Urology — MCQs

Urology Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 911: What is the most common cause of urethral stricture?

A. Trauma (Correct Answer)
B. Infection
C. Congenital
D. Post endoscopy

Explanation: **Explanation:** Urethral stricture refers to the narrowing of the urethral lumen due to fibrosis and scarring of the urethral mucosa and surrounding corpus spongiosum (spongiofibrosis). **1. Why Trauma is correct:** In modern clinical practice, **trauma** is the most common cause of urethral strictures globally. This includes: * **Iatrogenic Trauma (Most Common Subtype):** This includes injuries from urethral catheterization, transurethral surgeries (like TURP), and cystoscopy. * **External Trauma:** Straddle injuries (leading to bulbar urethral stricture) and pelvic fractures (leading to membranous urethral distractions). **2. Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Infection (Option B):** Historically, gonococcal urethritis was the leading cause. However, with the advent of effective antibiotics, inflammatory strictures have significantly decreased in incidence. * **Congenital (Option C):** These are rare and usually present as posterior urethral valves rather than true fibrous strictures. * **Post-endoscopy (Option D):** While a very common cause, it is technically a subset of **Iatrogenic Trauma**. In MCQ exams, "Trauma" is the broader, preferred umbrella term. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Most common site of stricture:** Bulbar urethra (especially in iatrogenic and straddle injuries). * **Gold Standard Investigation:** Retrograde Urethrogram (RUG) combined with Voiding Cystourethrogram (VCU) to define the length and location. * **Management:** * Short strictures (<2 cm): Direct Vision Internal Urethrotomy (DVIU) or dilatation. * Long/Recurrent strictures: Urethroplasty (e.g., BMG - Buccal Mucosal Graft urethroplasty). * **Pelvic Fracture:** Most commonly associated with injury to the **membranous urethra** (Posterior urethra).

Question 912: Membranous urethral rupture causes collection of blood in which of the following spaces?

A. Ischiorectal fossa
B. Deep perineal pouch (Correct Answer)
C. Superficial inguinal region
D. Pelvic diaphragm

Explanation: **Explanation:** The urethra is divided by the **perineal membrane** into different segments. The **membranous urethra** is the shortest and least distensible part of the male urethra, located within the **deep perineal pouch** (sandwiched between the superior and inferior fascia of the urogenital diaphragm). 1. **Why Option B is Correct:** When the membranous urethra is ruptured (typically due to pelvic fractures or deceleration injuries), the extravasated blood and urine are confined within the boundaries of the **deep perineal pouch**. Because this space is enclosed by tough fascial layers, the collection remains localized here unless the fascia itself is breached. 2. **Why Other Options are Incorrect:** * **Option A (Ischiorectal fossa):** This space lies lateral to the anal canal and contains fat; it is not anatomically continuous with the urethral compartments. * **Option C (Superficial inguinal region):** This is a site for extravasation in **bulbar urethral injuries** (below the perineal membrane). In such cases, fluid tracks under Colles’ fascia into the scrotum, penis, and the superficial inguinal space (Scarpa’s fascia). * **Option D (Pelvic diaphragm):** This forms the floor of the pelvic cavity. While a rupture *above* the urogenital diaphragm (prostatic urethra) leads to retropubic/extraperitoneal extravasation, "pelvic diaphragm" is an anatomical structure, not a primary collection space for urethral trauma. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Bulbar Urethra Rupture:** Most common site of urethral injury (straddle injury). Extravasation occurs in the **superficial perineal pouch**. * **Membranous Urethra Rupture:** Associated with **pelvic fractures**. Extravasation occurs in the **deep perineal pouch**. * **Classic Triad:** Blood at the meatus, inability to void, and a palpable "high-riding prostate" on DRE. * **Investigation of Choice:** Retrograde Urethrogram (RUG). Never attempt catheterization if a urethral tear is suspected.

