An 8-month-old infant is brought to the physician by his mother because of a 1-month history of progressive listlessness. His mother says, "He used to crawl around, but now he can't even keep himself upright. He seems so weak!" Pregnancy and delivery were uncomplicated. Examination shows hypotonia and an increased startle response. Genetic analysis show insertion of four bases (TATC) into exon 11. Further evaluation shows decreased activity of hexosaminidase A. Which of the following mutations best explains these findings?
Q32
A 26-year-old woman presents to a physician for genetic counseling, because she is worried about trying to have a child. Specifically, she had 2 siblings that died young from a lysosomal storage disorder and is afraid that her own children will have the same disorder. Her background is Ashkenazi Jewish, but she says that her husband's background is mixed European heritage. Her physician says that since her partner is not of Jewish background, their chance of having a child with Niemann-Pick disease is dramatically decreased. Which of the following genetic principles best explains why there is an increased prevalence of this disease in some populations?
Q33
A 5-year-old patient presents to the pediatrician's office with fatigue and swollen lymph nodes. Extensive work-up reveals a diagnosis of acute lymphoblastic leukemia. In an effort to better tailor the patient's treatments, thousands of genes are arranged on a chip and a probe is made from the patient's mRNA (converted to cDNA). This probe is then hybridized to the chip in order to measure the gene expression of thousands of genes. The technology used to investigate this patient's gene expression profile is best for detecting which of the following types of genetic abnormalities?
Q34
An investigator is studying the biology of human sperm cells. She isolates spermatogonia obtained on a testicular biopsy from a group of healthy male volunteers. She finds that the DNA of spermatogonia obtained from these men show a large number of TTAGGG sequence repeats. This finding can best be explained by increased activity of an enzyme with which of the following functions?
Q35
A 49-year-old man presents to your clinic with “low back pain”. When asked to point to the area that bothers him the most, he motions to both his left and right flank. He describes the pain as deep, dull, and aching for the past few months. His pain does not change significantly with movement or lifting heavy objects. He noted dark colored urine this morning. He has a history of hypertension managed with hydrochlorothiazide; however, he avoids seeing the doctor whenever possible. He drinks 3-4 beers on the weekends but does not smoke. His father died of a sudden onset brain bleed, and his mother has diabetes. In clinic, his temperature is 99°F (37.2°C), blood pressure is 150/110 mmHg, pulse is 95/min, and respirations are 12/min. Bilateral irregular masses are noted on deep palpation of the abdomen. The patient has full range of motion in his back and has no tenderness of the spine or paraspinal muscles. Urine dipstick in clinic is notable for 3+ blood. Which chromosome is most likely affected by a mutation in this patient?
Q36
A 3-year-old boy is brought to his pediatrician by his parents for a follow-up visit. Several concerning traits were observed at his last physical, 6 months ago. He had developmental delay, a delay in meeting gross and fine motor control benchmarks, and repetitive behaviors. At birth, he was noted to have flat feet, poor muscle tone, an elongated face with large, prominent ears, and enlarged testicles. He takes a chewable multivitamin every morning. There is one other member of the family, on the mother’s side, with a similar condition. Today, his blood pressure is 110/65 mm Hg, heart rate is 90/min, respiratory rate is 22/min, and temperature of 37.0°C (98.6°F). On physical exam, the boy repetitively rocks back and forth and has difficulty following commands. His heart has a mid-systolic click, followed by a late systolic murmur and his lungs are clear to auscultation bilaterally. Several vials of whole blood are collected for analysis. Which of the following studies should be conducted as part of the diagnostic screening protocol?
Q37
A 13-year-old girl is referred to an oral surgeon after complaining of tooth pain, especially in the upper jaw. A review of her medical history reveals status post-surgical repair of a patent ductus arteriosus when she was 6 years old. At the clinic, her temperature is 37.0ºC (98.6°F), pulse is 90/min, respirations are 18/min, and blood pressure is 110/78 mm Hg. On physical examination, her height is 157.5 cm (5 ft 2 in), her weight is 50 kg (110 lb) and her arms seem disproportionately long for her trunk. She also has arachnodactyly and moderate joint laxity. Intraoral examination reveals crowded teeth and a high arched palate. Which of the following protein is most likely defective in this condition?
