A 25-year-old man was referred to a neurologist for right-hand weakness. He was involved in a motor vehicle accident 2 months ago in which his right hand was injured. On examination, his grip is weak, especially in fingers 2, 4, and 5 and he is unable to adduct these fingers. Which of the following groups of muscles is most likely affected?
Q32
A 25-year-old woman comes to the physician because of pain and weakness in her right forearm and hand for several months. Two years ago, she sustained a fracture of her ulnar shaft with dislocation of the radial head that was treated surgically. Physical examination shows mild tenderness a few centimeters distal to the lateral epicondyle. She has marked weakness when attempting to extend her right middle finger. There is radial deviation on extension of the wrist. Sensation is not impaired. Which of the following nerves is most likely affected in this patient?
Q33
A 6-year-old boy is brought to the physician because he has a limp for 3 weeks. He was born at term and has been healthy since. His immunization are up-to-date; he received his 5th DTaP vaccine one month ago. He is at 50th percentile for height and weight. His temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 80/min and respirations are 28/min. When asked to stand only on his right leg, the left pelvis sags. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely cause of these findings?
Q34
A 61-year-old woman presents to the emergency room with right hand pain and numbness. She was jogging around her neighborhood when she tripped and fell on her outstretched hand 3 hours prior to presentation. She reports severe wrist pain and numbness along the medial aspect of her hand. Her past medical history is notable for osteoporosis and gastroesophageal reflux disease. She takes omeprazole. She has a 10-pack-year smoking history. She has severe tenderness to palpation diffusely around her right wrist. She has decreased sensation to light touch along the palmar medial 2 digits. Sensation to light touch is normal throughout the palm and in the lateral 3 digits. When she is asked to extend all of her fingers, her 4th and 5th fingers are hyperextended at the metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joints and flexed at the interphalangeal (IP) joints. Which of the following nerves is most likely affected in this patient?
Q35
A 45-year-old man comes to the physician for the evaluation of limited mobility of his right hand for 1 year. The patient states he has had difficulty actively extending his right 4th and 5th fingers, and despite stretching exercises, his symptoms have progressed. He has type 2 diabetes mellitus. He has been working as a mason for over 20 years. His father had similar symptoms and was treated surgically. The patient has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for 25 years and drinks 2–3 beers every day after work. His only medication is metformin. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows skin puckering near the proximal flexor crease. There are several painless palmar nodules adjacent to the distal palmar crease. Active and passive extension of the 4th and 5th digits of the right hand is limited. Which of the following is the most likely underlying mechanism of this patient's symptoms?
Q36
A 17-year-old teenager is brought to the emergency department with severe bleeding from his right hand. He was involved in a gang fight about 30 minutes ago where he received a penetrating stab wound by a sharp knife in the region of the ‘anatomical snuffbox’. A vascular surgeon is called in for consultation. Damage to which artery is most likely responsible for his excessive bleeding?
Q37
A 20-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of shoulder pain for the past week. He is a pitcher for the baseball team at his university and reports that the pain started shortly after a game. The pain is described as achy and dull, intermittent, 7/10, and is concentrated around the right shoulder area. He denies any significant medical history, trauma, fever, recent illness, or sensory changes but endorses some difficulty lifting his right arm. A physical examination demonstrates mild tenderness of the right shoulder. When the patient is instructed to resist arm depression when holding his arms parallel to the floor with the thumbs pointing down, he reports significant pain of the right shoulder. Strength is 4/5 on the right and 5/5 on the left with abduction of the upper extremities. What nerve innervates the injured muscle in this patient?
Q38
A 72-year-old woman presents to the emergency department complaining of left gluteal pain for the last 3 months. The onset of the pain was gradual and she does not recall any trauma to the region. She describes the pain as sharp and progressive, with radiation down the posterior left thigh to the level of the knee. She is a non-smoker without a history of anticoagulant therapy. Her past medical history is significant for peripheral vascular disease, hypertension, and hyperlipidemia. The physical examination focusing on the left gluteal region reveals atrophy and muscle weakness. The blood cell count and blood chemistry profile are within normal limits. The suspected embolus was confirmed with a pelvic computed tomography scan demonstrating a heterogeneously-enhanced blockage in the deep branch of the superior gluteal artery. The patient underwent an uneventful super-selective embolization and recovered well. Complete occlusion of this artery may cause muscle ischemia and atrophy that would compromise the ability to perform which of the following actions?