Question 913: Osteoblastic secondaries commonly arise from which of the following primary tumors?

A. Renal carcinoma
B. Thyroid carcinoma
C. Gastrointestinal carcinoma
D. Prostate carcinoma (Correct Answer)

Explanation: **Explanation:** Bone metastases are broadly categorized into **osteolytic** (bone-destroying) and **osteoblastic** (bone-forming) lesions. This distinction depends on whether the tumor cells primarily activate osteoclasts or osteoblasts. **1. Why Prostate Carcinoma is Correct:** Prostate carcinoma is the classic example of a primary tumor that produces **osteoblastic (sclerotic) metastases**. The tumor cells secrete factors like Bone Morphogenetic Proteins (BMPs), TGF-β, and Prostate-Specific Antigen (PSA) that stimulate osteoblast proliferation. On X-ray, these appear as dense, white, radio-opaque spots. **2. Why the Other Options are Incorrect:** * **Renal Cell Carcinoma (RCC):** Characteristically produces **purely osteolytic** lesions. These are often described as "expansile" or "blow-out" metastases. * **Thyroid Carcinoma:** Typically causes **osteolytic** lesions. Like RCC, follicular thyroid cancer often presents with hypervascular, pulsating bone secondaries. * **Gastrointestinal (GI) Carcinoma:** Most GI malignancies (like stomach or colon cancer) result in **osteolytic** lesions, though they are less common than spread to the liver. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Most Common Osteoblastic:** Prostate cancer (Men), Carcinoid tumors. * **Most Common Osteolytic:** RCC, Thyroid, Multiple Myeloma (characteristically "punched-out" lesions). * **Mixed Lesions (Both Blastic & Lytic):** Breast cancer (most common mixed), Lung cancer. * **Imaging Gold Standard:** **MRI** is the most sensitive for detecting early marrow involvement, while a **Radionuclide Bone Scan** (Technetium-99m) is used to identify the distribution of osteoblastic activity. Note: Bone scans may be "cold" in purely lytic lesions like Multiple Myeloma.

Question 914: Which of the following conditions is NOT associated with an elevation in prostatic specific antigen?

A. Acute prostatitis
B. Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)
C. Prostatic intraepithelial neoplasia (Correct Answer)
D. Prostatic needle biopsy

Explanation: ### Explanation **Correct Option: C. Prostatic intraepithelial neoplasia (PIN)** The underlying medical concept is that **Prostate-Specific Antigen (PSA)** is a protease produced by the ductal and acinar epithelium of the prostate. Its elevation in the serum occurs when there is a disruption of the **prostatic-blood barrier** (basal cell layer and basement membrane). In **Prostatic Intraepithelial Neoplasia (PIN)**, particularly High-Grade PIN, there is cellular atypia within the ducts, but the **basal cell layer remains intact**. Because the architectural integrity is preserved and there is no significant tissue inflammation or necrosis, PIN does not typically cause a rise in serum PSA levels. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **A. Acute Prostatitis:** Intense inflammation and infection cause significant disruption of the prostatic epithelium and cellular membranes, leading to a massive leakage of PSA into the systemic circulation. * **B. Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH):** PSA is organ-specific, not cancer-specific. In BPH, the increased volume of prostatic tissue (hyperplasia) leads to a proportional increase in PSA production. * **D. Prostatic Needle Biopsy:** Mechanical trauma and the physical breach of the prostatic-blood barrier during the procedure cause an immediate, transient spike in serum PSA. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **PSA Velocity:** An increase of **>0.75 ng/mL/year** is highly suggestive of malignancy, even if the absolute value is <4 ng/mL. * **Age-Specific PSA:** PSA levels naturally rise with age due to increasing prostate volume (e.g., <2.5 for 40s, <6.5 for 70s). * **Free-to-Total PSA Ratio:** A ratio **<10%** increases the suspicion of prostate cancer, whereas **>25%** is more common in BPH. * **Wait Time:** After a digital rectal exam (DRE) or biopsy, wait at least **4–6 weeks** before measuring PSA to avoid false elevations.

