Clinical Reasoning — MCQs

A 53-year-old man presents with a 2-year-history of dull, nonspecific flank pain that subsides with rest. His past medical history is significant for hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and type 2 diabetes mellitus. He has no allergies and takes no medications. His father died of kidney disease at the age of 51, and his mother has been treated for ovarian cancer. On presentation, his blood pressure is 168/98 mm Hg, and his heart rate is 102/min. Abdominal examination is significant for palpable bilateral renal masses. His laboratory tests are significant for creatinine of 2.0 mg/dL and a BUN of 22 mg/dL. Which of the following tests is most recommended in this patient?

A 50-year-old woman presents with severe abdominal pain. Past medical history is significant for a peptic ulcer. Physical examination is limited because the patient will not allow abdominal palpation due to the pain. The attending makes a presumptive diagnosis of peritonitis. Which of the following non-invasive maneuvers would be most helpful in confirming the diagnosis of peritonitis in this patient?

A 63-year-old retired teacher presents to his family physician for an annual visit. He has been healthy for most of his life and currently takes no medications, although he has had elevated blood pressure on several visits in the past few years but declined taking any medication. He has no complaints about his health and has been enjoying time with his grandchildren. He has been a smoker for 40 years–ranging from half to 1 pack a day, and he drinks 1 beer daily. On presentation, his blood pressure is 151/98 mm Hg in both arms, heart rate is 89/min, and respiratory rate is 14/min. Physical examination reveals a well-appearing man with no physical abnormalities. A urinalysis is performed and shows microscopic hematuria. Which of the following is the best next step for this patient?

A 73-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 4-kg (9-lb) weight loss over the last month. During this time he has not been able to eat more than one bite without coughing immediately and sometimes he regurgitates food through his nose. His symptoms are worse with liquids. One month ago he had a stroke in the right middle cerebral artery. He has a history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and hyperlipidemia. Current medications include aspirin, amlodipine, metformin, and simvastatin. Examination of the oropharynx, chest, and abdomen shows no abnormalities. Neurological examination shows facial drooping on the left and decreased strength in the left upper and lower extremities. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 27-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician for minor aches and pains in her bones and muscles. She states that these symptoms have persisted throughout her entire life but have worsened recently when she moved to attend college. The patient is physically active, and states that she eats a balanced diet. She is currently a full-time student and is sexually active with 1 partner. She states that she has been particularly stressed lately studying for final exams and occasionally experiences diarrhea. She has been taking acyclovir for a dermatologic herpes simplex virus infection with minimal improvement. On physical exam, the patient exhibits 4/5 strength in her upper and lower extremities, and diffuse tenderness over her limbs that is non-specific. Laboratory values are ordered as seen below: Serum: Na+: 144 mEq/L Cl-: 102 mEq/L K+: 4.7 mEq/L HCO3-: 24 mEq/L Ca2+: 5.0 Urea nitrogen: 15 mg/dL Glucose: 81 mg/dL Creatinine: 1.0 mg/dL Alkaline phosphatase: 225 U/L Aspartate aminotransferase (AST, GOT): 11 U/L Alanine aminotransferase (ALT, GPT): 15 U/L Which of the following is most likely associated with this patient’s presentation?

A 45-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 6-month history of a slowly enlarging nodule on the left upper eyelid that has persisted despite treatment with warm compresses. He also reports heaviness of the eyelid and mild blurring of vision in the left eye. Vital signs are within normal limits. Visual acuity is decreased in the left eye. Ophthalmic examination shows a solitary, rubbery, nontender nodule on the central portion of the left upper eyelid. The lesion is better seen on eversion of the left eyelid. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A 19-year-old woman presents to the family medicine clinic for evaluation of a sore throat. The patient states that she does not have a runny nose, cough or itchy throat. The patient has no past medical history but she did have an appendectomy when she was 8 years old. She takes acetaminophen when she gets a headache and does not smoke cigarettes. Her vitals include: blood pressure 112/68 mm Hg, heart rate 72/min, respiratory rate 10/min and temperature 39.2°C (102.6°F). Physical examination reveals a patient who is uncomfortable but alert and oriented. Upon palpation, the physician notices swollen anterior cervical nodes. Inspection of the pharynx and tonsils does not reveal any erythema or exudate. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step for this patient?

A 39-year-old man comes to the physician for evaluation of hearing loss. He reports difficulty hearing sounds like the beeping of the microwave or birds chirping, but can easily hear the pipe organ at church. He works as an aircraft marshaller. A Rinne test shows air conduction greater than bone conduction bilaterally. A Weber test does not lateralize. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of this patient's condition?

A 33-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician complaining of right jaw pain for the last 3 weeks. She first noticed it while eating a steak dinner but generally feels that it is worse in the morning. She describes the pain as deep and dull, with occasional radiation to the ear and back of her neck. She denies any incidents of jaw locking. The patient also states that her husband has noticed her grinding her teeth in her sleep in the last several months. She has a past medical history of depression, for which she takes fluoxetine, and carpal tunnel syndrome, for which she uses a wrist brace. The patient works as a secretary. Her father passed away from coronary artery disease at the age of 54, and her mother has rheumatoid arthritis. At this visit, her temperature is 98.5°F (36.9°C), blood pressure is 135/81 mmHg, pulse is 70/min, and respirations are 14/min. On exam, there is no overlying skin change on the face, but there is mild tenderness to palpation at the angle of the mandible on the right. Opening and closing of the jaw results in a slight clicking sound. The remainder of the exam is unremarkable. Which of the following is the next best step in management?

A 17-year-old girl presents to an urgent care clinic after waking up in the morning with a left-sided facial droop and an inability to fully close her left eye. Of note, she is currently on oral contraceptives and escitalopram and smokes half a pack of cigarettes per day. Her temperature is 98.2°F (36.8°C), blood pressure is 110/68 mmHg, pulse is 82/min, and respirations are 12/min. On exam, she has generalized, unilateral left-sided drooping of her upper and lower face, and an inability to move the left side of her mouth or close her left eye. Her extraocular movements and swallow are intact. She has no other neurologic deficits. Which of the following interventions would most likely address the most likely cause of this patient's symptoms?