A 45-year-old woman presents to her primary care provider for wrist pain. She reports a 4-month history of gradually worsening pain localized to the radial side of her right wrist. The pain is dull, non-radiating, and intermittent. Her past medical history is notable for rheumatoid arthritis and von Willebrand disease. She does not smoke and drinks alcohol socially. She is active in her neighborhood’s local badminton league. Her temperature is 98.6°F (37°C), blood pressure is 125/75 mmHg, pulse is 80/min, and respirations are 18/min. On exam, she has mild tenderness to palpation in her thenar snuffbox. Nodules are located on the proximal interphalangeal joints of both hands. Ulnar deviation of the hand with her thumb clenched in her palm produces pain. Which of the following muscles in most likely affected in this patient?
Q12
A 32-year-old man comes to the physician because of episodic tingling and numbness in his right hand for the past 3 months. His symptoms are worse in the evening. There is no history of trauma. He is employed as a carpenter. He has smoked 1 pack of cigarettes daily for the past 10 years. He drinks a pint of vodka daily. He does not use illicit drugs. His vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows decreased pinch strength in the right hand. Sensations are decreased over the little finger and both the dorsal and palmar surfaces of the medial aspect of the right hand. Which of the following is the most likely site of nerve compression?
Q13
A 56-year-old man comes to the emergency department because of pain and swelling in his left leg. He has a history of pancreatic cancer and is currently receiving chemotherapy. Three weeks ago, he had a similar episode in his right arm that resolved without treatment. His temperature is 38.2°C (100.8°F). Palpation of the left leg shows a tender, cord-shaped structure medial to the medial condyle of the femur. The overlying skin is erythematous. Which of the following vessels is most likely affected?
Q14
A 64-year-old female with a long-standing history of poorly-controlled diabetes presents with 3 weeks of abnormal walking. She says that lately she has noticed that she keeps dragging the toes of her right foot while walking, and this has led to her stubbing her toes. Upon physical exam, you notice a right unilateral foot drop that is accompanied by decreased sensation in the first dorsal web space. She also walks with a pronounced steppage gait. A deficit in which of the following nerves is likely responsible for this presentation?
Q15
A 21-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department following a motor vehicle collision. She has significant pain and weakness in her right arm and hand. Physical examination shows multiple ecchymoses and tenderness in the right upper extremity. She is able to make a fist, but there is marked decrease in grip strength. An x-ray of the right upper extremity shows a midshaft humerus fracture. Which of the following structures is most likely injured?
Q16
A 35-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, at 40 weeks' gestation, presents to the hospital with contractions spaced 2 minutes apart. Her past medical history is significant for diabetes, which she has controlled with insulin during this pregnancy. Her pregnancy has otherwise been unremarkable. A baby boy is born via a spontaneous vaginal delivery. Physical examination shows he weighs 4.5 kg (9 lb), the pulse is 140/min, the respirations are 40/min, and he has good oxygen saturation on room air. His left arm is pronated and medially rotated. He is unable to move it away from his body. The infant’s right arm functions normally and he is able to move his wrists and all 10 digits. Which of the following nerve roots were most likely damaged during delivery?
Q17
A 35-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 3-month history of intermittent right lateral hip pain that radiates to the thigh. Climbing stairs and lying on his right side aggravates the pain. Examination shows tenderness to palpation over the upper lateral part of the right thigh. There is no swelling. When the patient is asked to abduct the right leg against resistance, tenderness is noted. An x-ray of the pelvis shows no abnormalities. Which of the following structures is the most likely source of this patient's pain?
Q18
A healthy 28-year-old woman at 30-weeks gestational age, has gained 35lbs since becoming pregnant. She complains of several weeks of bilateral numbness and tingling of her palms, thumbs, index and middle fingers that is worse at night. She also notes weakness gripping objects at the office. Which nerve is most likely affected?
Q19
A 43-year-old man comes to the physician because of a swelling at the back of his left knee that he first noticed 2 months ago. The swelling is not painful, but he occasionally experiences pain at the back of his knee when he is standing for prolonged periods. He also reports mild stiffness of the knee when he wakes up in the morning that disappears after a few minutes of waking up and moving about. Examination shows no local calf tenderness, but forced dorsiflexion of the foot aggravates his knee pain. There is a 3-cm, mildly tender, fixed mass at the medial side of the left popliteal fossa. The mass is more prominent on extension and disappears upon flexion of the left knee. Which of the following is the strongest predisposing risk factor for this patient's condition?
