A 4-year-old boy is brought to a pediatrician by his parents for a consultation after his teacher complained about his inability to focus or make friends at school. They mention that the boy does not interact well with others at home, school, or daycare. On physical examination, his vital signs are stable with normal weight, height, and head circumference for his age and sex. His general examination and neurologic examination are completely normal. A recent audiological evaluation shows normal hearing, and intellectual disability has been ruled out by a clinical psychologist. Which of the following investigations is indicated as part of his diagnostic evaluation at present?
Q32
A mother brings her 3-year-old son to his pediatrician because he is having tantrums. The boy has no history of serious illness and is on track with developmental milestones. His mother recently returned to work 2 weeks ago. She explains that, since then, her son has had a tantrum roughly every other morning, usually when she is getting him dressed or dropping him off at daycare. He cries loudly for about 5 minutes, saying that he does not want to go to daycare while thrashing his arms and legs. According to the daycare staff, he is well-behaved during the day. In the evenings, he has tantrums about twice per week, typically when he is told he must finish his dinner or that it is time for bed. These tantrums have been occurring for about 6 months. The mother is concerned her son may have a behavioral disorder. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the boy's behavior?
Q33
A 59-year-old man comes to the physician for a follow-up examination after being diagnosed with localized prostate cancer 3 weeks ago. The physician is delayed because of an emergency with another patient; miscommunication between the physician and his staff created further delays. When he enters the patient's room, the patient angrily expresses, “Do you realize that I waited 45 minutes in the waiting room, despite arriving on time, and that I've now waited another half an hour in this exam room? I am dying; do you have no respect for my time?” Which of the following is the most appropriate response by the physician?
Q34
A professional golfer tees off on the first day of a tournament. On the first hole, his drive slices to the right and drops in the water. He yells at his caddy, then takes his driver and throws it at his feet, blaming it for his poor swing. Notably, the golfer had had a long fight with his wife last night over problems with family finances. The golfer's actions on the course represent which type of defense mechanism?
Q35
A 55-year-old man presents to his primary care physician for a wellness checkup. The patient has a past medical history of alcohol abuse and is currently attending alcoholics anonymous with little success. He is currently drinking roughly 1L of hard alcohol every day and does not take his disulfiram anymore. Which of the following findings is most likely to also be found in this patient?
Q36
A 39-year-old woman with multiple sclerosis comes to the physician for a follow-up examination. Over the past 3 years, she has been hospitalized 7 times for acute exacerbations of her illness. She has not responded to therapy with several disease-modifying agents and has required at least two pulse corticosteroid therapies every year. She has seen several specialists and sought out experimental therapies. During this time period, her disease course has been rapidly progressive. She currently requires a wheelchair and is incontinent. Today, she says, “I'm not going to allow myself to hope because I'll only be disappointed, like I have been over and over again. What's the point? No one in this system knows how to help me. Sometimes I don't even take my pills any more because they don't help.” Which of the following is the most appropriate initial response to this patient?
Q37
A 9-year-old boy is brought to the physician for evaluation of short stature. He is at the 5th percentile for height, 65th percentile for weight, and 95th percentile for head circumference. Examination shows midface retrusion, a bulging forehead, and flattening of the nose. The extremities are disproportionately short. He was adopted and does not know his biological parents. The patient’s condition is an example of which of the following genetic phenomena?
Q38
A 5-year-old boy is brought to the physician by his mother because he does not “listen to her” anymore. The mother also reports that her son cannot concentrate on any tasks lasting longer than just a few minutes. Teachers at his preschool report that the patient is more active compared to other preschoolers, frequently interrupts or bothers other children, and is very forgetful. Last year the patient was expelled from another preschool for hitting his teacher and his classmates when he did not get what he wanted and for being disruptive during classes. He was born at term via vaginal delivery and has been healthy except for 3 episodes of acute otitis media at the age of 2 years. He has met all developmental milestones. His mother has major depressive disorder and his father has Graves' disease. He appears healthy and well nourished. Examination shows that the patient does not seem to listen when spoken to directly. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in treatment?