Q39
A 12-year-old boy presents to the emergency department after falling from his bike. He is holding his right arm tenderly and complains of pain in his right wrist. When asked, he says that he fell after his front tire hit a rock and landed hard on his right hand. Upon physical examination he is found to have tenderness on the dorsal aspect of his wrist in between the extensor pollicis longus and the extensor pollicis brevis. Given this presentation, which of the following is the most likely bone to have been fractured?
Q40
A 36-year-old woman comes to the physician because of new onset limping. For the past 2 weeks, she has had a tendency to trip over her left foot unless she lifts her left leg higher while walking. She has not had any trauma to the leg. She works as a flight attendant and wears compression stockings to work. Her vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows weakness of left foot dorsiflexion against minimal resistance. There is reduced sensation to light touch over the dorsum of the left foot, including the web space between the 1st and 2nd digit. Further evaluation is most likely to show which of the following?
Upper/Lower Limb US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 31: A 25-year-old man was referred to a neurologist for right-hand weakness. He was involved in a motor vehicle accident 2 months ago in which his right hand was injured. On examination, his grip is weak, especially in fingers 2, 4, and 5 and he is unable to adduct these fingers. Which of the following groups of muscles is most likely affected?
A. Flexor digitorum profundus
B. Palmar interossei muscles (Correct Answer)
C. Lumbrical muscles
D. Dorsal interossei muscles
E. Extensor digitorum
Explanation: ***Palmar interossei muscles***
- The inability to **adduct fingers 2, 4, and 5** (index, ring, and pinky fingers) is the key finding. The **palmar interossei** are responsible for adduction of these fingers towards the middle finger.
- Weak grip in these specific fingers indicates impairment of the muscles controlling their movement and adduction, which are primarily the palmar interossei.
*Flexor digitorum profundus*
- The **flexor digitorum profundus** primarily **flexes the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joints** of the fingers, as well as assists in flexing the proximal interphalangeal (PIP) and metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joints.
- While it contributes to grip strength, its primary role is flexion, not adduction, and weakness would typically present as difficulty with deep finger flexion rather than specific adduction issues.
*Lumbrical muscles*
- The **lumbrical muscles** **flex the metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joints** and **extend the interphalangeal (IP) joints**. This action is characteristic of the "lumbrical grip" or "writing position."
- Their primary function does not involve adduction of the fingers, and their weakness would manifest differently.
*Dorsal interossei muscles*
- The **dorsal interossei muscles** are responsible for **abduction of the fingers** (spreading them apart).
- The patient's inability to adduct fingers rules out the dorsal interossei as the primary affected group, as these muscles perform the opposite action.
*Extensor digitorum*
- The **extensor digitorum** primarily **extends the metacarpophalangeal (MCP) and interphalangeal (IP) joints** of the medial four fingers.
- Weakness in this muscle would result in difficulty extending the fingers, leading to a "dropped finger" appearance or inability to straighten the fingers, which is contrary to the described adduction deficit.
Question 32: A 25-year-old woman comes to the physician because of pain and weakness in her right forearm and hand for several months. Two years ago, she sustained a fracture of her ulnar shaft with dislocation of the radial head that was treated surgically. Physical examination shows mild tenderness a few centimeters distal to the lateral epicondyle. She has marked weakness when attempting to extend her right middle finger. There is radial deviation on extension of the wrist. Sensation is not impaired. Which of the following nerves is most likely affected in this patient?
A. Ulnar nerve
B. Musculocutaneous nerve
C. Posterior interosseous nerve (Correct Answer)
D. Superficial radial nerve
E. Anterior interosseous nerve
Explanation: ***Posterior interosseous nerve***
- The symptoms, including weakness in **middle finger extension** and **radial deviation of the wrist on extension**, are classic signs of **posterior interosseous nerve** (PIN) palsy. This nerve primarily innervates the muscles responsible for **finger and thumb extension**, as well as **extensor carpi ulnaris** (ECU) for wrist extension.