Q38
An investigator is processing a blood sample from a human subject. A reagent is added to the sample and the solution is heated to break the hydrogen bonds between complementary base pairs. This solution is then cooled to allow artificial DNA primers in the solution to attach to the separated strands of the sample DNA molecules. An enzyme derived from the thermophilic bacterium Thermus aquaticus is added and the solution is reheated. These steps are repeated multiple times until the aim of the test is achieved. The investigator most likely used which of the following laboratory procedures on the test sample?
Q39
A group of scientists developed a mouse model to study nondisjunction in meiosis. Their mouse model produced gametes in the following ratio: 2 gametes with 24 chromosomes each and 2 gametes with 22 chromosomes each. In which of the following steps of meiosis did the nondisjunction occur?
Q40
A 10-year-old boy is brought to the physician because of recurring episodes of achy muscle pain in his legs. He has a history of poor school performance despite tutoring and has been held back two grades. He is at the 40th percentile for height and 30th percentile for weight. Examination shows ptosis, a high-arched palate, and muscle weakness in the face and hands; muscle strength of the quadriceps and hamstrings is normal. Sensation is intact. Percussion of the thenar eminence causes the thumb to abduct and then relax slowly. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause?
Molecular Genetics US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 31: An 8-month-old infant is brought to the physician by his mother because of a 1-month history of progressive listlessness. His mother says, "He used to crawl around, but now he can't even keep himself upright. He seems so weak!" Pregnancy and delivery were uncomplicated. Examination shows hypotonia and an increased startle response. Genetic analysis show insertion of four bases (TATC) into exon 11. Further evaluation shows decreased activity of hexosaminidase A. Which of the following mutations best explains these findings?
A. Missense
B. Nonsense
C. Splice site
D. Silent
E. Frameshift (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Frameshift***
- An insertion of four bases (TATC) is not a multiple of three, which will alter the **reading frame** of the codons downstream from the insertion.
- This typically results in a completely different protein sequence and often an early stop codon, leading to a **non-functional or truncated protein**, consistent with the severe symptoms and enzyme deficiency described.
*Missense*
- A missense mutation involves a **single nucleotide substitution** that results in a codon coding for a different amino acid.
- It does not involve an insertion of four bases and would not typically cause such a dramatic shift in protein structure as seen with a frameshift.
*Nonsense*
- A nonsense mutation is a **single nucleotide substitution** that results in a premature stop codon, leading to a truncated protein.
- While it can lead to a non-functional protein, the described insertion of four bases is not a single nucleotide change and would not directly result in a nonsense mutation unless the frameshift coincidentally created one.
*Splice site*
- A splice site mutation occurs at the **exon-intron boundaries** and affects the proper removal of introns during mRNA processing.
- While it can lead to abnormal proteins, the given mutation is an **insertion within an exon**, not at a splice site.
*Silent*
- A silent mutation is a **single nucleotide change** that does not alter the amino acid sequence of the protein due to the redundancy of the genetic code.
- This mutation involves an insertion of four bases and would drastically change the protein sequence, making a silent mutation impossible in this scenario.
Question 32: A 26-year-old woman presents to a physician for genetic counseling, because she is worried about trying to have a child. Specifically, she had 2 siblings that died young from a lysosomal storage disorder and is afraid that her own children will have the same disorder. Her background is Ashkenazi Jewish, but she says that her husband's background is mixed European heritage. Her physician says that since her partner is not of Jewish background, their chance of having a child with Niemann-Pick disease is dramatically decreased. Which of the following genetic principles best explains why there is an increased prevalence of this disease in some populations?
A. Natural selection
B. Imprinting
C. De novo mutations
D. Gene flow
E. Founder effect (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Founder effect***
- The **founder effect** occurs when a new population is established by a small number of individuals, leading to a **reduced genetic diversity** and an increased frequency of certain alleles that were present in the founders. This is particularly relevant in populations like **Ashkenazi Jews**, who descended from a small, isolated group with certain allele frequencies.
- In this scenario, the high prevalence of **Niemann-Pick disease** (and other genetic disorders) in the Ashkenazi Jewish population is due to their historical isolation and intermarriage within a relatively small gene pool, trapping and concentrating certain alleles.
*Natural selection*
- **Natural selection** typically describes the process by which traits that enhance survival and reproduction become more common in a population over time, or deleterious traits become less common.
- While it can influence disease prevalence, it doesn't primarily explain the disproportionately high frequency of rare recessive disorders in specific isolated populations in the manner described.
