A 20-year-old female presents to the emergency department with squeezing right upper quadrant pain worse after eating. She has a history of a microcytic, hypochromic anemia with target cells. Physical exam shows severe tenderness to palpation in the right upper quadrant and a positive Murphy's sign. By genetic analysis a single point mutation is detected in the gene of interest. Despite this seemingly minor mutation, the protein encoded by this gene is found to be missing a group of 5 consecutive amino acids though the amino acids on either side of this sequence are preserved. This point mutation is most likely located in which of the following regions of the affected gene?
Q62
A 2-year-old boy from a rural community is brought to the pediatrician after his parents noticed a white reflection in both of his eyes in recent pictures. Physical examination reveals bilateral leukocoria, nystagmus, and inflammation. When asked about family history of malignancy, the father of the child reports losing a brother to an eye tumor when they were children. With this in mind, which of the following processes are affected in this patient?
Q63
A 38-year-old woman seeks evaluation at the emergency room for sudden onset of pain and swelling of her left leg since last night. Her family history is significant for maternal breast cancer (diagnosed at 52 years of age) and a grandfather with bronchioloalveolar carcinoma of the lungs at 45 years of age. When the patient was 13 years old, she was diagnosed with osteosarcoma of the right distal femur that was successfully treated with surgery. The physical examination shows unilateral left leg edema and erythema that was tender to touch and warm. Homan's sign is positive. During the abdominal examination, you also notice a large mass in the left lower quadrant that is firm and fixed with irregular borders. Proximal leg ultrasonography reveals a non-compressible femoral vein and the presence of a thrombus after color flow Doppler evaluation. Concerned about the association between the palpable mass and a thrombotic event in this patient, you order an abdominal CT scan with contrast that reports a large left abdominopelvic cystic mass with thick septae consistent with ovarian cancer, multiple lymph node involvement, and ascites. Which of the following genes is most likely mutated in this patient?
Q64
A 16-year-old boy presents with a long-standing history of anemia. Past medical history is significant for prolonged neonatal jaundice and multiple episodes of jaundice without fever. On physical examination, the patient shows generalized pallor, scleral icterus, and splenomegaly. His hemoglobin is 10 g/dL, and examination of a peripheral blood smear shows red cell basophilic stippling. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
Q65
A 24-year-old man is referred to an endocrinologist for paroxysms of headaches associated with elevated blood pressure and palpitations. He is otherwise healthy, although he notes a family history of thyroid cancer. His physical examination is significant for the findings shown in Figures A, B, and C. His thyroid is normal in size, but there is a 2.5 cm nodule palpable in the right lobe. On further workup, it is found that he has elevated plasma-free metanephrines and a normal TSH. Fine-needle aspiration of the thyroid nodule stains positive for calcitonin. The endocrinologist suspects a genetic syndrome. What is the most likely inheritance pattern?
Q66
A 3-year-old boy is brought to the physician by his parents for the evaluation of easy bruising for several months. Minor trauma also causes scratches that bleed. Two months ago, a fall from his bed caused a large forehead hematoma and a left elbow laceration. He sometimes does not eat because of pain while chewing. Vital signs are within normal limits. Examination shows that the skin can be stretched further than normal and is fragile. Range of motion of the joints is slightly increased. There is tenderness to palpation of the temporomandibular joints bilaterally. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of this patient's symptoms?
Q67
An investigator is studying the structure of the amino-terminal of the Huntingtin protein using x-ray crystallography. The terminal region is determined to have an α-helix conformation. Which of the following forces is most likely responsible for maintaining this conformation?
Q68
A 23-year-old man presents to his primary care physician with 2 weeks of headache, palpitations, and excessive sweating. He has no past medical history and his family history is significant for clear cell renal cell carcinoma in his father as well as retinal hemangioblastomas in his older sister. On presentation his temperature is 99°F (37.2°C), blood pressure is 181/124 mmHg, pulse is 105/min, and respirations are 18/min. After administration of appropriate medications, he is taken emergently for surgical removal of a mass that was detected by abdominal computed tomography scan. A mutation on which of the following chromosomes would most likely be seen in this patient?
