** of the pupils.
*Craniopharyngioma*
- **Craniopharyngiomas** arise from Rathke's pouch and are typically located in the **suprasellar region**, often causing **visual field defects** (bitemporal hemianopsia) due to compression of the optic chiasm.
- While they can cause hydrocephalus and other neurological symptoms, they are not the primary cause of the specific dorsal midbrain syndrome described.
*Spinal cord ependymoma*
- **Spinal cord ependymomas** are tumors of the spinal cord and would present with **spinal cord compression symptoms** like weakness, sensory loss, or bladder dysfunction.
- These tumors do not affect the brainstem or ocular movements and therefore would not explain the patient's symptoms.
*Frontal lobe cavernoma*
- A **frontal lobe cavernoma** is a vascular malformation in the frontal lobe, most commonly presenting with **seizures** or focal neurological deficits related to the frontal lobe function (e.g., personality changes, motor weakness).
- It would not cause the specific set of ocular findings observed in this patient, which point to a midbrain lesion.
Question 25: A 72-year-old man is brought into clinic by his daughter for increasing confusion. The daughter states that over the past 2 weeks, she has noticed that the patient “seems to stare off into space.” She reports he has multiple episodes a day during which he will walk into a room and forget why. She is also worried about his balance. She endorses that he has had several falls, the worst being 3 weeks ago when he tripped on the sidewalk getting the mail. The patient denies loss of consciousness, pre-syncope, chest pain, palpitations, urinary incontinence, or bowel incontinence. He complains of headache but denies dizziness. He reports nausea and a few episodes of non-bloody emesis but denies abdominal pain, constipation, or diarrhea. The patient’s medical history is significant for atrial fibrillation, diabetes, hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and osteoarthritis. He takes aspirin, warfarin, insulin, lisinopril, simvastatin, and ibuprofen. He drinks a half glass of whisky after dinner every night and smokes a cigar on the weekends. On physical examination, he is oriented to name and place but not to date. He is unable to spell "world" backward. When asked to remember 3 words, he recalls only 2. There are no motor or sensory deficits. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Ischemic stroke
B. Subdural hematoma (Correct Answer)
C. Vitamin B12 deficiency
D. Alzheimer disease
E. Normal pressure hydrocephalus
Explanation: ***Subdural hematoma***
- The patient's presentation with **gradual onset of confusion**, increasing forgetfulness, and **balance issues with falls** over a couple of weeks, especially after a fall three weeks prior, is highly suggestive of a subdural hematoma.
- His use of **warfarin** and **aspirin** significantly increases his risk for bleeding, and the **headache and nausea/vomiting** are common symptoms of increased intracranial pressure.
*Ischemic stroke*
- An ischemic stroke typically presents with **acute, focal neurological deficits**, which are not described here.
- While the patient has risk factors for stroke (atrial fibrillation, hypertension, diabetes), the **gradual onset** of symptoms over weeks makes it less likely.
*Vitamin B12 deficiency*
- Vitamin B12 deficiency can cause **cognitive impairment** and neurological symptoms, but it usually develops **insidiously over months to years**, not acutely over 2 weeks.
- It is also associated with **peripheral neuropathy and megaloblastic anemia**, which are not reported.
*Alzheimer disease*
- Alzheimer's disease causes **progressive cognitive decline** over many years, starting with memory issues that gradually worsen.
- The **relatively rapid 2-week progression** of symptoms and the clear precipitating factor of a fall make Alzheimer's less likely in this acute context.
*Normal pressure hydrocephalus*
- Normal pressure hydrocephalus (NPH) classically presents with a triad of **gait disturbance, urinary incontinence, and dementia**.
- While the patient has gait issues and cognitive changes, the **absence of urinary incontinence** and the relatively rapid onset after a fall makes NPH less probable.
Question 26: An otherwise healthy 62-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 3-year history of hearing loss. To test her hearing, the physician performs two tests. First, a vibrating tuning fork is held against the mastoid bone of the patient and then near her ear, to which the patient responds she hears the sound better on both sides when the tuning fork is held near her ear. Next, the physician holds the tuning fork against the bridge of her forehead, to which the patient responds she hears the sound better on the right side than the left. The patient's examination findings are most consistent with which of the following conditions?
