Vascular Surgery — MCQs

Vascular Surgery Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 311: All are done for a case of deep vein thrombosis except?

A. Thrombolytic therapy
B. Bandage
C. Heparin
D. Bed rest (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ### Explanation The management of Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT) has evolved significantly. Traditionally, **bed rest** was advised due to the theoretical fear that muscle contraction might dislodge a thrombus, leading to Pulmonary Embolism (PE). However, modern evidence and clinical guidelines (such as ACCP) now advocate for **early ambulation** as soon as effective anticoagulation is initiated. Early mobilization reduces pain, limits the extension of the thrombus, and decreases the risk of Post-Thrombotic Syndrome (PTS) without increasing the risk of PE. **Analysis of Options:** * **Bed rest (Correct Answer):** It is no longer recommended. Prolonged immobility leads to venous stasis, which is a component of Virchow’s Triad, potentially worsening the prothrombotic state. * **Thrombolytic therapy:** Indicated in specific "high-burden" cases, such as massive iliofemoral DVT with a high risk of gangrene (Phlegmasia Cerulea Dolens) or when there is a high risk of limb loss. * **Bandage (Compression):** Elastic compression stockings or bandages are used to reduce edema and are a cornerstone in preventing Post-Thrombotic Syndrome. * **Heparin:** This is the standard initial treatment. Low Molecular Weight Heparin (LMWH) or Unfractionated Heparin (UFH) provides immediate anticoagulation to prevent clot propagation while waiting for oral anticoagulants (like Warfarin or DOACs) to reach therapeutic levels. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Virchow’s Triad:** Stasis, Hypercoagulability, and Endothelial injury. * **Investigation of Choice:** Duplex Ultrasonography (highly sensitive and specific). * **Gold Standard Investigation:** Contrast Venography (rarely used now). * **Phlegmasia Alba Dolens:** "Milk leg" (early stage, pale limb). * **Phlegmasia Cerulea Dolens:** "Blue leg" (severe stage, cyanotic, precursor to gangrene).

Question 312: Buerger's angle that indicates severe ischemia is:

A. 120°
B. 80°
C. 60°
D. 30° (Correct Answer)

Explanation: **Explanation:** **Buerger’s Angle (Angle of Circulatory Deficiency)** is a clinical test used to assess the severity of peripheral arterial disease (PAD), particularly in Buerger’s disease (Thromboangiitis Obliterans). 1. **Why 30° is Correct:** The test involves elevating the patient's leg while they are supine. In a healthy individual, the limb remains pink even at 90°. In patients with arterial insufficiency, the limb becomes pale (cadaveric pallor) upon elevation. **Buerger’s angle < 30°** indicates **severe ischemia**, as the arterial pressure is insufficient to overcome gravity even at a low elevation. An angle between 30°–60° suggests moderate ischemia. 2. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **A (120°) & B (80°):** These angles are physiologically impossible or irrelevant for this test. A normal limb should maintain its color at 90°; any angle above 90° is not part of the standard diagnostic criteria. * **C (60°):** While an angle of 60° indicates impaired circulation (mild to moderate ischemia), it does not signify the "severe" threshold required by the question. 3. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Buerger’s Test:** Consists of two phases—**Elevation** (looking for pallor) and **Dependency** (looking for "sunset" or reactive hyperemia/rubor). * **Capillary Refill Time (CRT):** Normal is < 2 seconds. Prolonged CRT is a sign of poor perfusion. * **Buerger’s Disease (TAO):** Classically affects young male smokers; involves small and medium-sized vessels; characterized by "corkscrew collaterals" on angiography. * **Intermittent Claudication:** The earliest symptom of PAD, whereas rest pain and a low Buerger's angle indicate critical limb ischemia.

Question 313: What is the immediate management for varicose veins?

A. Subfacial ligation of incompetent perforators
B. Radiofrequency ablation (RFA)
C. Compression and elevation of the leg (Correct Answer)
D. Color Doppler ultrasound

Explanation: **Explanation:** The management of varicose veins follows a stepwise approach, starting from conservative measures to minimally invasive procedures and finally surgery. **Why Option C is Correct:** The **immediate management** (first-line/initial step) for any patient presenting with symptomatic varicose veins is **conservative therapy**, which includes **compression stockings and leg elevation**. Compression therapy counteracts venous hypertension by assisting the calf muscle pump and reducing reflux, while elevation uses gravity to facilitate venous return. In clinical practice and exams, "immediate" or "initial" management refers to the least invasive, stabilizing step before proceeding to definitive interventions. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Option A (Subfascial ligation):** This is a surgical procedure (e.g., SEPS) used for incompetent perforators, typically reserved for advanced chronic venous insufficiency (CEAP class 4-6) after conservative management fails. * **Option B (Radiofrequency Ablation):** RFA is currently the **gold standard/treatment of choice** for GSV (Great Saphenous Vein) insufficiency. However, it is a definitive treatment, not the "immediate" first step. * **Option D (Color Doppler):** This is the **investigation of choice** to map the anatomy and identify sites of reflux. While it is done early in the workup, it is a diagnostic tool, not a management/treatment step. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Gold Standard Investigation:** Duplex Ultrasound (Color Doppler). * **Treatment of Choice (TOC):** Endovenous Thermal Ablation (RFA or Laser). * **Trendelenburg Test:** Used to differentiate between saphenofemoral incompetence and perforator incompetence. * **CEAP Classification:** Used to grade the severity of chronic venous disease (C0 to C6). * **Brodie-Trendelenburg Test:** Specifically identifies the site of valvular incompetence.