- The **radial deviation on wrist extension** occurs because the radial-sided wrist extensors (**extensor carpi radialis longus** and **brevis**) are innervated by the **radial nerve proper** before it branches into PIN, so they remain intact. With loss of ECU (ulnar-sided wrist extensor), unopposed action of ECRL and ECRB causes radial deviation.
- PIN palsy can result from **trauma** or compression, and the patient's history of a **radial head dislocation** two years prior is a significant risk factor for nerve damage in this region, particularly as PIN passes through the **supinator muscle** (arcade of Frohse). Tenderness distal to the **lateral epicondyle** also points to the region where PIN can be compressed.
*Ulnar nerve*
- An **ulnar nerve** injury would primarily cause weakness in **finger adduction and abduction** (especially the little finger and ring finger), **flexion of the ulnar half of the profundus**, and **intrinsic hand muscles**, leading to a "claw hand" deformity if severe.
- Sensation would also be affected in the **palmar and dorsal aspects of the 5th digit** and the **medial half of the 4th digit**, which is not described.
*Musculocutaneous nerve*
- The **musculocutaneous nerve** primarily innervates the **biceps brachii** and **brachialis muscles**, responsible for **elbow flexion** and **forearm supination**.
- Sensory deficits would be noted on the **lateral forearm**, none of which align with the patient's symptoms.
*Superficial radial nerve*
- The **superficial radial nerve** is purely sensory and provides sensation to the **dorsum of the hand** and parts of the thumb, index, and middle fingers.
- It does not have any motor function, so motor weakness would not be a symptom of its injury.
*Anterior interosseous nerve*
- The **anterior interosseous nerve** (AIN) is a purely motor branch of the median nerve, responsible for innervating the **flexor pollicis longus**, **flexor digitorum profundus (index and middle fingers)**, and **pronator quadratus**.
- Injury to the AIN would result in an inability to form an "OK" sign (due to impaired flexion of the thumb IP joint and index finger DIP joint) and no sensory loss.
Question 33: A 6-year-old boy is brought to the physician because he has a limp for 3 weeks. He was born at term and has been healthy since. His immunization are up-to-date; he received his 5th DTaP vaccine one month ago. He is at 50th percentile for height and weight. His temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 80/min and respirations are 28/min. When asked to stand only on his right leg, the left pelvis sags. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely cause of these findings?
A. L5 radiculopathy
B. Damage to the right common peroneal nerve
C. Damage to the left inferior gluteal nerve
D. Spinal abscess
E. Damage to the right superior gluteal nerve (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Damage to the right superior gluteal nerve***
- The patient exhibits a **positive Trendelenburg sign**, where the pelvis drops on the unsupported side (left side) when standing on the affected leg (right side). This indicates weakness of the **contralateral gluteus medius and minimus muscles**, which are innervated by the superior gluteal nerve.
- Therefore, damage to the **right superior gluteal nerve** would lead to weakness of the right gluteus medius and minimus, causing the left pelvis to sag when standing on the right leg.
*L5 radiculopathy*
- L5 radiculopathy would primarily affect muscles innervated by the L5 nerve root, including the **tibialis anterior** (foot dorsiflexion) and **extensor hallucis longus**, which would present differently (e.g., foot drop) rather than isolated gluteal weakness.
- While the gluteus medius and minimus receive some innervation from L5, isolated L5 radiculopathy is less likely to cause a pure Trendelenburg gait without other significant neurological deficits.
*Damage to the right common peroneal nerve*
- Damage to the common peroneal nerve primarily affects muscles of the **anterior and lateral compartments of the leg**, leading to **foot drop** and sensory loss over the dorsum of the foot.
- It does not directly innervate the gluteal muscles and therefore would not cause a Trendelenburg gait.
*Damage to the left inferior gluteal nerve*
- The inferior gluteal nerve innervates the **gluteus maximus**, which is responsible for hip extension.
- Damage to the left inferior gluteal nerve would cause weakness in hip extension on the left side, not the characteristic pelvic drop seen with the Trendelenburg sign (which involves the gluteus medius/minimus).
*Spinal abscess*
- A spinal abscess would typically present with severe back pain, fever, neurological deficits such as motor weakness or sensory loss, and possibly bladder/bowel dysfunction.
- While it can cause weakness, it would usually be accompanied by systemic symptoms and more diffuse neurological signs, which are absent in this case.