Q39
A 42-year-old male presents to your office with cellulitis on his leg secondary to a dog bite. You suspect that the causative agent is a small, facultatively anaerobic, Gram-negative rod sensitive to penicillin with clavulanate. When you ask the patient how the bite occurred, the patient explains that he had a fight with his wife earlier in the day. Frustrated with his wife, he yelled at the family pet, who bit him on the leg. Which of the following defense mechanisms was this patient employing at the time of his injury?
Q40
A 42-year-old biochemist receives negative feedback from a senior associate on a recent project. He is placed on probation within the company and told that he must improve his performance on the next project to remain with the company. He is distraught and leaves his office early. When he gives an account of the episode to his wife, she says, “I'll always be proud of you no matter what because I know that you always try your best.” Later that night, he tearfully accuses her of believing that he is a failure. Which of the following psychological defense mechanisms is he demonstrating?
Ethics/Biostatistics US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 31: A 4-year-old boy is brought to a pediatrician by his parents for a consultation after his teacher complained about his inability to focus or make friends at school. They mention that the boy does not interact well with others at home, school, or daycare. On physical examination, his vital signs are stable with normal weight, height, and head circumference for his age and sex. His general examination and neurologic examination are completely normal. A recent audiological evaluation shows normal hearing, and intellectual disability has been ruled out by a clinical psychologist. Which of the following investigations is indicated as part of his diagnostic evaluation at present?
A. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of brain
B. Electroencephalography
C. No further testing is needed
D. Positron Emission Tomography (PET) scanning of head
E. Autism spectrum disorder screening and developmental assessment (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Autism spectrum disorder screening and developmental assessment***
- The clinical presentation (inability to focus, difficulty making friends, poor social interaction across multiple settings) is **highly suggestive of Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD)**.
- After ruling out **hearing impairment and intellectual disability**, the next appropriate step is **formal ASD screening using validated tools** such as the **Modified Checklist for Autism in Toddlers (M-CHAT)**, **Autism Diagnostic Observation Schedule (ADOS)**, or **Autism Diagnostic Interview-Revised (ADI-R)**.
- According to **AAP guidelines**, when developmental concerns suggestive of ASD are identified, formal screening and comprehensive developmental assessment are **essential components of the diagnostic evaluation**.
- ASD diagnosis is primarily **clinical**, based on standardized screening tools and developmental assessments, not neuroimaging or electrophysiological studies.
*No further testing is needed*
- This is **incorrect** because the patient has not yet undergone **formal ASD-specific screening and developmental assessment**.
- While hearing and intellectual disability have been ruled out, **diagnostic confirmation of ASD** requires structured evaluation using validated assessment tools.
- Simply observing symptoms without formal screening is inadequate for establishing an ASD diagnosis.
*Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of brain*
- Brain MRI is **not routinely indicated** for ASD diagnosis as it typically shows **normal findings** in children with ASD.
- Neuroimaging is reserved for cases with **focal neurological signs, regression, or atypical features** suggesting structural abnormalities.
- This patient has a **normal neurological examination**, making MRI unnecessary.
*Electroencephalography*
- EEG is indicated only when there is suspicion of **seizure disorder** or other specific neurological conditions.
- The patient has a **normal neurological examination** with no seizure-like symptoms, making EEG unnecessary at this stage.
*Positron Emission Tomography (PET) scanning of head*
- PET scans are **not part of routine ASD diagnostic workup** and are typically used in research settings or for evaluating specific metabolic or neoplastic conditions.
- The **radiation exposure and invasiveness** make PET scanning inappropriate for initial diagnostic evaluation in a child with developmental concerns.