Question 314: Compression therapy for varicose veins results in all of the following except:

A. Diverts blood towards deep veins
B. Prevents outward flow of blood in perforating veins
C. Decreases venous elasticity (Correct Answer)
D. Improves efficacy of calf muscle pump

Explanation: **Explanation:** Compression therapy (using graduated compression stockings or bandages) is a cornerstone in the management of chronic venous insufficiency and varicose veins. It works by applying external pressure to the limb, which counteracts the high intravenous pressure. **Why Option C is the Correct Answer:** Compression therapy **does not decrease venous elasticity**. Elasticity is an intrinsic structural property of the vein wall (determined by collagen and elastin fibers). While compression reduces the diameter of the vein and prevents further stretching (distension), it does not alter the histological elasticity of the vessel wall itself. In fact, by preventing chronic over-distension, it helps preserve what remains of the vessel's structural integrity. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Option A:** By compressing the superficial veins, blood is forced into the **deep venous system**, which is better equipped to handle volume due to the surrounding fascia and muscle. * **Option B:** External pressure helps approximate the valves in the **perforating veins**, preventing the pathological "outward" flow of blood from the deep to the superficial system. * **Option D:** Compression reduces the resting diameter of the veins. According to Laplace’s Law, this reduction in diameter allows the **calf muscle pump** to work more efficiently, increasing the velocity of venous return toward the heart. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Graduated Pressure:** Pressure is highest at the ankle (e.g., 20–30 mmHg) and decreases proximally to facilitate upward flow. * **Contraindication:** Always check the **Ankle-Brachial Index (ABI)** before starting compression. It is contraindicated if ABI < 0.5 or in cases of severe peripheral arterial disease. * **CEAP Classification:** Compression is indicated for symptomatic relief in almost all stages of CEAP (C2–C6).

Question 315: What is the most common complication of a prosthetic valve?

A. Embolism (Correct Answer)
B. Subacute bacterial endocarditis
C. Rejection
D. Infarction

Explanation: **Explanation:** The most common complication associated with prosthetic heart valves is **thromboembolism**. This occurs because prosthetic materials (especially mechanical valves) are inherently thrombogenic. The artificial surface triggers the coagulation cascade and platelet activation, leading to the formation of microthrombi. If these thrombi dislodge, they can cause systemic embolization, most commonly manifesting as a stroke or transient ischemic attack (TIA). To mitigate this risk, patients with mechanical valves require lifelong anticoagulation with warfarin. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **B. Subacute Bacterial Endocarditis (SBE):** While prosthetic valve endocarditis (PVE) is a serious and feared complication, its incidence is lower than that of embolic events. It occurs in approximately 1–6% of patients. * **C. Rejection:** Unlike solid organ transplants (kidney, liver), prosthetic valves do not trigger a cell-mediated immune "rejection" because they are made of inert materials (mechanical) or treated biological tissues (bioprosthetic) that lack immunogenic viable cells. * **D. Infarction:** Myocardial infarction can occur as a secondary result of a coronary embolism from the valve, but "embolism" is the primary pathological process and the broader, more frequent complication. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Mechanical vs. Bioprosthetic:** Mechanical valves have a higher risk of **thromboembolism** but superior durability. Bioprosthetic valves (bovine/porcine) have a lower embolic risk but are prone to **structural valve degeneration (SVD)** and calcification. * **Anticoagulation:** The target INR for mechanical mitral valves is typically 2.5–3.5, while for aortic valves, it is 2.0–3.0. * **Early vs. Late PVE:** Endocarditis within 12 months of surgery is usually due to *Staphylococcus epidermidis*; after 12 months, it resembles native valve endocarditis (*Streptococcus* species).