Q69
A 13-year-old female presents to the emergency room complaining of severe abdominal pain. She reports acute onset of diffuse abdominal pain twelve hours prior to presentation. She has vomited twice and has not had a bowel movement in that time. She is in the fetal position because it relieves the pain. Her past medical history is notable for asthma; however, she was adopted as a baby and her family history is unknown. Her temperature is 99.7°F (37.6°C), blood pressure is 130/85 mmHg, pulse is 110/min, and respirations are 22/min. Physical examination reveals abdominal distension and tenderness to palpation. A sausage-shaped abdominal mass is palpated in the right upper quadrant. Mucocutaneous blue-gray macules are evident on the child’s buccal mucosa. A mutation in which of the following genes is associated with this patient’s condition?
Q70
A 14-year-old Caucasian girl presents to the pediatrician for poor balance. She reports a 7-month history of frequent falls that has progressively worsened. She has fallen 3 times in the past week and feels like she cannot walk normally. She was born full-term and spent 2 days in the neonatal intensive care unit for respiratory distress. She has had an otherwise normal childhood. Her family history is notable for multiple cardiac deaths before the age of 60. Her mother had a posterior spinal fusion for kyphoscoliosis as an adolescent. On exam, the patient has 4/5 strength in her bilateral upper and lower extremities. She walks with a staggering gait. Pes cavus is appreciated bilaterally. Skin examination is normal. This patient has a condition that is caused by a trinucleotide repeat of which of the following nucleotides?
Molecular Genetics US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 61: A 20-year-old female presents to the emergency department with squeezing right upper quadrant pain worse after eating. She has a history of a microcytic, hypochromic anemia with target cells. Physical exam shows severe tenderness to palpation in the right upper quadrant and a positive Murphy's sign. By genetic analysis a single point mutation is detected in the gene of interest. Despite this seemingly minor mutation, the protein encoded by this gene is found to be missing a group of 5 consecutive amino acids though the amino acids on either side of this sequence are preserved. This point mutation is most likely located in which of the following regions of the affected gene?
A. Intron (Correct Answer)
B. Exon
C. Kozak consensus sequence
D. Transcriptional promoter
E. Polyadenylation sequence
Explanation: ***Intron***
- A point mutation at an **intron-exon boundary** (splice donor or acceptor site) can disrupt normal splicing, leading to **exon skipping** during mRNA processing. If the skipped exon encodes exactly 5 amino acids, the resulting protein will be missing this specific sequence while all flanking amino acids remain intact.
- This is the classic mechanism for many **thalassemias**. The clinical presentation of **microcytic, hypochromic anemia with target cells** plus **cholecystitis** (from chronic hemolysis causing pigmented gallstones) strongly suggests a hemoglobinopathy caused by a splice site mutation.
- Splice site mutations (located in introns at exon-intron boundaries) are among the most common causes of beta-thalassemia and can result in precise, predictable deletions of amino acid sequences.
*Exon*
- A point mutation within the coding sequence of an **exon** typically causes a **single amino acid substitution** (missense), a **premature stop codon** (nonsense), or if it's an insertion/deletion, a **frameshift mutation**.
- A point mutation within an exon **cannot** cause the deletion of exactly 5 consecutive amino acids while preserving the flanking sequences. This pattern is characteristic of exon skipping, not intra-exonic mutations.
*Kozak consensus sequence*
- The **Kozak sequence** surrounds the start codon and affects **translation initiation efficiency**. Mutations here would reduce the amount of protein produced but would not cause internal deletions of specific amino acid sequences.
- It does not explain the deletion of 5 consecutive amino acids from the middle of the protein.
*Transcriptional promoter*
- Mutations in the **promoter region** affect the **rate of transcription**, leading to increased or decreased mRNA levels.
- They do not alter the amino acid sequence of the protein or cause specific internal deletions.
*Polyadenylation sequence*
- The **polyadenylation signal** is important for **mRNA stability and 3' end processing**.
- Mutations here affect mRNA stability and abundance but do not change the amino acid sequence or cause internal deletions within the protein.
Question 62: A 2-year-old boy from a rural community is brought to the pediatrician after his parents noticed a white reflection in both of his eyes in recent pictures. Physical examination reveals bilateral leukocoria, nystagmus, and inflammation. When asked about family history of malignancy, the father of the child reports losing a brother to an eye tumor when they were children. With this in mind, which of the following processes are affected in this patient?