Question 32: A mother brings her 3-year-old son to his pediatrician because he is having tantrums. The boy has no history of serious illness and is on track with developmental milestones. His mother recently returned to work 2 weeks ago. She explains that, since then, her son has had a tantrum roughly every other morning, usually when she is getting him dressed or dropping him off at daycare. He cries loudly for about 5 minutes, saying that he does not want to go to daycare while thrashing his arms and legs. According to the daycare staff, he is well-behaved during the day. In the evenings, he has tantrums about twice per week, typically when he is told he must finish his dinner or that it is time for bed. These tantrums have been occurring for about 6 months. The mother is concerned her son may have a behavioral disorder. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the boy's behavior?
A. Autism spectrum disorder
B. Disruptive mood dysregulation disorder
C. Conduct disorder
D. Normal development (Correct Answer)
E. Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder
Explanation: **Normal development**
- **Tantrums** are a normal part of development for 2-5-year-olds as they learn to express their independence and emotions.
- The child's tantrums are situation-specific (daycare, bedtime, dinner), of limited duration (5 minutes), and he is otherwise **well-behaved** at daycare, which aligns with typical developmental behaviors.
*Autism spectrum disorder*
- This disorder involves persistent deficits in **social communication** and interaction, and **restricted, repetitive patterns of behavior**, which are not described in the child's presentation.
- The child is reported to be on track with **developmental milestones** and is only 3 years old, making this diagnosis less likely.
*Disruptive mood dysregulation disorder*
- This diagnosis requires **severe, recurrent temper outbursts** that are grossly out of proportion in intensity or duration to the situation, occurring **3 or more times per week** for at least 12 months.
- The child's tantrums are less frequent than required for this diagnosis and do not meet the duration criteria, affecting children typically over 6 years of age.
*Conduct disorder*
- This disorder involves a repetitive and persistent pattern of behavior in which the **basic rights of others or major age-appropriate societal norms or rules are violated**.
- The child's behavior does not include aggression towards people or animals, destruction of property, deceitfulness, or theft, which are core features of conduct disorder.
*Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder*
- This disorder is characterized by persistent patterns of **inattention** and/or **hyperactivity-impulsivity** that interfere with functioning or development.
- The child's primary issue is tantrums, not problems with attention, focus, or excessive motor activity in various settings.
Question 33: A 59-year-old man comes to the physician for a follow-up examination after being diagnosed with localized prostate cancer 3 weeks ago. The physician is delayed because of an emergency with another patient; miscommunication between the physician and his staff created further delays. When he enters the patient's room, the patient angrily expresses, “Do you realize that I waited 45 minutes in the waiting room, despite arriving on time, and that I've now waited another half an hour in this exam room? I am dying; do you have no respect for my time?” Which of the following is the most appropriate response by the physician?
A. I'm very sorry for the delay. I had a very sick patient who required immediate care.
B. I apologize for the inconvenience, and if I were you I would be frustrated and angry as well. Let's talk about your concerns. (Correct Answer)
C. Let me apologize on behalf of my staff, who is responsible for most of the delay. I can assure you, there will be consequences for this.
D. I can tell that you are angry and there is no excuse for my delay. But you are not going to die of prostate cancer any time soon.
E. You have a right to be frustrated, but shouting at me is not appropriate. I am afraid I will have to ask you to leave.
Explanation: ***"I apologize for the inconvenience, and if I were you I would be frustrated and angry as well. Let's talk about your concerns."***
- This response effectively uses **empathy and validates the patient's feelings**, which helps de-escalate the situation and rebuild trust.
- It also shifts the focus back to the patient's **medical concerns**, demonstrating a commitment to their care despite the delay.
*"You have a right to be frustrated, but shouting at me is not appropriate. I am afraid I will have to ask you to leave."*
- While it's important to set boundaries, this response can be perceived as **antagonistic** and dismissive of the patient's distress.
- Threatening to ask the patient to leave could **damage the physician-patient relationship** and hinder further care, especially with a serious diagnosis.
*"I'm very sorry for the delay. I had a very sick patient who required immediate care."*
- This response offers an apology but might come across as defensive or trying to justify the delay without fully acknowledging the patient's distress.