Question 34: A 61-year-old woman presents to the emergency room with right hand pain and numbness. She was jogging around her neighborhood when she tripped and fell on her outstretched hand 3 hours prior to presentation. She reports severe wrist pain and numbness along the medial aspect of her hand. Her past medical history is notable for osteoporosis and gastroesophageal reflux disease. She takes omeprazole. She has a 10-pack-year smoking history. She has severe tenderness to palpation diffusely around her right wrist. She has decreased sensation to light touch along the palmar medial 2 digits. Sensation to light touch is normal throughout the palm and in the lateral 3 digits. When she is asked to extend all of her fingers, her 4th and 5th fingers are hyperextended at the metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joints and flexed at the interphalangeal (IP) joints. Which of the following nerves is most likely affected in this patient?
A. Posterior interosseous nerve
B. Proximal ulnar nerve
C. Distal median nerve
D. Recurrent branch of the median nerve
E. Distal ulnar nerve (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Distal ulnar nerve***
- The patient's symptoms, including numbness along the **medial aspect of the hand** (specifically the 4th and 5th digits), and the characteristic **flexion of the 4th and 5th fingers at the interphalangeal (IP) joints** with hyperextension at the metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joints (known as **ulnar claw**), are highly indicative of distal ulnar nerve injury.
- Distal ulnar nerve injury, often seen with trauma to the wrist like a **fall on an outstretched hand**, impacts the intrinsic hand muscles it innervates, leading to this specific **deformity**.
*Posterior interosseous nerve*
- Injury to the **posterior interosseous nerve** would primarily affect extensor function in the forearm and hand, leading to a **wrist drop** or inability to extend fingers and thumb.
- It does not cause sensory deficits in the hand, as it is a **purely motor nerve**.
*Proximal ulnar nerve*
- A **proximal ulnar nerve** injury (e.g., at the elbow) would cause a more widespread motor deficit, affecting the **flexor carpi ulnaris** and **medial half of the flexor digitorum profundus**, in addition to the intrinsic hand muscles.
- Sensory loss would extend to the **dorsal medial hand**, which is not entirely consistent with this patient's presentation.
*Distal median nerve*
- Injury to the **distal median nerve** (e.g., carpal tunnel syndrome) typically causes sensory loss in the **first three and a half digits** and weakness of **thenar muscles** (e.g., opposition of the thumb).
- It would not cause the described ulnar claw deformity of the 4th and 5th fingers.
*Recurrent branch of the median nerve*
- The **recurrent branch of the median nerve** is a **purely motor nerve** that innervates the **thenar muscles** (abductor pollicis brevis, opponens pollicis, superficial head of flexor pollicis brevis).
- Damage to this nerve causes **thenar atrophy** and weakness in thumb opposition, without sensory deficits or effects on the 4th and 5th digits.
Question 35: A 45-year-old man comes to the physician for the evaluation of limited mobility of his right hand for 1 year. The patient states he has had difficulty actively extending his right 4th and 5th fingers, and despite stretching exercises, his symptoms have progressed. He has type 2 diabetes mellitus. He has been working as a mason for over 20 years. His father had similar symptoms and was treated surgically. The patient has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for 25 years and drinks 2–3 beers every day after work. His only medication is metformin. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows skin puckering near the proximal flexor crease. There are several painless palmar nodules adjacent to the distal palmar crease. Active and passive extension of the 4th and 5th digits of the right hand is limited. Which of the following is the most likely underlying mechanism of this patient's symptoms?
A. Ulnar nerve lesion
B. Ganglion cyst
C. Palmar fibromatosis (Correct Answer)
D. Tendon sheath tumor
E. Tenosynovitis
Explanation: ***Palmar fibromatosis***
- The patient's symptoms, including **painless palmar nodules**, skin puckering near the flexor crease, and inability to actively extend the 4th and 5th fingers (a classic presentation of **Dupuytren's contracture**), are indicative of palmar fibromatosis.
- Risk factors like **male sex**, **age > 40**, **smoking**, **alcohol use**, **diabetes mellitus**, and a **family history** of similar symptoms are all present in this patient, strongly supporting the diagnosis.
*Ulnar nerve lesion*
- An ulnar nerve lesion would primarily cause **sensory deficits** (numbness/tingling in the 4th and 5th digits) and **motor weakness** in intrinsic hand muscles, leading to a **claw hand deformity**, not typically the presence of palmar nodules or skin puckering.