A. Otosclerosis on the left
B. Cerumen impaction on the right
C. Cholesteatoma on the right
D. Acoustic neuroma on the left (Correct Answer)
E. Cochlear ischemia on the right
Explanation: ***Acoustic neuroma on the left***
- The patient's **Weber test lateralizing to the right** means sound is heard better on the right, indicating either a **sensorineural hearing loss on the left** or a conductive hearing loss on the right.
- Her **Rinne test being positive bilaterally** (air conduction > bone conduction) rules out a conductive loss on the right, thus confirming unilateral **sensorineural hearing loss on the left side**. An acoustic neuroma is a common cause of progressive unilateral sensorineural hearing loss.
*Otosclerosis on the left*
- Otosclerosis typically causes a **conductive hearing loss** due to abnormal bone growth in the middle ear.
- A conductive hearing loss on the left would result in the **Weber test lateralizing to the left**, not the right.
*Cerumen impaction on the right*
- Cerumen impaction causes **conductive hearing loss** in the affected ear.
- If the right ear had a conductive loss, the **Weber test would lateralize to the right**, but the Rinne test in the right ear would show bone conduction > air conduction (negative Rinne), which is not the case here.
*Cholesteatoma on the right*
- A cholesteatoma typically causes **conductive hearing loss** by eroding ossicles or filling the middle ear space.
- Similar to cerumen impaction, a conductive loss on the right would lead to a **negative Rinne test on the right**, which is not seen here as the Rinne test is positive bilaterally.
*Cochlear ischemia on the right*
- Cochlear ischemia would cause **sensorineural hearing loss** in the right ear.
- If the right ear had a sensorineural loss, the **Weber test would lateralize to the left**, as the better (left) ear would perceive the sound more clearly, not the right.
Question 27: A 68-year-old community-dwelling woman is transported to the emergency department with decreased consciousness, headache, and nausea. The symptoms began after the patient had a syncopal episode and fell at her home. She has a history of arterial hypertension and atrial fibrillation. Her current medications include hydrochlorothiazide, lisinopril, metoprolol, and warfarin. On admission, her blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg, heart rate is 83/min and irregular, respiratory rate is 12/min, and temperature is 36.8°C (98.4°F). She is conscious and verbally responsive, albeit confused. She is able to follow motor commands. Her pupils are round, equal, and poorly reactive to light. She is unable to abduct both eyes on an eye movement examination. She has decreased strength and increased tone (Ashworth 1/4) and reflexes (3+) in her right upper and lower extremities. Her lungs are clear to auscultation. The cardiac examination shows the presence of S3 and a pulse deficit. A head CT scan is shown in the picture. Which of the following led to the patient’s condition?
A. Rupture of a saccular aneurysm in the carotid circulation region
B. Rupture of the middle meningeal artery
C. Rupture of the cerebral bridging veins (Correct Answer)
D. Rupture of the vein of Galen
E. Laceration of the leptomeningeal blood vessels
Explanation: ***Rupture of the cerebral bridging veins***
- This patient presents with symptoms of **subdural hematoma** (decreased consciousness, headache, confusion), which is typically caused by the tearing of **bridging veins** traversing the subdural space, especially after a fall in elderly individuals due to brain atrophy.
- Her use of **warfarin** and the presence of **atrial fibrillation** significantly increase her risk of bleeding complications from trauma, making a subdural hematoma due to bridging vein rupture highly likely.
*Rupture of a saccular aneurysm in the carotid circulation region*
- A ruptured **saccular aneurysm** typically causes a **subarachnoid hemorrhage**, characterized by a "thunderclap" headache, meningismus, and rapid neurological deterioration.
- While she has a headache, the focal neurological deficits and the likely appearance of a subdural hematoma on CT (though not explicitly described, it's implied by the mechanism) are less consistent with a pure subarachnoid bleed from a saccular aneurysm alone.
*Rupture of the middle meningeal artery*
- Rupture of the **middle meningeal artery** typically causes an **epidural hematoma**, characterized by a **lucid interval** followed by rapid neurological decline and a characteristic **lenticular** (lens-shaped) lesion on CT.
- The patient's presentation with gradual symptoms and likely CT findings do not fit the typical pattern of an epidural hematoma.