- It also divulges information about another patient, which, while vague, might tread on **patient privacy** considerations in some contexts.
*"Let me apologize on behalf of my staff, who is responsible for most of the delay. I can assure you, there will be consequences for this."*
- This response inappropriately shifts blame to the staff, which can **undermine team cohesion** and professionalism.
- Focusing on "consequences" for staff does not directly address the patient's immediate emotional needs or medical concerns.
*"I can tell that you are angry and there is no excuse for my delay. But you are not going to die of prostate cancer any time soon."*
- While acknowledging anger, directly stating "you are not going to die of prostate cancer any time soon" can be **dismissive of the patient's fears and anxieties** about their serious diagnosis.
- It fails to validate the patient's feelings about the delay and may make them feel that their concerns are being trivialized.
Question 34: A professional golfer tees off on the first day of a tournament. On the first hole, his drive slices to the right and drops in the water. He yells at his caddy, then takes his driver and throws it at his feet, blaming it for his poor swing. Notably, the golfer had had a long fight with his wife last night over problems with family finances. The golfer's actions on the course represent which type of defense mechanism?
A. Isolation of affect
B. Repression
C. Displacement (Correct Answer)
D. Sublimation
E. Rationalization
Explanation: ***Displacement***
- **Displacement** is a defense mechanism where a person redirects strong emotions, often anger, from the original source to a less threatening target. The golfer's anger regarding family finances is redirected from his wife to his caddy and golf club.
- The anger stemming from his domestic dispute is **displaced** onto unrelated targets (caddy, golf club) during the golf game.
*Isolation of affect*
- **Isolation of affect** involves experiencing an event without the associated emotion. The individual intellectually understands the situation but does not feel the emotional impact.
- In this scenario, the golfer is clearly expressing strong emotions (anger, yelling), which is contrary to the concept of isolating affect.
*Repression*
- **Repression** is an unconscious defense mechanism where unacceptable thoughts, feelings, or memories are buried in the unconscious mind to avoid distress.
- The golfer is actively expressing his anger and frustration, indicating that these emotions are not being repressed but rather expressed in an inappropriate manner.
*Sublimation*
- **Sublimation** is a mature defense mechanism where unacceptable impulses or feelings are transformed into socially acceptable behaviors or achievements.
- The golfer's aggressive and destructive behavior (throwing the club, yelling) is not a constructive or socially acceptable transformation of his impulses.
*Rationalization*
- **Rationalization** involves creating logical or socially acceptable explanations for behaviors or feelings that are actually driven by unacceptable impulses.
- While blaming the club may seem like an attempt to rationalize his poor swing, the primary mechanism at play is the redirection of underlying anger from his conflict with his wife, which is characteristic of displacement.
Question 35: A 55-year-old man presents to his primary care physician for a wellness checkup. The patient has a past medical history of alcohol abuse and is currently attending alcoholics anonymous with little success. He is currently drinking roughly 1L of hard alcohol every day and does not take his disulfiram anymore. Which of the following findings is most likely to also be found in this patient?
A. Dysdiadochokinesia (Correct Answer)
B. Microcytic anemia
C. Constipation
D. Decreased CNS NMDA activity
E. Increased transketolase activity
Explanation: ***Dysdiadochokinesia***
- Chronic **alcohol abuse** can lead to cerebellar degeneration, a condition characterized by damage to the **cerebellum**.
- **Dysdiadochokinesia**, the impaired ability to perform rapidly alternating movements, is a classic sign of **cerebellar dysfunction**.
*Microcytic anemia*
- **Chronic alcohol abuse** typically causes **macrocytic anemia** due to folate deficiency, or less commonly, iron deficiency anemia from gastrointestinal bleeding.
- **Microcytic anemia** is usually associated with **iron deficiency** (often due to chronic blood loss) or **thalassemia**, neither of which are suggested here.
*Constipation*
- While various factors can cause constipation, **chronic alcohol abuse** is more commonly associated with **diarrhea** due to alterations in gut motility and malabsorption.