Question 316: Calcium dobesilate is used in the treatment of varicose veins because of which of the following mechanisms, except:

A. Reduces edema
B. Improves macrophage-mediated proteolysis
C. Improves lymph flow
D. Increases release of matrix metalloproteinases (MMPs) (Correct Answer)

Explanation: **Explanation:** Calcium dobesilate is a **veno-tonic drug** (phlebotropic agent) used in the management of Chronic Venous Insufficiency (CVI) and varicose veins. Its primary therapeutic goal is to stabilize capillary walls and improve microcirculation. **Why Option D is the Correct Answer (The "Except"):** Calcium dobesilate actually **inhibits** or downregulates the activity of **Matrix Metalloproteinases (MMPs)**. In varicose veins, overactive MMPs lead to the degradation of the extracellular matrix (collagen and elastin) in the venous wall, causing vein wall weakening and dilation. By inhibiting MMPs, Calcium dobesilate helps preserve the structural integrity of the venous wall. Therefore, "increasing" their release is pharmacologically incorrect. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **A. Reduces edema:** It decreases capillary hyperpermeability by strengthening the basement membrane and reducing gaps between endothelial cells, thereby reducing fluid leakage into tissues. * **B. Improves macrophage-mediated proteolysis:** It stimulates macrophages to break down accumulated interstitial proteins, which helps resolve the "high-protein edema" characteristic of chronic venous stasis. * **C. Improves lymph flow:** It enhances lymphatic drainage and increases the frequency of lymphatic contractions, assisting in the clearance of interstitial fluid. **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Mechanism of Action:** Calcium dobesilate acts by increasing Nitric Oxide (NO) synthesis (vasodilation/anti-platelet) and decreasing endothelin-1 levels. * **Other Indications:** It is also widely used in **Diabetic Retinopathy** to reduce capillary fragility and exudates. * **Side Effects:** Generally well-tolerated, but can rarely cause **agranulocytosis** (important for "all except" side effect questions). * **MMP Role:** Remember, MMP-2 and MMP-9 are specifically implicated in the remodeling and weakening of varicose vein walls.

Question 317: What is the most common symptom associated with thoracic outlet syndrome?

A. Intermittent claudication
B. Pain in radial distribution
C. Pain in ulnar distribution (Correct Answer)
D. Gangrene

Explanation: **Explanation:** Thoracic Outlet Syndrome (TOS) involves the compression of the neurovascular bundle (brachial plexus, subclavian artery, or subclavian vein) as it passes through the thoracic outlet. **Why the correct answer is right:** Over 95% of TOS cases are **neurogenic**, involving compression of the brachial plexus. Specifically, the **lower trunk (C8-T1)** is most frequently affected because it rests directly on the first rib or a cervical rib. Since the C8-T1 nerve roots form the **ulnar nerve**, the most common symptom is pain, paresthesia, or numbness along the **ulnar distribution** (medial aspect of the arm, forearm, and the 4th and 5th digits). **Analysis of incorrect options:** * **A. Intermittent claudication:** This is a symptom of arterial TOS (compression of the subclavian artery), which accounts for <1% of cases. While it occurs, it is far less common than neurogenic symptoms. * **B. Pain in radial distribution:** The radial nerve is derived primarily from the upper and middle trunks (C5-C7). These are less commonly compressed in the thoracic outlet compared to the lower trunk. * **C. Gangrene:** This is a late, severe complication of arterial TOS due to distal embolization of a post-stenotic aneurysm. It is a rare finding. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Most common type:** Neurogenic TOS (>95%). * **Most common site of compression:** Scalene triangle (between anterior and middle scalene). * **Adson’s Test:** Loss of radial pulse when the head is turned toward the affected side with deep inspiration (suggests arterial involvement). * **Roos Test (Elevated Arm Stress Test):** The most sensitive clinical test for TOS. * **Paget-Schroetter Syndrome:** Venous TOS resulting in effort-induced thrombosis of the subclavian/axillary vein.

Question 318: A 45-year-old woman who smokes is found to have a splenic artery aneurysm. It was most likely caused by:

A. Atherosclerosis
B. Trauma
C. Medial dysplasia (Correct Answer)
D. Pancreatitis

Explanation: **Explanation:** Splenic artery aneurysm (SAA) is the most common visceral artery aneurysm. The correct answer is **Medial dysplasia** (specifically fibromuscular dysplasia), which is the most common underlying cause of SAA. **1. Why Medial Dysplasia is correct:** Medial dysplasia involves structural changes in the arterial wall, leading to weakening and subsequent aneurysm formation. It is significantly more common in women (4:1 female-to-male ratio) and is often associated with multiple pregnancies (due to hormonal changes and increased portal flow) and portal hypertension. In this clinical scenario, the patient's gender aligns with this classic demographic. **2. Why the other options are incorrect:** * **Atherosclerosis:** While atherosclerosis is the leading cause of aneurysms in the **aorta** and other peripheral arteries, it is usually a secondary finding in splenic artery aneurysms rather than the primary inciting cause. * **Trauma:** Trauma is a rare cause and typically leads to "pseudoaneurysms" rather than true aneurysms. * **Pancreatitis:** This is a common cause of **splenic artery pseudoaneurysms** due to the erosion of the vessel wall by pancreatic enzymes (trypsin/elastase). However, for a true aneurysm in a stable patient, medial dysplasia is the primary etiology. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Most common site:** Splenic artery is the #1 site for visceral aneurysms (60%). * **The "Double Rupture" Phenomenon:** Initial rupture into the lesser sac (temporary tamponade) followed by rupture into the general peritoneal cavity. * **Indications for Surgery:** SAA should be treated if the patient is **pregnant**, planning pregnancy, or if the aneurysm is **>2 cm** in diameter. * **Radiology:** Often seen as a "eggshell calcification" in the left upper quadrant on a plain X-ray.