*Rupture of the vein of Galen*
- **Vein of Galen malformations** are rare congenital vascular lesions usually presenting in **infancy or childhood** with heart failure or hydrocephalus.
- This is an adult patient with an acute presentation following a fall, which is inconsistent with the typical presentation or cause of a ruptured vein of Galen malformation.
*Laceration of the leptomeningeal blood vessels*
- Laceration of **leptomeningeal blood vessels** (those within the pia or arachnoid mater) would result in a **subarachnoid hemorrhage**, presenting with signs of meningeal irritation and global cerebral dysfunction.
- While a subarachnoid hemorrhage can occur, the clinical picture, particularly the emphasis on a fall and warfarin use in an elderly patient, points more strongly towards a subdural hematoma secondary to bridging vein rupture rather than isolated leptomeningeal vessel damage.
Question 28: A 43-year-old man presents with acute-onset left flank pain for the past 6 hours. He describes the pain as severe, intermittent, colicky, and “coming in waves”, and he points to the area of the left costovertebral angle (CVA). He says he recently has been restricting oral liquid intake to only 2 glasses of water per day based on the advice of his healer. He also reports nausea and vomiting. The patient has a history of hypertension, gout, and type 2 diabetes mellitus. He is afebrile, and his vital signs are within normal limits. On physical examination, he is writhing in pain and moaning. There is exquisite left CVA tenderness. A urinalysis shows gross hematuria. Which of the following is the next best step in the management of this patient?
A. Non-contrast CT of the abdomen
B. Contrast CT of the abdomen and pelvis
C. Supine abdominal radiograph
D. Renal ultrasound
E. Non-contrast CT of the abdomen and pelvis (Correct Answer)
Explanation: **Non-contrast CT of the abdomen and pelvis**
- **Non-contrast CT of the abdomen and pelvis** is the gold standard for diagnosing urolithiasis, providing high sensitivity and specificity for detecting stones, identifying their size and location, and assessing for hydronephrosis.
- The patient's presentation with **acute-onset, severe, colicky flank pain**, nausea, vomiting, gross hematuria, and CVA tenderness is highly suggestive of **renal colic due to a kidney stone**.
*Non-contrast CT of the abdomen*
- This option is **insufficient** as kidney stones can be located in the ureters within the pelvis; a scan of the abdomen alone might miss stones in the distal ureter.
- While a non-contrast CT is appropriate, the scope of only the abdomen is **incomplete** for evaluating the entire urinary tract that might be affected by stones.
*Contrast CT of the abdomen and pelvis*
- **Contrast-enhanced CT is generally not indicated** for the initial evaluation of suspected renal colic due to urolithiasis because it can obscure the visualization of urinary stones.
- The use of contrast also carries risks such as **allergic reaction** and **contrast-induced nephropathy**, which are unnecessary in this acute, non-complicated setting.
*Supine abdominal radiograph*
- A supine abdominal radiograph (KUB) has **limited sensitivity** for detecting kidney stones, especially radiolucent stones (e.g., uric acid stones) or small stones.
- It also provides **poor anatomical detail** and cannot assess for hydronephrosis or other complications as effectively as CT.
*Renal ultrasound*
- Renal ultrasound can detect **hydronephrosis** and some kidney stones but is less sensitive than CT for visualizing smaller stones, especially in the ureters.
- Its diagnostic utility can be **limited by body habitus** and operator dependence, making it less reliable as a primary diagnostic tool for acute renal colic.
Question 29: A 55-year-old man presents to the emergency department for severe pain in his knee. The patient states that the pain began yesterday and has steadily worsened. The patient has a history of osteoarthritis of the knee, which was previously responsive to ibuprofen. He reports taking 3 doses of hydrochlorothiazide today after not taking his medication for 3 days. He recently attended a barbecue, which entailed eating beef and drinking alcohol. The patient was also recently treated for cellulitis. The patient has a past medical history of obesity, diabetes, and osteoarthritis. His temperature is 101°F (38.3°C), blood pressure is 157/98 mmHg, pulse is 95/min, respirations are 17/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Physical exam is notable for a warm and erythematous left knee. There is tenderness to palpation of the left knee with limited range of motion due to pain. Which of the following is the best next step in management?