- Constipation is not a direct or prominent feature of **alcoholism**.
*Decreased CNS NMDA activity*
- **Chronic alcohol abuse** leads to an **upregulation of NMDA receptors** in the brain as a compensatory mechanism against alcohol's inhibitory effects on the central nervous system.
- When alcohol consumption ceases, this upregulated NMDA activity contributes to the **excitatory symptoms of alcohol withdrawal**, such as seizures and delirium tremens.
*Increased transketolase activity*
- **Transketolase activity** is usually **decreased** in chronic alcoholics due to **thiamine deficiency**, as thiamine (vitamin B1) is a critical cofactor for this enzyme.
- A **decrease** in transketolase activity is a key diagnostic indicator for thiamine deficiency, which contributes to conditions like **Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome**.
Question 36: A 39-year-old woman with multiple sclerosis comes to the physician for a follow-up examination. Over the past 3 years, she has been hospitalized 7 times for acute exacerbations of her illness. She has not responded to therapy with several disease-modifying agents and has required at least two pulse corticosteroid therapies every year. She has seen several specialists and sought out experimental therapies. During this time period, her disease course has been rapidly progressive. She currently requires a wheelchair and is incontinent. Today, she says, “I'm not going to allow myself to hope because I'll only be disappointed, like I have been over and over again. What's the point? No one in this system knows how to help me. Sometimes I don't even take my pills any more because they don't help.” Which of the following is the most appropriate initial response to this patient?
A. I am moved by your courage in the face of this senseless tragedy. I agree with you that further therapy is futile, and I am going to recommend that we stop further treatments.
B. I am concerned that this terrible illness may be affecting your capacity to make decisions for yourself and would like to refer you to a psychiatrist.
C. I'm very sorry to hear that you feel this way about your situation. With all that you've been through, I can see why you would be so frustrated. (Correct Answer)
D. I understand how your illness would make you angry. Apparently your previous doctors did not know how to help you handle your condition well, but I believe I can help you.
E. While I completely understand your hopelessness about the lack of improvement, not taking your medication as instructed is only going to make things worse.
Explanation: ***"I'm very sorry to hear that you feel this way about your situation. With all that you've been through, I can see why you would be so frustrated."***
- This response demonstrates **empathy** and validates the patient's feelings of hopelessness and frustration without being judgmental or dismissive.
- Acknowledging her struggles and the validity of her feelings is crucial for **building trust** and encouraging open communication in a challenging physician-patient relationship.
*"I am moved by your courage in the face of this senseless tragedy. I agree with you that further therapy is futile, and I am going to recommend that we stop further treatments."*
- Agreeing to stop all treatments prematurely is an **abandonment of professional responsibility** and a breach of the physician's ethical duty to provide care, especially without exploring all options.
- The patient's statement "No one in this system knows how to help me" expresses frustration and a desire for effective treatment, not necessarily a wish to give up entirely.
*"I am concerned that this terrible illness may be affecting your capacity to make decisions for yourself and would like to refer you to a psychiatrist."*
- Immediately questioning the patient's **decision-making capacity** and suggesting a psychiatric referral can be perceived as dismissive and invalidating of her legitimate emotional distress.
- While depression is common in MS, addressing emotional concerns before capacity assessments is preferable for rapport building.
*"I understand how your illness would make you angry. Apparently your previous doctors did not know how to help you handle your condition well, but I believe I can help you."*
- This response **criticizes previous healthcare providers**, which is unprofessional and can erode patient trust in the broader healthcare system.
- While conveying confidence is good, a premature declaration of being able to "help you" can set unrealistic expectations, especially given the patient's history of treatment failures.
*"While I completely understand your hopelessness about the lack of improvement, not taking your medication as instructed is only going to make things worse."*
- While medically true, this statement focuses on the negative consequences of non-adherence and comes across as **judgmental** rather than supportive.
- It potentially shames the patient and does not acknowledge the underlying emotional distress driving her non-adherence, which can further damage the physician-patient relationship.