- While it can affect the 4th and 5th digits, the mechanism of limitation would be due to muscle weakness rather than fixed contracture.
*Ganglion cyst*
- A ganglion cyst is a **fluid-filled sac** that typically presents as a smooth, mobile, sometimes painful lump, often on the dorsal aspect of the wrist or fingers.
- It does not cause progressive finger contracture, skin puckering, or diffuse palmar nodules.
*Tendon sheath tumor*
- A tendon sheath tumor (e.g., giant cell tumor of the tendon sheath) is a **benign soft tissue mass** that presents as a firm, localized nodule, usually associated with a tendon.
- While it can limit finger movement, it typically does so by mass effect and does not cause the characteristic diffuse fibrotic changes and skin puckering seen in Dupuytren's contracture.
*Tenosynovitis*
- Tenosynovitis is **inflammation of the tendon sheath**, often causing pain, swelling, and tenderness along the course of the tendon, and sometimes a "triggering" sensation with movement.
- It does not typically manifest as painless, firm palmar nodules or progressive contracture with skin puckering.
Question 36: A 17-year-old teenager is brought to the emergency department with severe bleeding from his right hand. He was involved in a gang fight about 30 minutes ago where he received a penetrating stab wound by a sharp knife in the region of the ‘anatomical snuffbox’. A vascular surgeon is called in for consultation. Damage to which artery is most likely responsible for his excessive bleeding?
A. Ulnar artery
B. Palmar carpal arch
C. Radial artery (Correct Answer)
D. Princeps pollicis artery
E. Brachial artery
Explanation: ***Radial artery***
- The **anatomical snuffbox** is formed by the tendons of the **extensor pollicis longus**, **extensor pollicis brevis**, and **abductor pollicis longus**. The floor of this region is primarily formed by the **scaphoid** and **trapezial bones**.
- The **radial artery** passes directly through the anatomical snuffbox to contribute to the deep palmar arch. A penetrating injury in this area would most likely damage the radial artery, leading to significant bleeding.
*Ulnar artery*
- The **ulnar artery** runs along the medial side of the forearm and enters the hand superficial to the **flexor retinaculum**, lateral to the ulnar nerve.
- It does not pass through the **anatomical snuffbox**.
*Palmar carpal arch*
- The **palmar carpal arches** are anastomoses between the radial and ulnar arteries on the palmar aspect of the wrist.
- While they are in the vicinity, a direct stab in the **anatomical snuffbox** specifically targets the radial artery as it traverses this area.
*Princeps pollicis artery*
- The **princeps pollicis artery** is a branch of the **radial artery** that supplies the thumb.
- While it originates from the radial artery, the primary vessel at risk within the **anatomical snuffbox** itself, causing systemic excessive bleeding, is the main trunk of the radial artery before it gives off this specific branch.
*Brachial artery*
- The **brachial artery** is located in the arm and terminates in the cubital fossa, dividing into the radial and ulnar arteries.
- It is too proximal to be injured by a stab wound to the **anatomical snuffbox** in the hand.
Question 37: A 20-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of shoulder pain for the past week. He is a pitcher for the baseball team at his university and reports that the pain started shortly after a game. The pain is described as achy and dull, intermittent, 7/10, and is concentrated around the right shoulder area. He denies any significant medical history, trauma, fever, recent illness, or sensory changes but endorses some difficulty lifting his right arm. A physical examination demonstrates mild tenderness of the right shoulder. When the patient is instructed to resist arm depression when holding his arms parallel to the floor with the thumbs pointing down, he reports significant pain of the right shoulder. Strength is 4/5 on the right and 5/5 on the left with abduction of the upper extremities. What nerve innervates the injured muscle in this patient?
A. Axillary nerve
B. Long thoracic nerve
C. Subscapular nerve
D. Accessory nerve
E. Suprascapular nerve (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Suprascapular nerve***
- The patient's symptoms, including shoulder pain exacerbated by the <b>"empty can" test</b> (resisted arm depression with thumbs down), are highly suggestive of a <b>rotator cuff injury</b>, specifically involving the <b>supraspinatus muscle</b>.