A. Base excision repair
B. Regulation of the G1-S transition (Correct Answer)
C. DNA mismatch repair
D. Stem cell self-renewal
E. Nucleotide excision repair
Explanation: ***Regulation of the G1-S transition***
- This patient's symptoms (bilateral **leukocoria**, **nystagmus**, family history of eye tumor) are characteristic of **retinoblastoma**, which is often caused by a mutation in the **RB1 gene**.
- The **RB1 gene** product (retinoblastoma protein) is a key **tumor suppressor** that regulates the G1-S cell cycle transition, and its dysfunction leads to uncontrolled cell proliferation.
*Base excision repair*
- This process is primarily involved in repairing damaged bases in DNA, often due to oxidation or alkylation.
- Defects in base excision repair are typically associated with conditions such as **MUTYH-associated polyposis**, not retinoblastoma.
*DNA mismatch repair*
- This system corrects errors that occur during DNA replication, such as incorrect base pairings or small insertions/deletions.
- Impairment of mismatch repair is a hallmark of **Lynch syndrome** (hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer), which does not present with retinoblastoma.
*Stem cell self-renewal*
- While uncontrolled self-renewal can contribute to cancer, retinoblastoma is specifically linked to defects in the **RB1 gene**, which is a cell cycle regulator, not directly a primary regulator of stem cell self-renewal itself.
- Loss of G1-S checkpoint control is a more direct and proximal cause of the tumor formation in retinoblastoma.
*Nucleotide excision repair*
- This pathway is responsible for repairing bulkier DNA lesions, such as those caused by UV radiation.
- Deficiencies in nucleotide excision repair lead to diseases like **xeroderma pigmentosum**, characterized by extreme sensitivity to sunlight and increased skin cancer risk, which is unrelated to the presented case.
Question 63: A 38-year-old woman seeks evaluation at the emergency room for sudden onset of pain and swelling of her left leg since last night. Her family history is significant for maternal breast cancer (diagnosed at 52 years of age) and a grandfather with bronchioloalveolar carcinoma of the lungs at 45 years of age. When the patient was 13 years old, she was diagnosed with osteosarcoma of the right distal femur that was successfully treated with surgery. The physical examination shows unilateral left leg edema and erythema that was tender to touch and warm. Homan's sign is positive. During the abdominal examination, you also notice a large mass in the left lower quadrant that is firm and fixed with irregular borders. Proximal leg ultrasonography reveals a non-compressible femoral vein and the presence of a thrombus after color flow Doppler evaluation. Concerned about the association between the palpable mass and a thrombotic event in this patient, you order an abdominal CT scan with contrast that reports a large left abdominopelvic cystic mass with thick septae consistent with ovarian cancer, multiple lymph node involvement, and ascites. Which of the following genes is most likely mutated in this patient?
A. MLH1
B. STK11
C. BRCA2
D. BRCA1
E. TP53 (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***TP53***
- This patient's presentation with **early-onset ovarian cancer**, a history of childhood **osteosarcoma**, and a family history of early-onset cancers (maternal breast cancer, grandfather with bronchioloalveolar carcinoma) is highly suggestive of **Li-Fraumeni syndrome**, which is caused by a germline mutation in the **TP53 tumor suppressor gene**.
- The combination of a **sarcoma** (osteosarcoma), **breast cancer**, and other early-onset malignancies points strongly to a **TP53 mutation**.
*MLH1*
- **MLH1** mutations are associated with **Lynch syndrome** (Hereditary Nonpolyposis Colorectal Cancer), which primarily predisposes to **colorectal** and **endometrial cancers**, not typically osteosarcoma or ovarian cancer in this pattern.
- While Lynch syndrome can increase the risk of ovarian cancer, the presence of childhood osteosarcoma and the specific family cancer spectrum are not characteristic of MLH1 mutations.
*STK11*
- **STK11** mutations cause **Peutz-Jeghers syndrome**, characterized by **gastrointestinal hamartomatous polyps** and mucocutaneous pigmentation.
- While it increases the risk of various cancers, including breast and ovarian, it does not typically present with osteosarcoma or the specific constellation of cancers seen in this patient.
*BRCA2*
- **BRCA2** mutations are primarily associated with an increased risk of **breast cancer** (in both males and females), **ovarian cancer**, and some other cancers like prostate and pancreatic cancer.
- While ovarian and breast cancer are present in this case, a history of childhood osteosarcoma is not typically linked to BRCA2 mutations.
*BRCA1*
- **BRCA1** mutations are strongly associated with **hereditary breast and ovarian cancer syndrome**, leading to a significantly increased risk of developing these cancers at an earlier age.
