Surgical vs non-surgical management — MCQs

Surgical vs non-surgical management — MCQs

Surgical vs non-surgical management — MCQs
10 questions
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Q1

A 67-year-old woman has fallen from the second story level of her home while hanging laundry. She was brought to the emergency department immediately and presented with severe abdominal pain. The patient is anxious, and her hands and feet feel very cold to the touch. There is no evidence of bone fractures, superficial skin wounds, or a foreign body penetration. Her blood pressure is 102/67 mm Hg, respirations are 19/min, pulse is 87/min, and temperature is 36.7°C (98.0°F). Her abdominal exam reveals rigidity and severe tenderness. A Foley catheter and nasogastric tube are inserted. The central venous pressure (CVP) is 5 cm H2O. The medical history is significant for hypertension. Which of the following is best indicated for the evaluation of this patient?

Q2

A 62-year-old man presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of severe left leg pain accompanied by numbness and weakness. His medical history is remarkable for hypertension and hyperlipidemia. His vital signs include a blood pressure of 155/92 mm Hg, a temperature of 37.1°C (98.7°F), and an irregular pulse of 92/min. Physical examination reveals absent left popliteal and posterior tibial pulses. His left leg is noticeably cold and pale. There is no significant tissue compromise, nerve damage, or sensory loss. Which of the following will most likely be required for this patient's condition?

Q3

A 42-year-old man presents to the emergency department with abdominal pain. The patient was at home watching television when he experienced sudden and severe abdominal pain that prompted him to instantly call emergency medical services. The patient has a past medical history of obesity, smoking, alcoholism, hypertension, and osteoarthritis. His current medications include lisinopril and ibuprofen. His temperature is 98.5°F (36.9°C), blood pressure is 120/97 mmHg, pulse is 130/min, respirations are 22/min, and oxygen saturation is 97% on room air. The patient is in an antalgic position on the stretcher. His abdomen is rigid and demonstrates rebound tenderness and hypoactive bowel sounds. What is the next best step in management?

Q4

A 24-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department after being assaulted. The paramedics report that the patient was found conscious and reported being kicked many times in the torso. She is alert and able to respond to questions. She denies any head trauma. She has a past medical history of endometriosis and a tubo-ovarian abscess that was removed surgically two years ago. Her only home medication is oral contraceptive pills. Her temperature is 98.5°F (36.9°C), blood pressure is 82/51 mmHg, pulse is 136/min, respirations are 24/min, and SpO2 is 94%. She has superficial lacerations to the face and severe bruising over her chest and abdomen. Her lungs are clear to auscultation bilaterally and her abdomen is soft, distended, and diffusely tender to palpation. Her skin is cool and clammy. Her FAST exam reveals fluid in the perisplenic space. Which of the following is the next best step in management?

Q5

A 32-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after a skiing accident. The patient had been skiing down the mountain when he collided with another skier who had stopped suddenly in front of him. He is alert but complaining of pain in his chest and abdomen. He has a past medical history of intravenous drug use and peptic ulcer disease. He is a current smoker. His temperature is 97.4°F (36.3°C), blood pressure is 77/53 mmHg, pulse is 127/min, and respirations are 13/min. He has a GCS of 15 and bilateral shallow breath sounds. His abdomen is soft and distended with bruising over the epigastrium. He is moving all four extremities and has scattered lacerations on his face. His skin is cool and delayed capillary refill is present. Two large-bore IVs are placed in his antecubital fossa, and he is given 2L of normal saline. His FAST exam reveals fluid in Morison's pouch. Following the 2L normal saline, his temperature is 97.5°F (36.4°C), blood pressure is 97/62 mmHg, pulse is 115/min, and respirations are 12/min. Which of the following is the best next step in management?

Q6

A trauma 'huddle' is called. Morphine is administered for pain. Low-flow oxygen is begun. A traumatic diaphragmatic rupture is suspected. Infusion of 0.9% saline is begun. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

Q7

A 25-year-old man is brought to the emergency department because of a 6-day history of fever and chills. During this period, he has had generalized weakness, chest pain, and night sweats. He has a bicuspid aortic valve and recurrent migraine attacks. He has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for 5 years. He does not drink alcohol. He has experimented with intravenous drugs in the past but has not used any illicit drugs in the last two months. Current medications include propranolol and a multivitamin. He appears ill. His temperature is 39°C (102.2°F), pulse is 108/min, respirations are 14/min, and blood pressure is 150/50 mm Hg. Diffuse crackles are heard. A grade 3/6 high-pitched, early diastolic, decrescendo murmur is best heard along the left sternal border. An S3 gallop is heard. The remainder of the physical examination shows no abnormalities. Laboratory studies show: Hemoglobin 13.1 g/dL Leukocyte count 13,300/mm3 Platelet count 270,000/mm3 Serum Glucose 92 mg/dL Creatinine 0.9 mg/dL Total bilirubin 0.4 mg/dL AST 25 U/L ALT 28 U/L Three sets of blood cultures are sent to the laboratory. Transthoracic echocardiography confirms the diagnosis. In addition to antibiotic therapy, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

Q8

An 8-month-old boy is brought to the emergency department by his mother. She is concerned that her son has had intermittent periods of severe abdominal pain over the past several days that has been associated with emesis and "currant jelly" stool. Of note, the family lives in a rural part of the state, requiring a 2 hour drive to the nearest hospital. He currently appears to be in significant pain and has vomited twice in the past hour. On physical examination, a sausage-shaped mass is noted on palpation of the right upper quadrant of the abdomen. Ultrasound of the abdomen was consistent with a diagnosis of intussusception. An air-contrast barium enema was performed, which confirmed the diagnosis and also successfully reduced the intussusception. Which of the following is the next best step in the management of this patient?

Q9

A 43-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 3-month history of a painless ulcer on the sole of her right foot. There is no history of trauma. She has been dressing the ulcer once daily at home with gauze. She has a 15-year history of poorly-controlled type 1 diabetes mellitus and hypertension. Current medications include insulin and lisinopril. Vital signs are within normal limits. Examination shows a 2 x 2-cm ulcer on the plantar aspect of the base of the great toe with whitish, loose tissue on the floor of the ulcer and a calloused margin. A blunt metal probe reaches the deep plantar space. Sensation to vibration and light touch is decreased over both feet. Pedal pulses are intact. An x-ray of the right foot shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial step in management?

Q10

A 29-year-old woman, gravida 1, para 0, at 33 weeks' gestation comes to her doctor for a routine visit. Her pregnancy has been uncomplicated. She has systemic lupus erythematosus and has had no flares during her pregnancy. She does not smoke cigarettes, drink alcohol, or use illicit drugs. Current medications include iron, vitamin supplements, and hydroxychloroquine. Her temperature is 37.2°C (98.9°F), pulse is 70/min, respirations are 17/min, and blood pressure is 134/70 mm Hg. She appears well. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Ultrasound demonstrates fetal rhythmic breathing for > 30 seconds, amniotic fluid with deepest vertical pocket of 1 cm, one distinct fetal body movement over 30 minutes, and no episodes of extremity extension over 30 minutes. Nonstress test is reactive and reassuring. Which of the following is the next best step in management?

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Surgical vs non-surgical management MCQs | Prioritizing interventions Questions - OnCourse