Q20
Eighteen hours after the vaginal delivery of a 2788-g (6-lb 2-oz) newborn, a 22-year-old woman has weakness and numbness of her right foot. She is unable to walk without dragging and shuffling the foot. The delivery was complicated by prolonged labor and had received epidural analgesia. There is no personal or family history of serious illness. Her temperature is 37.3°C (99.1°F), pulse is 98/min, and blood pressure is 118/70 mm Hg. Examination shows a high-stepping gait. There is weakness of right foot dorsiflexion and right ankle eversion. Sensation is decreased over the dorsum of the right foot and the anterolateral aspect of the right lower extremity below the knee. Deep tendon reflexes are 2+ bilaterally. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's symptoms?
Upper/Lower Limb US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 11: A 45-year-old woman presents to her primary care provider for wrist pain. She reports a 4-month history of gradually worsening pain localized to the radial side of her right wrist. The pain is dull, non-radiating, and intermittent. Her past medical history is notable for rheumatoid arthritis and von Willebrand disease. She does not smoke and drinks alcohol socially. She is active in her neighborhood’s local badminton league. Her temperature is 98.6°F (37°C), blood pressure is 125/75 mmHg, pulse is 80/min, and respirations are 18/min. On exam, she has mild tenderness to palpation in her thenar snuffbox. Nodules are located on the proximal interphalangeal joints of both hands. Ulnar deviation of the hand with her thumb clenched in her palm produces pain. Which of the following muscles in most likely affected in this patient?
A. Abductor pollicis longus (Correct Answer)
B. Extensor pollicis brevis
C. Flexor pollicis longus
D. Opponens pollicis
E. Adductor pollicis
Explanation: ***Abductor pollicis longus***
- The symptoms, particularly **pain in the radial wrist** exacerbated by **ulnar deviation of the hand with the thumb clenched in the palm** (a positive **Finkelstein's test**), are classic for **De Quervain's tenosynovitis**.
- **De Quervain's tenosynovitis** specifically affects the tendons within the **first dorsal compartment of the wrist**, which contains the **abductor pollicis longus** and **extensor pollicis brevis** tendons.
- The **abductor pollicis longus is the PRIMARY and MOST COMMONLY affected muscle** in De Quervain's tenosynovitis, as it is the larger tendon and bears greater mechanical stress from repetitive thumb and wrist movements (such as in badminton).
- While both tendons share the same synovial sheath and can be inflamed, **APL is considered the principal muscle affected** in this condition.
*Extensor pollicis brevis*
- This muscle is also involved in **De Quervain's tenosynovitis** alongside the **abductor pollicis longus**, as both tendons share the same synovial sheath in the first dorsal compartment.
- However, the **abductor pollicis longus is more commonly and primarily affected**, making it the better answer when asked which muscle is "most likely" involved.
- In some cases, EPB may not be involved at all, whereas APL is consistently affected.
*Flexor pollicis longus*
- This muscle is located on the **volar (palm side)** aspect of the forearm and hand and is primarily responsible for **flexion of the thumb's interphalangeal joint**.
- Involvement of this muscle would present with pain on the palmar side of the wrist or thumb, and potentially **trigger thumb**, not radial-sided wrist pain with positive Finkelstein's test.
*Opponens pollicis*
- This muscle is located deep in the thenar eminence and is responsible for **opposition of the thumb**, bringing it across the palm to touch other fingers.
- Isolated injury or inflammation of the **opponens pollicis** would typically cause pain and weakness with thumb opposition, not the characteristic radial wrist pain with positive Finkelstein's test.
*Adductor pollicis*
- This muscle is responsible for **adduction of the thumb**, pulling it towards the palm, and is located in the intrinsic muscles of the hand.
- Pain related to the **adductor pollicis** would be felt more deeply in the thenar web space or palm, and would not be exacerbated by the Finkelstein maneuver eliciting radial wrist pain.