*Imprinting*
- **Genomic imprinting** refers to the phenomenon where certain genes are expressed in a **parent-of-origin-specific manner**, meaning that only the allele inherited from either the mother or the father is expressed.
- This mechanism explains certain genetic conditions but does not account for the increased prevalence of a recessive disorder due to population history and isolation.
*De novo mutations*
- **De novo mutations** are new genetic alterations that appear for the first time in an individual and are not inherited from either parent.
- While de novo mutations are a source of genetic variation, they do not explain the high prevalence of a specific ancestral allele within an entire population.
*Gene flow*
- **Gene flow** (or migration) is the transfer of genetic material from one population to another, which tends to **decrease genetic differences** between populations and introduce new alleles.
- This principle would suggest a *reduction* in the prevalence of specific rare alleles over time as populations mix, rather than an *increase* in isolated groups.
Question 33: A 5-year-old patient presents to the pediatrician's office with fatigue and swollen lymph nodes. Extensive work-up reveals a diagnosis of acute lymphoblastic leukemia. In an effort to better tailor the patient's treatments, thousands of genes are arranged on a chip and a probe is made from the patient's mRNA (converted to cDNA). This probe is then hybridized to the chip in order to measure the gene expression of thousands of genes. The technology used to investigate this patient's gene expression profile is best for detecting which of the following types of genetic abnormalities?
A. Trisomies
B. Large scale chromosomal deletions
C. Frame-shift mutations
D. Chromosomal translocations (Correct Answer)
E. Single nucleotide polymorphisms
Explanation: ***Chromosomal translocations***
- The described process, involving gene expression analysis using a **DNA chip** (microarray), is effective at identifying translocations indirectly by detecting abnormal **fusion transcripts** or altered **gene expression patterns** resulting from the translocation.
- Many leukemias, especially **acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL)**, are characterized by specific chromosomal translocations that lead to the creation of **oncogenic fusion genes**, thereby altering gene expression.
*Trisomies*
- Trisomies are **numerical chromosomal abnormalities** involving an extra copy of an entire chromosome, which are typically detected by **karyotyping** or **fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH)**, not by gene expression arrays directly unless they cause a widespread, quantifiable change in dosage.
- While gene expression might be altered, a microarray designed for gene expression profiling is not the primary or most sensitive tool for identifying the presence of an entire extra chromosome.
*Large scale chromosomal deletions*
- Large-scale deletions would lead to a **reduced expression** of a large number of genes in the affected region, but direct detection of the deletion itself is usually done with **comparative genomic hybridization (CGH)** or **karyotyping**, which are designed to identify copy number variations.
- While gene chips can show altered expression, they are less precise for delineating the exact boundaries of a deletion compared to genetic-level analyses.
*Frame-shift mutations*
- **Frame-shift mutations** are small insertions or deletions within a gene that alter the reading frame, leading to a truncated or non-functional protein.
- These are typically detected by **DNA sequencing**, not broadly by gene expression microarrays, which measure the abundance of mRNA transcripts rather than sequence changes.
*Single nucleotide polymorphisms*
- **Single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs)** are variations in a single nucleotide at a specific position in the genome.
- While specialized SNP arrays exist, general gene expression microarrays are designed to quantify mRNA levels and are not the primary method for identifying individual SNPs, which require **genotyping** techniques.
Question 34: An investigator is studying the biology of human sperm cells. She isolates spermatogonia obtained on a testicular biopsy from a group of healthy male volunteers. She finds that the DNA of spermatogonia obtained from these men show a large number of TTAGGG sequence repeats. This finding can best be explained by increased activity of an enzyme with which of the following functions?
A. Ligation of Okazaki fragments
B. Proofreading of synthesized daughter strands
C. RNA-dependent synthesis of DNA (Correct Answer)
D. Production of short RNA sequences
E. Hemimethylation of DNA strand
Explanation: ***RNA-dependent synthesis of DNA***
- The TTAGGG sequence repeats are **telomeric sequences**, which are maintained by **telomerase**, an enzyme that synthesizes DNA from an RNA template.
- **Spermatogonia** are germline stem cells that express high levels of telomerase to maintain telomere length across generations.
*Ligation of Okazaki fragments*
- This function is carried out by **DNA ligase**, which joins discontinuous DNA fragments during replication on the lagging strand.