- Similar to BRCA2, the presence of an **osteosarcoma** in childhood is not a typical feature of BRCA1-associated conditions.
Question 64: A 16-year-old boy presents with a long-standing history of anemia. Past medical history is significant for prolonged neonatal jaundice and multiple episodes of jaundice without fever. On physical examination, the patient shows generalized pallor, scleral icterus, and splenomegaly. His hemoglobin is 10 g/dL, and examination of a peripheral blood smear shows red cell basophilic stippling. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
A. Pyruvate kinase deficiency
B. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency
C. Cytochrome b5 reductase deficiency
D. Pyrimidine 5’-nucleotidase deficiency (Correct Answer)
E. Lead poisoning
Explanation: ***Pyrimidine 5'-nucleotidase deficiency***
- This condition is associated with a specific type of **hemolytic anemia** characterized by prominent **basophilic stippling** on the peripheral blood smear.
- The patient's history of **prolonged neonatal jaundice**, chronic anemia, recurrent jaundice without fever, and splenomegaly are all consistent with a chronic hemolytic process.
*Pyruvate kinase deficiency*
- While it causes **chronic hemolytic anemia** and can result in jaundice and splenomegaly, it typically does not present with prominent **basophilic stippling**.
- Instead, the peripheral smear usually shows **echinocytes** or spiculated red cells.
*Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency*
- This disorder causes **episodic hemolytic anemia** triggered by **oxidative stress**, not a continuous chronic anemia.
- The characteristic finding on blood smear during hemolytic episodes is **Heinz bodies**, not basophilic stippling.
*Cytochrome b5 reductase deficiency*
- This deficiency causes **congenital methemoglobinemia**, leading to **cyanosis** and a "chocolate-brown" appearance of blood, not hemolytic anemia with jaundice and splenomegaly.
- It does not cause basophilic stippling.
*Lead poisoning*
- Lead poisoning can cause **microcytic hypochromic anemia** and **basophilic stippling** due to inhibition of heme synthesis enzymes.
- However, the clinical picture would typically include other signs of lead toxicity (e.g., abdominal pain, neurological symptoms, developmental delay in children) and not primarily a long-standing hemolytic anemia with episodic jaundice.
Question 65: A 24-year-old man is referred to an endocrinologist for paroxysms of headaches associated with elevated blood pressure and palpitations. He is otherwise healthy, although he notes a family history of thyroid cancer. His physical examination is significant for the findings shown in Figures A, B, and C. His thyroid is normal in size, but there is a 2.5 cm nodule palpable in the right lobe. On further workup, it is found that he has elevated plasma-free metanephrines and a normal TSH. Fine-needle aspiration of the thyroid nodule stains positive for calcitonin. The endocrinologist suspects a genetic syndrome. What is the most likely inheritance pattern?
A. Autosomal dominant (Correct Answer)
B. Autosomal recessive
C. X-linked recessive
D. X-linked dominant
E. Mitochondrial
Explanation: ***Autosomal dominant***
- **Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia type 2B (MEN2B)** is caused by mutations in the RET proto-oncogene and is inherited in an **autosomal dominant** pattern.
- The patient's clinical presentation is classic for MEN2B: **pheochromocytoma** (headaches, hypertension, palpitations, elevated metanephrines), **medullary thyroid carcinoma** (thyroid nodule positive for calcitonin), and characteristic physical findings (oral mucosal neuromas, thickened corneal nerves, marfanoid habitus shown in Figures A, B, and C).
- MEN2B shows **high penetrance** with affected individuals typically manifesting disease, and can be transmitted from either parent to offspring regardless of sex.
- The family history of thyroid cancer is consistent with autosomal dominant transmission of this syndrome.
*Autosomal recessive*
- Autosomal recessive conditions require **two copies of the mutated gene** (one from each parent) to manifest disease.
- Affected individuals typically have **unaffected carrier parents**, and the pattern often shows skipped generations.
- MEN2B does not follow this pattern and manifests with a single mutated RET allele.
*X-linked recessive*
- X-linked recessive inheritance primarily affects **males**, with females typically being asymptomatic carriers.
- Affected fathers **cannot transmit** the disease to their sons (sons receive the Y chromosome from father).
- MEN2B affects both males and females equally and does not show X-linked inheritance.