Question 12: A 32-year-old man comes to the physician because of episodic tingling and numbness in his right hand for the past 3 months. His symptoms are worse in the evening. There is no history of trauma. He is employed as a carpenter. He has smoked 1 pack of cigarettes daily for the past 10 years. He drinks a pint of vodka daily. He does not use illicit drugs. His vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows decreased pinch strength in the right hand. Sensations are decreased over the little finger and both the dorsal and palmar surfaces of the medial aspect of the right hand. Which of the following is the most likely site of nerve compression?
A. Guyon canal
B. Quadrilateral space
C. Carpal tunnel
D. Cubital tunnel (Correct Answer)
E. Radial groove
Explanation: ***Cubital tunnel***
- Compression of the **ulnar nerve** at the cubital tunnel typically presents with paresthesias and numbness in the **little finger** and medial half of the ring finger, along with weakness in **intrinsic hand muscles** (decreased pinch strength).
- The carpenter's occupation may involve repetitive elbow flexion, exacerbating **ulnar nerve compression** at the elbow.
*Guyon canal*
- Compression in the **Guyon canal** affects the **ulnar nerve** at the wrist.
- While it can cause similar sensory and motor deficits in the hand, the cubital tunnel is a more common site of compression for the ulnar nerve, and symptoms worsen with **elbow flexion**.
*Carpal tunnel*
- **Carpal tunnel syndrome** involves compression of the **median nerve** and causes numbness and tingling in the thumb, index, middle, and radial half of the ring finger, sparing the little finger.
- It does not cause decreased sensation over the **little finger**.
*Quadrilateral space*
- **Quadrilateral space syndrome** involves compression of the **axillary nerve** and presents with shoulder pain, paresthesias over the lateral shoulder, and weakness in abduction and external rotation.
- This does not align with the patient's hand symptoms.
*Radial groove*
- Compression of the **radial nerve** in the radial groove (spiral groove) of the humerus typically results in **wrist drop**, weakness in forearm and hand extensors, and sensory loss over the dorsum of the hand, not the ulnar distribution described.
- This is not consistent with the patient's sensory and motor deficits.
Question 13: A 56-year-old man comes to the emergency department because of pain and swelling in his left leg. He has a history of pancreatic cancer and is currently receiving chemotherapy. Three weeks ago, he had a similar episode in his right arm that resolved without treatment. His temperature is 38.2°C (100.8°F). Palpation of the left leg shows a tender, cord-shaped structure medial to the medial condyle of the femur. The overlying skin is erythematous. Which of the following vessels is most likely affected?
A. Superficial femoral artery
B. External iliac vein
C. Anterior tibial artery
D. Great saphenous vein (Correct Answer)
E. Deep femoral vein
Explanation: ***Great saphenous vein***
- The description of a **tender, cord-shaped structure** with overlying **erythema** medial to the medial condyle is classic for **superficial thrombophlebitis** affecting the great saphenous vein.
- The history of **pancreatic cancer** and recurrent migratory thrombophlebitis (similar episode in the right arm) points towards **Trousseau's sign**, which is often associated with malignancy.
*Superficial femoral artery*
- An affected artery would typically present with symptoms of **ischemia**, such as **pain, pallor, pulselessness, paresthesia, and paralysis**, rather than a tender, cord-like structure.
- While it runs in the thigh, its location deep within the adductor canal and its arterial nature make it an unlikely candidate for the described superficial signs.
*External iliac vein*
- This vein is located deep within the pelvis and upper thigh, making it impossible to palpate superficially as a "cord-shaped structure."
- Thrombosis here would typically cause significant **limb swelling** and potentially a **deep venous thrombosis (DVT)**, not superficial thrombophlebitis.
*Anterior tibial artery*
- This artery is located in the anterior compartment of the lower leg, supplying the foot, and runs deep.
- Involvement would cause **distal ischemia** and not present as a palpable cord medial to the medial condyle of the femur.
*Deep femoral vein*
- As a deep vein, it would not manifest as a superficial, palpable cord and is a common site for DVT.
- Thrombosis in this vein would typically cause more diffuse swelling of the upper thigh and would not be associated with a superficial erythematous cord.