- This process is essential for general DNA replication but is not specific to the formation or maintenance of telomeric repeats.
*Proofreading of synthesized daughter strands*
- This is a function of **DNA polymerase exonuclease activity**, which corrects errors during DNA replication.
- While important for genetic fidelity, it does not explain the presence or increase of specific TTAGGG repeat sequences at telomeres.
*Production of short RNA sequences*
- This function is performed by **primase**, which synthesizes RNA primers necessary to initiate DNA synthesis during replication.
- These RNA primers are later removed and replaced with DNA, and this process is not directly responsible for generating or extending telomeric repeats.
*Hemimethylation of DNA strand*
- Hemimethylation occurs during **DNA replication** when new DNA strands are unmethylated while parental strands are methylated.
- This phenomenon is involved in DNA repair and gene regulation but is unrelated to the synthesis or regulation of telomeric sequences.
Question 35: A 49-year-old man presents to your clinic with “low back pain”. When asked to point to the area that bothers him the most, he motions to both his left and right flank. He describes the pain as deep, dull, and aching for the past few months. His pain does not change significantly with movement or lifting heavy objects. He noted dark colored urine this morning. He has a history of hypertension managed with hydrochlorothiazide; however, he avoids seeing the doctor whenever possible. He drinks 3-4 beers on the weekends but does not smoke. His father died of a sudden onset brain bleed, and his mother has diabetes. In clinic, his temperature is 99°F (37.2°C), blood pressure is 150/110 mmHg, pulse is 95/min, and respirations are 12/min. Bilateral irregular masses are noted on deep palpation of the abdomen. The patient has full range of motion in his back and has no tenderness of the spine or paraspinal muscles. Urine dipstick in clinic is notable for 3+ blood. Which chromosome is most likely affected by a mutation in this patient?
A. Chromosome 6
B. Chromosome 7
C. Chromosome 4
D. Chromosome 15
E. Chromosome 16 (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Chromosome 16***
- This patient's presentation with bilateral flank pain, hypertension, hematuria (dark urine with 3+ blood on dipstick), and palpable bilateral irregular abdominal masses is highly suggestive of **Autosomal Dominant Polycystic Kidney Disease (ADPKD)**.
- The most common form of ADPKD, comprising about 85% of cases, is caused by mutations in the **PKD1 gene** located on **chromosome 16**.
*Chromosome 6*
- Mutations on chromosome 6 are associated with conditions such as **hemochromatosis (HFE gene)** and certain types of **human leukocyte antigen (HLA) linked diseases**, neither of which fits the patient's primary symptoms.
- There is no direct link between chromosome 6 mutations and the classic presentation of ADPKD.
*Chromosome 7*
- Mutations on chromosome 7 are linked to conditions like **Cystic Fibrosis (CFTR gene)** and **Williams-Beuren Syndrome**.
- While CFTR mutations can cause renal cysts in some atypical cases, it does not typically present with the extensive renal manifestations and palpable masses seen in ADPKD.
*Chromosome 4*
- Chromosome 4 harbors the **PKD2 gene**, which is responsible for approximately 15% of ADPKD cases (ADPKD type 2).
- While PKD2 mutations can cause ADPKD, they generally present with a milder phenotype and later onset compared to PKD1 mutations. Given this patient's classic presentation with significant bilateral masses and relatively younger age, PKD1 (chromosome 16) is more likely.
- Chromosome 4 is also associated with **Huntington's disease**.
*Chromosome 15*
- Mutations on chromosome 15 are linked to conditions such as **Marfan syndrome** and **Prader-Willi/Angelman syndromes**.
- These conditions have distinct clinical features that do not align with the patient's symptoms of significant renal pathology.
Question 36: A 3-year-old boy is brought to his pediatrician by his parents for a follow-up visit. Several concerning traits were observed at his last physical, 6 months ago. He had developmental delay, a delay in meeting gross and fine motor control benchmarks, and repetitive behaviors. At birth, he was noted to have flat feet, poor muscle tone, an elongated face with large, prominent ears, and enlarged testicles. He takes a chewable multivitamin every morning. There is one other member of the family, on the mother’s side, with a similar condition. Today, his blood pressure is 110/65 mm Hg, heart rate is 90/min, respiratory rate is 22/min, and temperature of 37.0°C (98.6°F). On physical exam, the boy repetitively rocks back and forth and has difficulty following commands. His heart has a mid-systolic click, followed by a late systolic murmur and his lungs are clear to auscultation bilaterally. Several vials of whole blood are collected for analysis. Which of the following studies should be conducted as part of the diagnostic screening protocol?