Question 319: What is the investigation of choice for varicose veins?

A. Duplex ultrasound imaging (Correct Answer)
B. Standard Doppler examination
C. Varicography
D. Venography

Explanation: **Explanation:** **Duplex Ultrasound (DUS)** is the **investigation of choice (Gold Standard)** for varicose veins because it combines two modalities: B-mode ultrasound (to visualize anatomy) and Color Doppler (to assess flow direction and velocity). It is non-invasive, cost-effective, and provides a detailed "venous map" by identifying the exact site of saphenofemoral or saphenopopliteal junction incompetence, perforator leaks, and the presence of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). **Analysis of Options:** * **Standard Doppler examination (Handheld):** While useful for bedside screening to detect reflux, it lacks visual anatomical detail and cannot reliably differentiate between superficial and deep venous systems. * **Varicography:** This involves injecting contrast directly into varices. It is an invasive procedure now largely obsolete, reserved only for complex recurrent cases where DUS is inconclusive. * **Venography (Ascending/Descending):** Historically the gold standard, it is an invasive procedure using iodinated contrast. It has been replaced by DUS due to risks of contrast allergy and procedure-induced phlebitis. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Trendelenburg Test & Perthes Test:** These are clinical bedside tests. While high-yield for theory exams, they have been replaced by Duplex scan in modern clinical practice. * **CEAP Classification:** Used to grade chronic venous insufficiency (C0 to C6). * **Gold Standard Treatment:** Endovenous Thermal Ablation (Laser/Radiofrequency) has replaced traditional "Stripping and Ligation" for most patients. * **Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT):** Always rule out DVT using Duplex before treating varicose veins, as superficial veins may be acting as collateral channels.

Question 320: Which of the following arteries is most commonly used for coronary artery bypass surgery?

A. Bronchial
B. Ulnar
C. Phrenic artery
D. Radial (Correct Answer)

Explanation: **Explanation:** In Coronary Artery Bypass Grafting (CABG), the choice of conduit is critical for long-term patency. While the **Internal Thoracic Artery (ITA)**—specifically the Left ITA—is the "gold standard" and the most commonly used overall, among the options provided, the **Radial Artery** is the correct choice. **Why Radial Artery is correct:** The Radial Artery is the most frequently used **arterial** conduit after the ITA. It offers superior long-term patency rates (approx. 90% at 10 years) compared to the Great Saphenous Vein. It is thick-walled, easy to harvest, and has a diameter that matches coronary arteries well. Before harvesting, an **Allen’s Test** must be performed to ensure adequate collateral circulation to the hand via the ulnar artery. **Why other options are incorrect:** * **Bronchial & Phrenic Arteries:** These are small-caliber vessels with inconsistent anatomy and difficult surgical access, making them unsuitable for bypass grafting. * **Ulnar Artery:** This is the dominant supplier of blood to the hand in most individuals. Harvesting it would pose a significant risk of digital ischemia and hand necrosis. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Gold Standard Conduit:** Left Internal Mammary/Thoracic Artery (LIMA/LITA) to the LAD. * **Most Common Venous Conduit:** Great Saphenous Vein (GSV). * **Radial Artery Management:** To prevent vasospasm post-harvest, patients are typically started on **Calcium Channel Blockers** (e.g., Diltiazem). * **Best Patency:** LIMA > Radial Artery > Saphenous Vein.

Practice by Chapter

Atherosclerotic Disease

Practice Questions

Aortic Aneurysms

Practice Questions

Peripheral Arterial Disease

Practice Questions

Carotid Artery Disease

Practice Questions

Venous Thromboembolism

Practice Questions

Chronic Venous Insufficiency

Practice Questions

Mesenteric Vascular Disease

Practice Questions

Vascular Trauma

Practice Questions

Vascular Access for Hemodialysis

Practice Questions

Endovascular Techniques

Practice Questions

Diabetic Foot Vascular Disease

Practice Questions

Vasculitis

Practice Questions

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