Question 37: A 9-year-old boy is brought to the physician for evaluation of short stature. He is at the 5th percentile for height, 65th percentile for weight, and 95th percentile for head circumference. Examination shows midface retrusion, a bulging forehead, and flattening of the nose. The extremities are disproportionately short. He was adopted and does not know his biological parents. The patient’s condition is an example of which of the following genetic phenomena?
A. Variable expressivity
B. Anticipation
C. Codominance
D. Imprinting
E. Complete penetrance (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Complete penetrance***
- Complete penetrance means that **all individuals who inherit the disease-causing allele will express the phenotype** associated with that allele
- This patient presents with classic features of **achondroplasia**: short stature at 5th percentile, midface retrusion, bulging forehead, flattened nose, and disproportionately short extremities
- Achondroplasia is caused by a mutation in the **FGFR3 gene** (autosomal dominant) and demonstrates **nearly 100% penetrance** - virtually all individuals with the mutation manifest the characteristic skeletal abnormalities
- This is a textbook example of complete penetrance where genotype reliably predicts phenotype
*Incorrect: Variable expressivity*
- Variable expressivity refers to differences in the **severity or clinical manifestations** among individuals with the same genetic mutation
- While achondroplasia may show some variation in severity, the question describes typical features without emphasizing variability in expression
- This patient shows the classic, expected phenotype rather than unusual expressivity
*Incorrect: Anticipation*
- Anticipation occurs when a genetic disorder becomes **more severe or presents at an earlier age in successive generations**
- This is characteristic of **trinucleotide repeat disorders** (e.g., Huntington disease, myotonic dystrophy, fragile X syndrome)
- Achondroplasia does not demonstrate anticipation; most cases arise from **de novo mutations** rather than inherited mutations
*Incorrect: Codominance*
- Codominance occurs when **both alleles are fully expressed** in the heterozygous state, with neither being dominant or recessive
- Classic examples include **ABO blood groups** and **HbS in sickle cell trait**
- Achondroplasia is an **autosomal dominant** condition, not codominant
*Incorrect: Imprinting*
- Genomic imprinting refers to **parent-of-origin effects** where gene expression depends on whether the allele was inherited from mother or father
- Examples include **Prader-Willi syndrome** (paternal deletion) and **Angelman syndrome** (maternal deletion)
- Achondroplasia shows no parent-of-origin effects
Question 38: A 5-year-old boy is brought to the physician by his mother because he does not “listen to her” anymore. The mother also reports that her son cannot concentrate on any tasks lasting longer than just a few minutes. Teachers at his preschool report that the patient is more active compared to other preschoolers, frequently interrupts or bothers other children, and is very forgetful. Last year the patient was expelled from another preschool for hitting his teacher and his classmates when he did not get what he wanted and for being disruptive during classes. He was born at term via vaginal delivery and has been healthy except for 3 episodes of acute otitis media at the age of 2 years. He has met all developmental milestones. His mother has major depressive disorder and his father has Graves' disease. He appears healthy and well nourished. Examination shows that the patient does not seem to listen when spoken to directly. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in treatment?
A. Methylphenidate
B. Methimazole
C. Behavior therapy (Correct Answer)
D. Fluoxetine
E. Hearing aids
Explanation: ***Behavior therapy***
- For **preschool-aged children (ages 4-5 years)** with ADHD symptoms, **behavior therapy** is recommended as the **first-line treatment**.
- This approach focuses on teaching parents and caregivers strategies to manage challenging behaviors and improve communication, promoting positive behavioral changes in the child.
*Methylphenidate*
- **Stimulant medications** like methylphenidate are generally considered **second-line treatment** for ADHD in preschool-aged children.
- While effective, their use in this age group is typically reserved for cases where behavior therapy alone has not yielded sufficient improvement.
*Methimazole*
- **Methimazole** is an **antithyroid medication** used to treat **hyperthyroidism**, such as **Graves' disease**.