A. Northern blot with RNA probes
B. Two-dimensional gel electrophoresis
C. Southern blot with DNA probes (Correct Answer)
D. Western blot
E. PCR followed by northern blot with RNA probes
Explanation: ***Southern blot with DNA probes***
- The patient's presentation with developmental delay, repetitive behaviors, flat feet, hypotonia, elongated face, prominent ears, and macroorchidism (*enlarged testicles*) is highly suggestive of **Fragile X syndrome**.
- **Fragile X syndrome** is caused by an abnormal expansion of a **CGG trinucleotide repeat** in the *FMR1* gene on the X chromosome, which leads to hypermethylation and silencing of the gene. **Southern blot analysis with DNA probes** is the gold standard for detecting these expansions, as it can measure the size of the *CGG* repeat and the methylation status of the gene.
*Northern blot with RNA probes*
- **Northern blot analysis** is used to detect and quantify specific **RNA molecules**.
- While the *FMR1* gene's mRNA expression is affected in Fragile X syndrome, northern blot is not the primary diagnostic test for detecting the underlying **DNA repeat expansion** and methylation.
*Two-dimensional gel electrophoresis*
- **Two-dimensional gel electrophoresis** is a technique used to separate **proteins** based on their **isoelectric point** and then by **molecular weight**.
- This method is used for proteomic studies and is not relevant for diagnosing a genetic disorder caused by a DNA repeat expansion.
*Western blot*
- **Western blot analysis** is used to detect specific **proteins** in a sample.
- In Fragile X syndrome, the *FMR1* gene product, **FMRP (Fragile X Mental Retardation Protein)**, is absent or reduced, which could be theoretically detected by Western blot. However, the definitive diagnosis relies on identifying the genetic mutation (CGG expansion and methylation) in the DNA, for which Southern blot is superior.
*PCR followed by northern blot with RNA probes*
- **PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction)** is used to amplify specific **DNA sequences**. While *PCR* can detect smaller *CGG* expansions, it often fails to accurately size the full mutations found in Fragile X syndrome due to the large repeat numbers.
- Combining *PCR* with **northern blot (RNA detection)** would still not be the primary diagnostic approach for the DNA-based *CGG* repeat expansion and methylation status, which is essential for diagnosing Fragile X.
Question 37: A 13-year-old girl is referred to an oral surgeon after complaining of tooth pain, especially in the upper jaw. A review of her medical history reveals status post-surgical repair of a patent ductus arteriosus when she was 6 years old. At the clinic, her temperature is 37.0ºC (98.6°F), pulse is 90/min, respirations are 18/min, and blood pressure is 110/78 mm Hg. On physical examination, her height is 157.5 cm (5 ft 2 in), her weight is 50 kg (110 lb) and her arms seem disproportionately long for her trunk. She also has arachnodactyly and moderate joint laxity. Intraoral examination reveals crowded teeth and a high arched palate. Which of the following protein is most likely defective in this condition?
A. α2-laminin (merosin)
B. Fibrillin-1 (Correct Answer)
C. Caveolin and the sarcoglycan proteins
D. Lamin A
E. Emerin
Explanation: ***Fibrillin-1***
- The clinical presentation of tall stature with **disproportionately long limbs**, **arachnodactyly (long, slender fingers)**, **joint laxity**, and a **high-arched palate** is highly suggestive of **Marfan syndrome**.
- **Marfan syndrome** is an **autosomal dominant connective tissue disorder** caused by a mutation in the *FBN1* gene, which codes for **fibrillin-1**, a glycoprotein essential for the formation of elastic fibers.
- Classic cardiovascular manifestations of Marfan syndrome include **aortic root dilatation**, **mitral valve prolapse**, and **aortic dissection**. While the patient has a history of **patent ductus arteriosus** repair, this is not a typical feature of Marfan syndrome but may represent a concurrent finding or diagnostic consideration in the workup.
*α2-laminin (merosin)*
- Mutations in the gene encoding **α2-laminin** are associated with **congenital muscular dystrophy (Merosin-deficient CMD)**, a condition characterized by **muscle weakness**, hypotonia, and **white matter abnormalities** in the brain, none of which are described here.