- The <b>suprascapular nerve</b> innervates both the <b>supraspinatus</b> and <b>infraspinatus muscles</b>, which are critical for shoulder abduction and external rotation.
*Axillary nerve*
- The <b>axillary nerve</b> innervates the <b>deltoid muscle</b> and the <b>teres minor muscle</b>.
- Injury to the axillary nerve or these muscles would primarily affect <b>shoulder abduction</b> beyond the initial 15 degrees and external rotation, but the "empty can" test specifically targets the supraspinatus.
*Long thoracic nerve*
- The <b>long thoracic nerve</b> innervates the <b>serratus anterior muscle</b>, which is responsible for scapular protraction and upward rotation.
- Damage to this nerve typically presents with "<b>winged scapula</b>," which is not indicated in this case.
*Subscapular nerve*
- The <b>subscapular nerve</b> innervates the <b>subscapularis muscle</b> (upper and lower subscapular nerves), which is a key internal rotator of the shoulder.
- While it's a rotator cuff muscle, injury to the subscapularis would primarily manifest as difficulty with internal rotation, not typically identified by the "empty can" test.
*Accessory nerve*
- The <b>accessory nerve (cranial nerve XI)</b> innervates the <b>sternocleidomastoid</b> and <b>trapezius muscles</b>.
- Injury to this nerve would result in difficulty shrugging the shoulders or turning the head, not pain related to rotator cuff function.
Question 38: A 72-year-old woman presents to the emergency department complaining of left gluteal pain for the last 3 months. The onset of the pain was gradual and she does not recall any trauma to the region. She describes the pain as sharp and progressive, with radiation down the posterior left thigh to the level of the knee. She is a non-smoker without a history of anticoagulant therapy. Her past medical history is significant for peripheral vascular disease, hypertension, and hyperlipidemia. The physical examination focusing on the left gluteal region reveals atrophy and muscle weakness. The blood cell count and blood chemistry profile are within normal limits. The suspected embolus was confirmed with a pelvic computed tomography scan demonstrating a heterogeneously-enhanced blockage in the deep branch of the superior gluteal artery. The patient underwent an uneventful super-selective embolization and recovered well. Complete occlusion of this artery may cause muscle ischemia and atrophy that would compromise the ability to perform which of the following actions?
A. Climbing stairs
B. Walking (Correct Answer)
C. Rise from a sitting position
D. Standing
E. Running
Explanation: ***Walking***
- The **superior gluteal artery** supplies the **gluteus medius** and **minimus** muscles, which are crucial for **pelvic stability** during the swing phase of walking.
- Atrophy and weakness of these muscles due to ischemia would directly impair the ability to maintain a level pelvis, leading to a **Trendelenburg gait** and difficulty with walking.
*Climbing stairs*
- While climbing stairs utilizes gluteal muscles, the primary movers are the **gluteus maximus** and quadriceps.
- The superior gluteal artery mainly affects gluteus medius and minimus, which are more involved in abduction and internal rotation for pelvic stability rather than the powerful hip extension needed for stair climbing.
*Rise from a sitting position*
- Rising from a sitting position primarily involves the **gluteus maximus** and quadriceps for powerful hip extension and knee extension.
- The superior gluteal artery embolus impacts the gluteus medius and minimus, which are less central to this action compared to the gluteus maximus.
*Standing*
- Standing upright requires core stability and calf muscle activity, with the gluteal muscles playing a secondary role in maintaining hip extension.
- While the gluteus medius and minimus contribute to pelvic stability, severe inability to stand would be more indicative of issues with major extensor muscles or neurological deficits.
*Running*
- Running involves a complex interplay of many muscle groups, including powerful hip extension from the gluteus maximus and strong quadriceps and hamstring action.
- While **gluteus medius** and **minimus** are important for hip abduction and stability during running, their isolated compromise (as described) would more significantly impact the more fundamental, continuous act of walking.
Question 39: A 12-year-old boy presents to the emergency department after falling from his bike. He is holding his right arm tenderly and complains of pain in his right wrist. When asked, he says that he fell after his front tire hit a rock and landed hard on his right hand. Upon physical examination he is found to have tenderness on the dorsal aspect of his wrist in between the extensor pollicis longus and the extensor pollicis brevis. Given this presentation, which of the following is the most likely bone to have been fractured?