- This medication is irrelevant to the child's behavioral symptoms and is used for the father's condition.
*Fluoxetine*
- **Fluoxetine** is a **selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI)** primarily used to treat **depression** and **anxiety disorders**.
- While the mother has major depressive disorder, fluoxetine is not indicated for the child's ADHD-like symptoms.
*Hearing aids*
- Although the child has a history of recurrent **otitis media**, there is **no current evidence** of hearing impairment affecting his development or behavior.
- Furthermore, his developmental milestones were met, suggesting that any past hearing issues were transient or did not significantly impact his overall development.
Question 39: A 42-year-old male presents to your office with cellulitis on his leg secondary to a dog bite. You suspect that the causative agent is a small, facultatively anaerobic, Gram-negative rod sensitive to penicillin with clavulanate. When you ask the patient how the bite occurred, the patient explains that he had a fight with his wife earlier in the day. Frustrated with his wife, he yelled at the family pet, who bit him on the leg. Which of the following defense mechanisms was this patient employing at the time of his injury?
A. Displacement (Correct Answer)
B. Reaction formation
C. Repression
D. Regression
E. Projection
Explanation: ***Displacement***
- **Displacement** occurs when a person redirects a negative emotion from its original source to a less threatening recipient.
- The patient's anger towards his wife was **redirected** towards the dog, leading to the bite.
*Reaction formation*
- **Reaction formation** involves unconsciously replacing an unacceptable feeling or impulse with its opposite.
- For example, if the patient felt anger towards his wife but acted overly loving and solicitous towards her, that would be reaction formation.
*Repression*
- **Repression** is the unconscious exclusion of an unacceptable wish, thought, or memory from conscious awareness.
- It involves involuntarily "forgetting" traumatic events or unacceptable impulses, which is not what occurred here as the patient was aware of his anger.
*Regression*
- **Regression** involves retreating to an earlier developmental stage in response to stress or anxiety.
- An adult acting childishly or becoming dependent would be an example of regression, which is not described in this scenario.
*Projection*
- **Projection** is the unconscious attribution of one's own unacceptable feelings or thoughts to another person.
- If the patient felt anger towards his wife and accused her of being angry at him, that would be projection.
Question 40: A 42-year-old biochemist receives negative feedback from a senior associate on a recent project. He is placed on probation within the company and told that he must improve his performance on the next project to remain with the company. He is distraught and leaves his office early. When he gives an account of the episode to his wife, she says, “I'll always be proud of you no matter what because I know that you always try your best.” Later that night, he tearfully accuses her of believing that he is a failure. Which of the following psychological defense mechanisms is he demonstrating?
A. Transference
B. Displacement
C. Denial
D. Passive aggression
E. Projection (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Projection***
- The man is attributing his own **unacceptable feelings** (believing he is a failure) onto his wife, despite her supportive statement.
- He is seeing his own internal inadequacy reflected in her words, rather than accepting her comfort.
- This is projection because he interprets her supportive words as criticism, projecting his self-judgment onto her.
*Transference*
- This involves redirecting feelings and desires from one person (often a past significant figure) to a new situation or person, which is not depicted here.
- The man's reaction is specific to the current stressful situation and his own feelings, not an unconscious redirection of past relationship patterns.
*Displacement*
- This defense mechanism involves redirecting negative emotions from the original source (his boss/work) to a less threatening target (his wife).
- While this scenario might superficially resemble displacement, the key issue is that he is **misinterpreting** her supportive words as criticism, not simply redirecting anger.
- The distortion of her message indicates projection rather than pure displacement of emotion.
*Denial*
- Denial occurs when an individual refuses to acknowledge a painful reality or feeling.
- The man is clearly acknowledging his distress ("tearfully accuses") and his fear of failure, rather than refusing to accept it.
*Passive aggression*
- This involves expressing negative feelings indirectly, often through stubbornness, procrastination, or masked resistance.
- The man's accusation is direct and emotionally charged, not an indirect expression of hostility.