Question 14: A 64-year-old female with a long-standing history of poorly-controlled diabetes presents with 3 weeks of abnormal walking. She says that lately she has noticed that she keeps dragging the toes of her right foot while walking, and this has led to her stubbing her toes. Upon physical exam, you notice a right unilateral foot drop that is accompanied by decreased sensation in the first dorsal web space. She also walks with a pronounced steppage gait. A deficit in which of the following nerves is likely responsible for this presentation?
A. Superficial peroneal nerve
B. Saphenous nerve
C. Sural nerve
D. Tibial nerve
E. Deep peroneal nerve (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Deep peroneal nerve***
- The **deep peroneal nerve** (also known as the deep fibular nerve) innervates the muscles responsible for **dorsiflexion** of the foot (tibialis anterior, extensor digitorum longus, extensor hallucis longus, and fibularis tertius). Damage to this nerve results in **foot drop** and the inability to dorsiflex the foot.
- It also provides sensory innervation to the **first dorsal web space** (between the great toe and the second toe), which is consistent with the patient's decreased sensation in this area. The **steppage gait** is a compensatory mechanism to avoid dragging the foot.
*Superficial peroneal nerve*
- The **superficial peroneal nerve** (superficial fibular nerve) primarily innervates the **peroneal muscles** (fibularis longus and brevis) responsible for **eversion** of the foot.
- Sensory innervation is provided to the **dorsum of the foot**, except for the first dorsal web space and the lateral aspect of the heel. Damage would cause difficulty with eversion, not foot drop.
*Saphenous nerve*
- The **saphenous nerve** is a pure sensory nerve that supplies sensation to the **medial side of the leg** and foot.
- It does not innervate any muscles, so it would not be implicated in a foot drop or motor deficit.
*Sural nerve*
- The **sural nerve** is a pure sensory nerve that provides sensation to the **posterolateral aspect of the leg**, the **lateral malleolus**, and the **lateral side of the foot** and little toe.
- Like the saphenous nerve, it has no motor function and would not cause foot drop.
*Tibial nerve*
- The **tibial nerve** innervates the muscles of the **posterior compartment of the leg** and the intrinsic muscles of the foot. These muscles are responsible for **plantarflexion** and **inversion** of the foot.
- Damage to the tibial nerve would result in difficulty with plantarflexion and toe flexion, leading to a calcaneal gait, not foot drop.
Question 15: A 21-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department following a motor vehicle collision. She has significant pain and weakness in her right arm and hand. Physical examination shows multiple ecchymoses and tenderness in the right upper extremity. She is able to make a fist, but there is marked decrease in grip strength. An x-ray of the right upper extremity shows a midshaft humerus fracture. Which of the following structures is most likely injured?
A. Radial artery
B. Median nerve
C. Ulnar nerve
D. Radial nerve (Correct Answer)
E. Brachial artery
Explanation: ***Radial nerve***
- A **midshaft humerus fracture** is classically associated with injury to the **radial nerve** because of its close proximity to the humerus in the **spiral groove**.
- Injury to the radial nerve causes weakness in **wrist extension** and **grip strength** (due to inability to properly position the wrist), which aligns with the patient's presentation.
*Radial artery*
- The radial artery is located in the forearm and is not typically injured in a **midshaft humerus fracture**.
- Injury to this artery would primarily affect distal perfusion and would not directly cause weakness in grip strength without other neurological signs.
*Median nerve*
- The median nerve provides sensation to the first three and a half digits and innervates most of the **flexor muscles** in the forearm and some hand muscles, including the thenar eminence.
- While it can be injured in humeral fractures, a midshaft fracture is less likely to affect it compared to the radial nerve, and median nerve injury would present with different motor deficits (e.g., **"hand of benediction"**).
*Ulnar nerve*
- The ulnar nerve runs posterior to the medial epicondyle and then along the ulnar side of the forearm and hand, innervating intrinsic hand muscles and sensation to the medial 1.5 digits.
- It is more commonly injured in **distal humeral fractures** (e.g., supracondylar fractures) or at the elbow, and injury would result in deficits like **claw hand deformity**, which are not described.