*X-linked dominant*
- X-linked dominant traits show affected fathers transmitting to **all daughters** but **no sons**.
- Affected mothers have a 50% chance of transmitting to children of either sex.
- MEN2B can be transmitted from father to son, ruling out any X-linked pattern.
*Mitochondrial*
- Mitochondrial inheritance shows **maternal transmission only** - all children of affected mothers can be affected, but affected fathers never transmit the trait.
- The family history of thyroid cancer and the autosomal location of the RET gene rule out mitochondrial inheritance.
Question 66: A 3-year-old boy is brought to the physician by his parents for the evaluation of easy bruising for several months. Minor trauma also causes scratches that bleed. Two months ago, a fall from his bed caused a large forehead hematoma and a left elbow laceration. He sometimes does not eat because of pain while chewing. Vital signs are within normal limits. Examination shows that the skin can be stretched further than normal and is fragile. Range of motion of the joints is slightly increased. There is tenderness to palpation of the temporomandibular joints bilaterally. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of this patient's symptoms?
A. Defective type III collagen
B. Factor VIII deficiency
C. Defective type V collagen (Correct Answer)
D. Impaired copper absorption
E. Defective type I collagen
Explanation: ***Defective type V collagen***
- The constellation of **easy bruising**, **skin hyperextensibility** and **fragility**, **joint hypermobility**, and **tenderness of the temporomandibular joints (TMJ)** in a young boy is highly suggestive of **Ehlers-Danlos syndrome (EDS)**, particularly the **classical type**.
- **Classical EDS** is primarily caused by defects in **type V collagen** (COL5A1 or COL5A2 genes), which plays a crucial role in maintaining the integrity of connective tissues.
*Defective type III collagen*
- Defects in **type III collagen** are associated with the **vascular type of Ehlers-Danlos syndrome**, which is characterized by fragile blood vessels and visceral rupture.
- While patients may have easy bruising and skin fragility, **extensive joint hypermobility** and TMJ pain are less prominent than in the classical type.
*Factor VIII deficiency*
- **Factor VIII deficiency** causes **Hemophilia A**, a bleeding disorder characterized by deep tissue bleeds, hemarthrosis, and easy bruising.
- It does **not explain the skin hyperextensibility and fragility** or the joint hypermobility seen in this patient.
*Impaired copper absorption*
- **Impaired copper absorption** (e.g., in Menkes disease) leads to **defective lysyl oxidase activity**, which is essential for collagen cross-linking.
- Symptoms include **kinky hair, developmental delay**, and arterial rupture, but not the specific collagen-related skin and joint findings typical of EDS.
*Defective type I collagen*
- Defects in **type I collagen** are primarily associated with **osteogenesis imperfecta**, a condition characterized by **bone fragility**, multiple fractures, and blue sclera.
- While some mild joint laxity can occur, it **does not typically present with the pronounced skin hyperextensibility and fragility** seen in this patient.
Question 67: An investigator is studying the structure of the amino-terminal of the Huntingtin protein using x-ray crystallography. The terminal region is determined to have an α-helix conformation. Which of the following forces is most likely responsible for maintaining this conformation?
A. Electrostatic side chain attraction
B. Hydrophobic interactions
C. Hydrogen bonds (Correct Answer)
D. Disulfide bonds
E. Peptide bonds
Explanation: **Correct: Hydrogen bonds**
- **Hydrogen bonds** are the primary forces responsible for stabilizing the regular secondary structures of proteins, such as **α-helices**.
- In an α-helix, hydrogen bonds form between the **carbonyl oxygen** of one peptide bond and the **amide hydrogen** of a peptide bond four residues away, creating a stable coiled structure.
- This backbone hydrogen bonding pattern is the defining characteristic of the α-helix conformation.
*Incorrect: Electrostatic side chain attraction*
- While important for **tertiary and quaternary structures**, electrostatic interactions between charged **R-groups** are not the primary forces defining the backbone conformation of an α-helix.
- These forces arise from charged side chains, which may influence helix stability but do not form the fundamental helical structure.
*Incorrect: Hydrophobic interactions*
- **Hydrophobic interactions** are crucial for maintaining **tertiary and quaternary protein structures**, especially in an aqueous environment, by driving nonpolar residues to the interior of the protein.
- They do not directly stabilize the backbone structure of the α-helix itself.