- This condition does not typically present with the skeletal and cardiovascular features seen in the patient.
*Caveolin and the sarcoglycan proteins*
- Defects in **caveolin-3** are associated with **limb-girdle muscular dystrophy type 1C**, and defects in **sarcoglycan proteins (α, β, γ, δ)** are linked to **sarcoglycanopathies**, which are forms of **limb-girdle muscular dystrophy (LGMD)**.
- These conditions are characterized by **progressive muscle weakness and wasting**, not the connective tissue abnormalities observed in this patient.
*Lamin A*
- Mutations in the *LMNA* gene, which encodes **lamin A**, are associated with a spectrum of disorders called **laminopathies**, including **Emery-Dreifuss muscular dystrophy**, **dilated cardiomyopathy**, and **Hutchinson-Gilford progeria syndrome**.
- While some forms can affect cardiac function (**dilated cardiomyopathy**), they do not present with the characteristic skeletal and connective tissue features of Marfan syndrome.
*Emerin*
- **Emerin** is a protein localized to the inner nuclear membrane, and mutations in its gene (*EMD*) cause **X-linked Emery-Dreifuss muscular dystrophy**.
- This disorder is characterized by a **clinical triad of contractures (elbow, ankles, spine)**, **progressive muscle weakness and wasting**, and **cardiac conduction defects**, which are not the primary features presented in this case.
Question 38: An investigator is processing a blood sample from a human subject. A reagent is added to the sample and the solution is heated to break the hydrogen bonds between complementary base pairs. This solution is then cooled to allow artificial DNA primers in the solution to attach to the separated strands of the sample DNA molecules. An enzyme derived from the thermophilic bacterium Thermus aquaticus is added and the solution is reheated. These steps are repeated multiple times until the aim of the test is achieved. The investigator most likely used which of the following laboratory procedures on the test sample?
A. Northern blot
B. Western blot
C. Polymerase chain reaction (Correct Answer)
D. Immunohistochemistry
E. Fluorescence in-situ hybridization
Explanation: ***Polymerase chain reaction***
- The process described, including **denaturation** by heating, **annealing** of primers upon cooling, and **extension** by a heat-stable DNA polymerase (like from *Thermus aquaticus*), are the hallmark steps of **Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)**.
- PCR is used to **amplify specific DNA sequences** exponentially, making it possible to detect and analyze even minute amounts of genetic material.
*Northern blot*
- **Northern blot** is a laboratory technique used to detect specific **RNA molecules** among a mixture of RNA. It involves electrophoresis, transfer to a membrane, and hybridization with a probe.
- It does not involve repetitive heating, cooling, or the use of DNA primers and heat-stable polymerases for amplification.
*Western blot*
- **Western blot** is a widely used analytical technique in molecular biology and immunogenetics to detect specific **proteins** in a sample of tissue homogenate or extract.
- This method separates proteins by size using gel electrophoresis, transfers them to a membrane, and then detects the target protein using specific antibodies. It does not involve DNA denaturation or amplification.
*Immunohistochemistry*
- **Immunohistochemistry (IHC)** is a histological technique that uses the principle of specific antibody-antigen binding to **detect specific antigens (proteins) in cells or tissues**.
- It involves staining tissues with antibodies labeled with a chromogenic reporter or fluorophore to visualize the location and distribution of target proteins within preserved tissue sections.
*Fluorescence in-situ hybridization*
- **Fluorescence in-situ hybridization (FISH)** is a cytogenetic technique used to detect and **localize specific DNA or RNA sequences within cells or tissues** using fluorescent probes that bind to parts of the chromosome.
- While it involves hybridization, it is primarily for visualizing genetic material within its cellular context, not for amplifying DNA like PCR.
Question 39: A group of scientists developed a mouse model to study nondisjunction in meiosis. Their mouse model produced gametes in the following ratio: 2 gametes with 24 chromosomes each and 2 gametes with 22 chromosomes each. In which of the following steps of meiosis did the nondisjunction occur?
A. Telophase I
B. Metaphase II
C. Anaphase I (Correct Answer)
D. Anaphase II
E. Metaphase I
Explanation: ***Anaphase I***
- Nondisjunction during **Anaphase I** occurs when homologous chromosomes fail to separate properly, meaning both homologs of a chromosome pair go to the same pole.