*Brachial artery*
- The brachial artery runs along the medial aspect of the humerus but is commonly injured in **supracondylar fractures** of the distal humerus, not typically midshaft fractures.
- Injury to the brachial artery would present with signs of **ischemia**, such as pallor, pulselessness, sensory loss, and severe pain, which are not the primary complaints here.
Question 16: A 35-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, at 40 weeks' gestation, presents to the hospital with contractions spaced 2 minutes apart. Her past medical history is significant for diabetes, which she has controlled with insulin during this pregnancy. Her pregnancy has otherwise been unremarkable. A baby boy is born via a spontaneous vaginal delivery. Physical examination shows he weighs 4.5 kg (9 lb), the pulse is 140/min, the respirations are 40/min, and he has good oxygen saturation on room air. His left arm is pronated and medially rotated. He is unable to move it away from his body. The infant’s right arm functions normally and he is able to move his wrists and all 10 digits. Which of the following nerve roots were most likely damaged during delivery?
A. C4 and C5
B. C7 and C8
C. C5 and C6 (Correct Answer)
D. C8 and T1
E. C6 and C7
Explanation: ***C5 and C6***
- The presentation of the infant's left arm being **pronated**, **medially rotated**, and unable to be moved away from the body is characteristic of **Erb-Duchenne palsy** (also called "waiter's tip" deformity).
- This condition results from damage to the **upper trunk of the brachial plexus**, specifically involving the **C5 and C6 nerve roots**.
- These roots innervate muscles responsible for **shoulder abduction** (deltoid, supraspinatus), **external rotation** (infraspinatus), and **elbow flexion/supination** (biceps brachii).
- The preserved wrist and digit function confirms the injury is limited to the upper trunk, sparing C7-T1.
*C4 and C5*
- While C5 is involved in Erb's palsy, the **C4 root** primarily contributes to the **phrenic nerve** (diaphragm innervation) and provides sensation to the neck and shoulder region.
- C4 does not significantly contribute to the brachial plexus motor function, so damage to C4 would not explain the shoulder and elbow deficits observed.
*C7 and C8*
- Damage to **C7 and C8** would primarily affect **wrist extension** (C7) and **finger flexion** (C8), not the shoulder abduction and elbow flexion deficits seen here.
- This pattern would be inconsistent with Erb's palsy and more suggestive of middle-to-lower trunk injury.
*C8 and T1*
- Injury to **C8 and T1** nerve roots causes **Klumpke's palsy**, affecting the **intrinsic hand muscles** and wrist flexors, leading to a "claw hand" deformity.
- The infant's preserved ability to move all wrists and digits rules out C8-T1 injury, as this would severely impair hand function and potentially cause **Horner's syndrome** (if T1 is involved).
*C6 and C7*
- While **C6** is involved in Erb's palsy, adding **C7** damage would extend the injury to affect **wrist extensors** (extensor carpi radialis) and **triceps** (elbow extension).
- The clinical presentation described is most consistent with isolated upper trunk (C5-C6) injury, not extended involvement of C7.
Question 17: A 35-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 3-month history of intermittent right lateral hip pain that radiates to the thigh. Climbing stairs and lying on his right side aggravates the pain. Examination shows tenderness to palpation over the upper lateral part of the right thigh. There is no swelling. When the patient is asked to abduct the right leg against resistance, tenderness is noted. An x-ray of the pelvis shows no abnormalities. Which of the following structures is the most likely source of this patient's pain?
A. Femoral head
B. Greater trochanter (Correct Answer)
C. Iliotibial band
D. Acetabulum
E. Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve
Explanation: ***Greater trochanter***
- The patient's symptoms of **intermittent right lateral hip pain** radiating to the thigh, aggravated by climbing stairs and lying on the affected side, and tenderness over the **upper lateral part of the right thigh** are classic signs of **trochanteric bursitis**.
- Pain with **resisted abduction** further points to inflammation of the **gluteus medius** or its associated bursa at the greater trochanter.
*Femoral head*
- Pain originating from the **femoral head** typically presents as deep, generalized groin or hip joint pain, often exacerbated by weight-bearing activities, and may be associated with limited range of motion in multiple planes.
- An **x-ray showing no abnormalities** makes femoral head issues like avascular necrosis or significant arthritis less likely.