A. CT scan
B. Antibiotics
C. Naproxen
D. IV fluids
E. Arthrocentesis (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Arthrocentesis***
- The patient presents with a **monoarticular, acute, severely painful, warm, and erythematous knee joint**, which is highly suggestive of **septic arthritis or gout**. Both conditions require urgent diagnosis via **joint fluid analysis** obtained through arthrocentesis to guide treatment.
- Arthrocentesis is crucial to differentiate between conditions like septic arthritis (requires immediate antibiotics) and gout (requires anti-inflammatory treatment), as their management strategies are vastly different.
*CT scan*
- A CT scan is generally not the initial diagnostic choice for acute monoarticular arthritis unless there is concern for a **fracture or complex intra-articular pathology**, which is not the primary differential here.
- While it can help visualize bone and soft tissues, it does not provide the **definitive diagnosis** that joint fluid analysis offers for inflammatory or infectious arthritis.
*Antibiotics*
- While **septic arthritis** is a serious possibility given the presentation (fever, acute inflammation), empiric antibiotics should only be initiated *after* **arthrocentesis and joint fluid analysis** have been performed.
- Administering antibiotics before obtaining joint fluid might **sterilize the joint fluid culture**, making it difficult to identify the causative organism and tailor appropriate therapy.
*Naproxen*
- **NSAIDs like naproxen** are a primary treatment for **gout**, which is a strong differential given the risk factors (recent meal/alcohol, diuretic use).
- However, if the joint turns out to be **septically infected**, NSAIDs would not be sufficient and could potentially mask symptoms or delay appropriate treatment for a life-threatening condition.
*IV fluids*
- IV fluids might be considered if the patient showed signs of **dehydration or shock**, but his vital signs (apart from hypertension) and oxygen saturation are relatively stable.
- While important for overall patient management, IV fluids do not address the **primary diagnostic or therapeutic needs** for acute monoarticular arthritis.
Question 30: A 63-year-old woman comes to the emergency department because of a 1-day history of progressive blurring and darkening of her vision in the right eye. Upon waking up in the morning, she suddenly started seeing multiple dark streaks. She has migraines and type 2 diabetes mellitus diagnosed at her last health maintenance examination 20 years ago. She has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for 40 years. Her only medication is sumatriptan. Her vitals are within normal limits. Ophthalmologic examination shows visual acuity of 20/40 in the left eye and 20/100 in the right eye. The fundus is obscured and difficult to visualize on fundoscopic examination of the right eye. The red reflex is diminished on the right. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Vitreous hemorrhage (Correct Answer)
B. Migraine aura
C. Central retinal artery occlusion
D. Central retinal vein occlusion
E. Cataract
Explanation: ***Vitreous hemorrhage***
- Progressive blurring, darkening of vision, and "dark streaks" (floaters) with **diminished red reflex** and **obscured fundus** are classic signs of vitreous hemorrhage
- The patient's history of **type 2 diabetes** and **smoking** increases the risk for **proliferative diabetic retinopathy**, a common cause of vitreous hemorrhage
*Migraine aura*
- Migraine aura typically involves **transient visual disturbances** such as shimmering lights, zigzags, or scotomas, often preceding a headache
- Does not cause a **diminished red reflex** or **obscured fundus**, nor does it produce "dark streaks" that progress over a day
*Central retinal artery occlusion*
- Presents with **sudden, painless, severe vision loss** and a classic **"cherry-red spot"** on the macula with retinal whitening on fundoscopic exam
- While vision is profoundly affected, the red reflex would typically be preserved, and the fundus would not be obscured by hemorrhage
*Central retinal vein occlusion*
- Characterized by **sudden, painless blurred vision** with diffuse retinal hemorrhages, venous engorgement, and cotton wool spots upon fundoscopic examination, often described as **"blood and thunder"**
- Impairs vision but does not typically cause an **obscured fundus** or "dark streaks" in the same manner as vitreous hemorrhage
*Cataract*
- Causes **gradual, progressive painless vision loss** with glare, halos, and difficult night vision, typically over months to years
- While it diminishes the red reflex, it would not present with acute onset of "dark streaks" or result in an acutely **obscured fundus** without other acute pathology