- This results in two secondary gametocytes with abnormal chromosome numbers: one with n+1 chromosomes (24) and one with n-1 chromosomes (22).
- When meiosis II proceeds normally, each abnormal secondary gametocyte divides to produce 2 identical gametes, resulting in **all 4 gametes being abnormal** in a 2:2 ratio (two n+1 and two n-1), matching the observed pattern.
*Telophase I*
- **Telophase I** is the final stage of meiosis I where chromosomes arrive at the poles and the cell divides, but it's not where the initial separation error (nondisjunction) occurs.
- Nondisjunction happens due to a failure of **chromosome segregation**, which is a process of anaphase, not telophase.
*Metaphase II*
- **Metaphase II** involves the alignment of sister chromatids at the metaphase plate in secondary gametocytes. Nondisjunction at this stage would involve sister chromatids failing to separate.
- Nondisjunction in Metaphase II (or Anaphase II) would lead to 2 normal gametes (23 chromosomes), one gamete with n+1 (24 chromosomes), and one gamete with n-1 (22 chromosomes), which differs from the given ratio.
*Anaphase II*
- **Nondisjunction in Anaphase II** would involve the failure of sister chromatids to separate in one of the secondary gametocytes.
- This would produce two normal gametes (23 chromosomes), one gamete with 24 chromosomes (n+1), and one gamete with 22 chromosomes (n-1), which is not the 2:2 ratio observed.
*Metaphase I*
- **Metaphase I** is characterized by the alignment of homologous chromosome pairs at the metaphase plate. While an issue here could precede nondisjunction, the actual event of failed separation occurs during anaphase.
- No separation of chromosomes occurs in Metaphase I; it is the stage of **chromosome alignment** before segregation.
Question 40: A 10-year-old boy is brought to the physician because of recurring episodes of achy muscle pain in his legs. He has a history of poor school performance despite tutoring and has been held back two grades. He is at the 40th percentile for height and 30th percentile for weight. Examination shows ptosis, a high-arched palate, and muscle weakness in the face and hands; muscle strength of the quadriceps and hamstrings is normal. Sensation is intact. Percussion of the thenar eminence causes the thumb to abduct and then relax slowly. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause?
A. Defect of voltage-gated sodium channels of the sarcolemmal membrane
B. CTG trinucleotide expansion in the DMPK gene (Correct Answer)
C. Complete impairment of the dystrophin protein
D. Apoptosis of lower motor neurons
E. Humoral immune attack against the endomysial blood vessels
Explanation: ***CTG trinucleotide expansion in the DMPK gene***
- The patient's symptoms, including **myotonia** (evidenced by the slow relaxation after percussion of the thenar eminence), muscle weakness (especially in the face and hands), ptosis, and intellectual disability, are classic features of **myotonic dystrophy type 1 (DM1)**.
- DM1 is caused by a **CTG trinucleotide repeat expansion** in the 3' untranslated region of the **_DMPK_ (dystrophia myotonica protein kinase) gene**.
*Defect of voltage-gated sodium channels of the sarcolemmal membrane*
- This description is characteristic of **nondystrophic myotonias**, such as **paramyotonia congenita** or **potassium-aggravated myotonia**.
- While these present with myotonia, they typically lack the systemic features of DM1, such as the intellectual disability, ptosis, and characteristic facial weakness.
*Complete impairment of the dystrophin protein*
- **Complete impairment of dystrophin** is the underlying cause of **Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD)**.
- DMD presents with progressive **proximal muscle weakness**, Gowers' sign, and calf pseudohypertrophy, and typically manifests much earlier with significant motor developmental delays, which are not the primary complaints here.
*Apoptosis of lower motor neurons*
- **Apoptosis of lower motor neurons** is characteristic of conditions like **spinal muscular atrophy (SMA)**.
- SMA causes progressive weakness and atrophy but typically presents as a **flaccid paralysis** and does not involve myotonia, ptosis, or intellectual disability in the same manner as described.
*Humoral immune attack against the endomysial blood vessels*
- A **humoral immune attack against endomysial blood vessels** is the hallmark of **dermatomyositis**, a type of inflammatory myopathy.
- Dermatomyositis presents with **proximal muscle weakness**, characteristic skin rashes (e.g., heliotrope rash, Gottron papules), and systemic inflammation, which are not described in this patient.