*Iliotibial band*
- **Iliotibial band (ITB) syndrome** usually causes pain along the **lateral aspect of the knee**, particularly in runners or cyclists, due to friction over the lateral femoral epicondyle.
- While the ITB traverses the lateral thigh, the primary point of tenderness and mechanism of pain in this case (tenderness over the upper lateral thigh, pain with resisted abduction) is not typical for ITB syndrome affecting the knee.
*Acetabulum*
- Pain from the **acetabulum** would generally be deep within the hip joint, similar to femoral head issues, and often accompanied by a **limited range of motion** or clicking/locking sensations, and would be associated with intra-articular pathology.
- An **unremarkable X-ray** and the specific finding of **tenderness over the lateral thigh** make acetabular pathology less likely.
*Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve*
- Entrapment of the **lateral femoral cutaneous nerve** (meralgia paresthetica) typically causes **numbness, burning, or tingling** on the anterolateral thigh, not primarily sharp, intermittent pain aggravated by movement and palpation in the manner described.
- While pain can be present, the absence of **paresthesias** and the mechanical nature of the pain (aggravated by resisted abduction) make nerve entrapment less probable.
Question 18: A healthy 28-year-old woman at 30-weeks gestational age, has gained 35lbs since becoming pregnant. She complains of several weeks of bilateral numbness and tingling of her palms, thumbs, index and middle fingers that is worse at night. She also notes weakness gripping objects at the office. Which nerve is most likely affected?
A. Anterior interosseous nerve
B. Median nerve (Correct Answer)
C. Axillary nerve
D. Radial nerve
E. Ulnar nerve
Explanation: ***Median nerve***
- The symptoms of **numbness and tingling in the palms, thumb, index, and middle fingers**, especially worsening at night, are classic for **carpal tunnel syndrome**. The **median nerve** is compressed within the carpal tunnel.
- The patient's pregnancy and weight gain are **risk factors** for carpal tunnel syndrome due to fluid retention and swelling, which can increase pressure on the median nerve.
*Anterior interosseous nerve*
- This nerve is a purely **motor branch of the median nerve** and its compression would primarily cause weakness in specific forearm muscles, affecting the **pincer grasp** (flexion of the thumb and index finger).
- It does not typically cause **sensory symptoms** in the palm or fingers, which are prominent in this patient's presentation.
*Axillary nerve*
- The **axillary nerve** innervates the **deltoid muscle** and provides sensation over the lateral shoulder.
- Injury would result in **shoulder weakness** (especially abduction) and sensory loss over the lateral arm, not hand or finger symptoms.
*Radial nerve*
- Compression or injury to the **radial nerve** typically causes **wrist drop** (inability to extend the wrist and fingers) and sensory loss over the posterior forearm and dorsal hand.
- It does not innervate the palm, thumb, or index finger in the distribution described by the patient.
*Ulnar nerve*
- The **ulnar nerve** innervates the **little finger and half of the ring finger**, as well as intrinsic hand muscles.
- Compression would cause numbness and tingling in that distribution, along with weakness in handgrip, but not in the thumb, index, and middle fingers.
Question 19: A 43-year-old man comes to the physician because of a swelling at the back of his left knee that he first noticed 2 months ago. The swelling is not painful, but he occasionally experiences pain at the back of his knee when he is standing for prolonged periods. He also reports mild stiffness of the knee when he wakes up in the morning that disappears after a few minutes of waking up and moving about. Examination shows no local calf tenderness, but forced dorsiflexion of the foot aggravates his knee pain. There is a 3-cm, mildly tender, fixed mass at the medial side of the left popliteal fossa. The mass is more prominent on extension and disappears upon flexion of the left knee. Which of the following is the strongest predisposing risk factor for this patient's condition?
A. Family history of multiple lipomatosis
B. History of meniscal tear (Correct Answer)
C. Purine-rich diet
D. Mutation of coagulation factor V gene
E. Varicose veins
Explanation: ***History of meniscal tear***
- The patient's presentation with a **non-painful popliteal swelling**, morning stiffness, and pain with prolonged standing is highly suggestive of a **Baker's cyst**.