*Incorrect: Disulfide bonds*
- **Disulfide bonds** are **covalent bonds** between two cysteine residues and are involved in stabilizing the **tertiary and quaternary structure** of proteins.
- They are not typically found within α-helices and are not the primary force responsible for forming the helical shape.
*Incorrect: Peptide bonds*
- **Peptide bonds** are the **covalent bonds** that link amino acids together to form the primary sequence of a polypeptide chain.
- While essential for the very existence of the protein sequence, they do not dictate the specific **α-helical conformation**; rather, the rotation around these bonds (phi and psi angles) allows for various secondary structures, which are then stabilized by hydrogen bonds.
Question 68: A 23-year-old man presents to his primary care physician with 2 weeks of headache, palpitations, and excessive sweating. He has no past medical history and his family history is significant for clear cell renal cell carcinoma in his father as well as retinal hemangioblastomas in his older sister. On presentation his temperature is 99°F (37.2°C), blood pressure is 181/124 mmHg, pulse is 105/min, and respirations are 18/min. After administration of appropriate medications, he is taken emergently for surgical removal of a mass that was detected by abdominal computed tomography scan. A mutation on which of the following chromosomes would most likely be seen in this patient?
A. 3 (Correct Answer)
B. 11
C. 2
D. 17
E. 10
Explanation: ***Chromosome 3***
- The patient's symptoms (**headache, palpitations, excessive sweating**) and **hypertension** (181/124 mmHg, pulse 105/min) suggest a **pheochromocytoma**, which is a catecholamine-secreting tumor often found in the adrenal medulla. The abdominal CT finding of a mass supports this diagnosis.
- The family history of **clear cell renal cell carcinoma** in the father and **retinal hemangioblastomas** in the sister, combined with the pheochromocytoma, points to **Von Hippel-Lindau (VHL) disease**. VHL disease is caused by a germline mutation in the **VHL tumor suppressor gene** located on **chromosome 3p25-26**.
*Chromosome 11*
- Mutations on chromosome 11 are associated with **Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia (MEN) type 1**, which includes tumors of the **parathyroid, pituitary, and pancreatic islet cells**, but typically not pheochromocytomas or renal cell carcinoma in this familial pattern.
- While other conditions like **Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome** and some **leukemias** are linked to chromosome 11, they do not fit the presented clinical picture of pheochromocytoma and VHL-associated cancers.
*Chromosome 2*
- No major familial cancer syndromes or endocrine disorders that would present with the combination of pheochromocytoma, renal cell carcinoma, and retinal hemangioblastomas are primarily linked to chromosome 2.
- While various genetic conditions involve chromosome 2, they do not align with the specific presentation of **VHL disease**.
*Chromosome 17*
- Mutations on chromosome 17 are notably associated with **Neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF1)**, which can present with pheochromocytoma, but typically also involves **café-au-lait spots, neurofibromas, optic gliomas**, and Lisch nodules. The patient's presentation does not describe these characteristic NF1 features.
- **TP53 gene mutations** on chromosome 17 are linked to **Li-Fraumeni syndrome**, predisposing to various cancers, but not typically with the VHL-specific combination described.
*Chromosome 10*
- Mutations on chromosome 10 are associated with **Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia (MEN) type 2**, which includes medullary thyroid cancer and pheochromocytoma, but not renal cell carcinoma or retinal hemangioblastomas.
- The specific array of familial cancers (clear cell renal cell carcinoma, retinal hemangioblastoma) strongly deviates from typical MEN2 presentation.
Question 69: A 13-year-old female presents to the emergency room complaining of severe abdominal pain. She reports acute onset of diffuse abdominal pain twelve hours prior to presentation. She has vomited twice and has not had a bowel movement in that time. She is in the fetal position because it relieves the pain. Her past medical history is notable for asthma; however, she was adopted as a baby and her family history is unknown. Her temperature is 99.7°F (37.6°C), blood pressure is 130/85 mmHg, pulse is 110/min, and respirations are 22/min. Physical examination reveals abdominal distension and tenderness to palpation. A sausage-shaped abdominal mass is palpated in the right upper quadrant. Mucocutaneous blue-gray macules are evident on the child’s buccal mucosa. A mutation in which of the following genes is associated with this patient’s condition?