A. Pisiform
B. Scaphoid (Correct Answer)
C. Lunate
D. Capitate
E. Trapezoid
Explanation: ***Scaphoid***
- The mechanism of injury (**fall on an outstretched hand**) and the location of tenderness (**dorsal aspect of the wrist between the extensor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis**, which corresponds to the **anatomical snuffbox**) are classic signs of a scaphoid fracture.
- The **scaphoid** is the most commonly fractured carpal bone and its fracture can lead to **avascular necrosis** due to its retrograde blood supply if not properly managed.
*Pisiform*
- Fractures of the **pisiform** are rare and typically result from direct trauma to the hypothenar eminence, not from a fall on an outstretched hand.
- Pain would be localized to the **ulnar side of the wrist**, distinct from the anatomical snuffbox.
*Lunate*
- A **lunate fracture** is rare and usually associated with high-energy trauma, often leading to **Kienbock's disease** (avascular necrosis of the lunate).
- Tenderness would be more centrally located on the dorsal aspect of the wrist, not specifically within the anatomical snuffbox.
*Capitate*
- **Capitate fractures** are uncommon and often occur in conjunction with other carpal injuries due to its central and protected position.
- Pain and tenderness would be more diffuse in the midcarpal region rather than localized to the anatomical snuffbox.
*Trapezoid*
- **Trapezoid fractures** are very rare and typically result from axial loading force through the second metacarpal.
- Tenderness would be located more distally, at the base of the **second metacarpal**, not within the anatomical snuffbox.
Question 40: A 36-year-old woman comes to the physician because of new onset limping. For the past 2 weeks, she has had a tendency to trip over her left foot unless she lifts her left leg higher while walking. She has not had any trauma to the leg. She works as a flight attendant and wears compression stockings to work. Her vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows weakness of left foot dorsiflexion against minimal resistance. There is reduced sensation to light touch over the dorsum of the left foot, including the web space between the 1st and 2nd digit. Further evaluation is most likely to show which of the following?
A. Decreased ankle jerk reflex
B. Normal foot eversion
C. Weak knee flexion
D. Normal foot inversion (Correct Answer)
E. Weak hip flexion
Explanation: ***Normal foot inversion***
- The patient's symptoms of **foot drop** and **sensory loss** on the dorsum of the foot, including the web space between the 1st and 2nd digits, point to an injury of the **common fibular (peroneal) nerve** or its deep branch.
- The **deep fibular nerve** innervates the muscles responsible for **dorsiflexion** (tibialis anterior, extensor digitorum longus, extensor hallucis longus) and provides sensation to the **first dorsal web space**. The **superficial fibular nerve** innervates muscles for **eversion** and provides sensation to the rest of the foot dorsum. The **tibial nerve** innervates muscles for **foot inversion** (tibialis posterior) and plantarflexion; because the fibular nerve is affected, **tibial nerve function**, including foot inversion, should remain intact.
*Decreased ankle jerk reflex*
- The **ankle jerk reflex** (achilles tendon reflex) primarily tests the S1 nerve root, mediated by the **tibial nerve**.
- A common fibular nerve lesion does not directly affect the tibial nerve, thus the **ankle jerk reflex** is expected to be normal.
*Normal foot eversion*
- **Foot eversion** is primarily mediated by the **peroneus longus** and **brevis muscles**, which are supplied by the **superficial fibular nerve**.
- A lesion of the common fibular nerve before its bifurcation would affect both the deep and superficial branches, leading to **weakness or absence of foot eversion**.
*Weak knee flexion*
- **Knee flexion** is primarily controlled by the **hamstring muscles** (semitendinosus, semimembranosus, biceps femoris), which are innervated by the **tibial nerve** and the **common fibular nerve's branch to the short head of the biceps femoris**.
- While the common fibular nerve does contribute to biceps femoris innervation, the primary muscles for knee flexion are supplied by the tibial nerve, and isolated common fibular nerve injury typically does not result in significant global knee flexion weakness.
*Weak hip flexion*
- **Hip flexion** is primarily performed by the **iliopsoas muscle**, which is innervated by the **femoral nerve** and direct branches from the lumbar plexus (L1-L3).
- Injury to the common fibular nerve, which is a branch of the sciatic nerve (L4-S2), does not affect the innervation of the **hip flexors**.