- A Baker's cyst, also known as a popliteal cyst, is typically a secondary condition arising from underlying knee joint pathology, with a **meniscal tear** being a very common predisposing factor due to increased intra-articular pressure and fluid accumulation.
*Family history of multiple lipomatosis*
- **Lipomatosis** involves the presence of multiple benign fatty tumors (**lipomas**) and is not directly related to the formation of a Baker's cyst, which is a fluid-filled sac.
- While lipomas can occur, they do not cause the specific symptoms of knee stiffness, pain with prolonged standing, or the characteristic changes in prominence with knee flexion/extension seen in this case.
*Purine-rich diet*
- A **purine-rich diet** is a risk factor for **gout**, a form of inflammatory arthritis caused by uric acid crystal deposition.
- Gout typically presents with acute, painful joint inflammation and swelling, which is distinct from the described painless popliteal swelling and mild stiffness.
*Mutation of coagulation factor V gene*
- A mutation in the **coagulation factor V gene** (e.g., Factor V Leiden) increases the risk of **thrombosis** and **deep vein thrombosis (DVT)**.
- While a DVT can cause calf swelling and pain, the mass described is fixed, more prominent on extension, and disappears on flexion, which is characteristic of a Baker's cyst, not a DVT.
*Varicose veins*
- **Varicose veins** are dilated and tortuous superficial veins, often found in the lower extremities, and are associated with chronic venous insufficiency.
- Varicose veins do not cause the formation of a popliteal cyst or the specific knee mechanical symptoms described; they present as visible dilated veins and leg discomfort, sometimes swelling, but not a distinct fixed mass in the popliteal fossa that changes with knee position.
Question 20: Eighteen hours after the vaginal delivery of a 2788-g (6-lb 2-oz) newborn, a 22-year-old woman has weakness and numbness of her right foot. She is unable to walk without dragging and shuffling the foot. The delivery was complicated by prolonged labor and had received epidural analgesia. There is no personal or family history of serious illness. Her temperature is 37.3°C (99.1°F), pulse is 98/min, and blood pressure is 118/70 mm Hg. Examination shows a high-stepping gait. There is weakness of right foot dorsiflexion and right ankle eversion. Sensation is decreased over the dorsum of the right foot and the anterolateral aspect of the right lower extremity below the knee. Deep tendon reflexes are 2+ bilaterally. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's symptoms?
A. Postpartum angiopathy
B. Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve injury
C. Compression of the common peroneal nerve (Correct Answer)
D. Effect of epidural anesthesia
E. L2-L4 radiculopathy
Explanation: ***Compression of the common peroneal nerve***
- The patient's symptoms, including **right foot dorsiflexion weakness** (**foot drop**), **ankle eversion weakness**, decreased sensation over the **dorsum of the right foot** and **anterolateral aspect of the right lower leg**, and a **high-stepping gait**, are classic signs of common peroneal nerve injury.
- **Prolonged labor** in the **dorsal lithotomy position** can lead to compression of the common peroneal nerve as it wraps around the **head of the fibula**, causing temporary or permanent damage.
*Postpartum angiopathy*
- This condition involves **vascular inflammation** or occlusion, which would typically present with more diffuse or severe neurological deficits, potentially involving multiple limbs or cranial nerves.
- It is not specifically associated with isolated common peroneal nerve symptoms.
*Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve injury*
- Injury to the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve (**meralgia paresthetica**) causes numbness and pain specifically over the **lateral thigh**.
- It does not cause **foot drop**, ankle eversion weakness, or sensory deficits in the foot or anterolateral leg.
*Effect of epidural anesthesia*
- While epidural anesthesia can cause transient leg weakness or numbness, these effects are usually **bilateral** and resolve within a few hours of discontinuing the anesthesia.
- The patient's symptoms are **unilateral** and persistent 18 hours postpartum, making direct epidural effect less likely as the primary cause.
*L2-L4 radiculopathy*
- **L2-L4 radiculopathy** would primarily affect hip flexion, knee extension, and sensation over the anterior thigh, potentially causing quadriceps weakness and loss of the patellar reflex.
- It would not typically result in isolated **foot drop**, ankle eversion weakness, or the specific sensory distribution associated with common peroneal nerve injury.