A. APC
B. TP53
C. NF1
D. C-KIT
E. STK11 (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***STK11***
- The patient's presentation with **abdominal pain**, **bowel obstruction symptoms** (vomiting, no bowel movement, abdominal distension), a **palpable sausage-shaped abdominal mass** (suggesting intussusception), and **mucocutaneous blue-gray macules** (perioral and buccal hyperpigmentation) is highly characteristic of **Peutz-Jeghers syndrome (PJS)**.
- PJS is an autosomal dominant disorder caused by a germline mutation in the **STK11 (serine/threonine kinase 11)** gene, which acts as a tumor suppressor.
*APC*
- The **APC gene** is associated with **Familial Adenomatous Polyposis (FAP)**, a condition characterized by thousands of colonic polyps and a high risk of colorectal cancer.
- FAP does not typically present with mucocutaneous pigmentation or intussusception in childhood as prominently as Peutz-Jeghers syndrome.
*TP53*
- The **TP53 gene** is a tumor suppressor gene associated with **Li-Fraumeni syndrome**, which increases the risk of various cancers including sarcomas, breast cancer, brain tumors, and adrenocortical carcinoma.
- While it can lead to childhood cancers, it does not typically present with the specific dermatologic and gastrointestinal features seen in this patient.
*NF1*
- The **NF1 gene** is responsible for **Neurofibromatosis type 1**, characterized by **café-au-lait spots**, neurofibromas, optic gliomas, and Lisch nodules.
- While some gastrointestinal manifestations can occur, the mucocutaneous macules in neurofibromatosis are typically café-au-lait spots, not the blue-gray macules of PJS, nor does it commonly cause intussusception.
*C-KIT*
- Mutations in the **C-KIT gene** are primarily associated with **Gastrointestinal Stromal Tumors (GISTs)** and some forms of mastocytosis.
- These conditions do not present with the characteristic mucocutaneous pigmentation or typical intussusception presentation seen in a 13-year-old with Peutz-Jeghers syndrome.
Question 70: A 14-year-old Caucasian girl presents to the pediatrician for poor balance. She reports a 7-month history of frequent falls that has progressively worsened. She has fallen 3 times in the past week and feels like she cannot walk normally. She was born full-term and spent 2 days in the neonatal intensive care unit for respiratory distress. She has had an otherwise normal childhood. Her family history is notable for multiple cardiac deaths before the age of 60. Her mother had a posterior spinal fusion for kyphoscoliosis as an adolescent. On exam, the patient has 4/5 strength in her bilateral upper and lower extremities. She walks with a staggering gait. Pes cavus is appreciated bilaterally. Skin examination is normal. This patient has a condition that is caused by a trinucleotide repeat of which of the following nucleotides?
A. CAG
B. GAA (Correct Answer)
C. GAC
D. CTG
E. CGG
Explanation: ***GAA***
- The patient's symptoms of progressive gait disturbance, poor balance, pes cavus, and positive family history of early cardiac deaths and kyphoscoliosis are highly suggestive of **Friedreich's ataxia**.
- **Friedreich's ataxia** is caused by an autosomal recessive **GAA trinucleotide repeat expansion** in the intron of the *FXN* gene on chromosome 9, leading to reduced frataxin protein production.
*CAG*
- **CAG trinucleotide repeats** are associated with conditions like **Huntington's disease**, which presents with chorea, psychiatric symptoms, and cognitive decline, not the cerebellar and spinal symptoms seen here.
- Other disorders with CAG repeats include **spinocerebellar ataxias (SCA)**, but the specific presentation and associated features (pes cavus, cardiomyopathy) are more consistent with Friedreich's ataxia.
*GAC*
- **GAC trinucleotide repeats** are not a standard or recognized cause of any major trinucleotide repeat disorder.
- Genetic mutations responsible for neurological conditions typically involve specific, well-characterized repeat sequences.
*CTG*
- **CTG trinucleotide repeats** are characteristic of **myotonic dystrophy type 1** (DM1 or Steinert's disease), which typically presents with myotonia, muscle weakness, cataracts, and cardiac conduction defects.
- While myotonic dystrophy has cardiac involvement, its neuromuscular features (e.g., myotonia) and lack of prominent ataxia and pes cavus differentiate it from this patient's presentation.
*CGG*
- **CGG trinucleotide repeats** are associated with **Fragile X syndrome**, the most common inherited cause of intellectual disability.
- While Fragile X can have neurological features, it typically presents with intellectual disability, behavioral issues, and physical characteristics like large ears and macroorchidism, which are not described in this patient.