Question 915: A patient with non-seminomatous tumor of the testis has more than 4 retroperitoneal lymph nodes involved. What is the appropriate management for this patient, considering the following treatment options, except one?

A. Retroperitoneal Lymph Node Dissection (RPLND)
B. Inguinal orchiectomy
C. Chemotherapy
D. Radiotherapy (Correct Answer)

Explanation: **Explanation:** The management of testicular tumors depends heavily on the histological type: **Seminoma** vs. **Non-Seminomatous Germ Cell Tumor (NSGCT)**. **Why Radiotherapy is the Correct Answer (The "Except" Option):** NSGCTs are inherently **radioresistant**. Unlike seminomas, which are highly radiosensitive and can be treated with radiation, NSGCTs do not respond predictably to radiotherapy. Therefore, it is not a standard treatment modality for NSGCT, regardless of the stage. **Analysis of Other Options:** * **Inguinal Orchiectomy (B):** This is the **gold standard initial step** for any suspected testicular mass. It provides the definitive histological diagnosis and local tumor control. It must always be performed via an inguinal approach to avoid scrotal lymph node seeding. * **Chemotherapy (C):** For advanced NSGCT (Stage IIB and above), platinum-based chemotherapy (e.g., BEP regimen: Bleomycin, Etoposide, Cisplatin) is the primary treatment. Involvement of >4 retroperitoneal nodes indicates significant metastatic burden (Stage IIB/C), making chemotherapy essential. * **RPLND (A):** This is a standard surgical intervention for NSGCT. It can be used as primary treatment for low-stage disease or as "Post-Chemo RPLND" to remove residual masses (>1 cm) after chemotherapy, as these may contain teratoma or viable tumor. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** 1. **Tumor Markers:** NSGCT often shows elevated **AFP** and **beta-hCG**. Remember: **AFP is NEVER elevated in pure seminoma.** 2. **Lymphatic Spread:** Testicular tumors spread first to the **para-aortic (retroperitoneal) lymph nodes**, except if there is scrotal invasion (then to inguinal nodes). 3. **Treatment Rule:** Seminoma = Radio-sensitive; NSGCT = Chemo-sensitive/Radio-resistant. 4. **Most common NSGCT:** Mixed germ cell tumor.

Question 916: Most common type of hypospadias is:

A. Glandular (Correct Answer)
B. Penile
C. Coronal
D. Perineal

Explanation: **Explanation:** Hypospadias is a congenital anomaly where the urethral meatus is located on the ventral aspect of the penis, proximal to its normal position. The classification is based on the anatomical location of the ectopic orifice. **1. Why Glandular is Correct:** The most common site for hypospadias is the **Glandular (distal)** type. Approximately **50-70%** of all cases are distal (Glandular or Coronal). Among these, the glandular type, where the opening is on the ventral surface of the glans penis, occurs with the highest frequency. **2. Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **B. Penile:** These are intermediate types (mid-shaft) and are less common than distal varieties. * **C. Coronal:** While also a distal type and very common, statistically, the glandular position is reported more frequently in clinical series. * **D. Perineal:** This is a severe, proximal form of hypospadias. It is the least common type (approx. 5-10%) and is often associated with significant chordee and bifid scrotum. **3. High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Triad of Hypospadias:** (1) Ectopic urethral meatus, (2) Chordee (ventral curvature), and (3) Hooded prepuce (deficient ventral foreskin). * **Contraindication:** **Circumcision is strictly contraindicated** because the prepuce is required for future reconstructive surgery (urethroplasty). * **Embryology:** Failure of the urethral folds to fuse completely in the midline. * **Best time for surgery:** Ideally between **6 to 12 months** of age. * **Common Procedures:** TIP (Tubularized Incised Plate) or Snodgrass repair is the most popular for distal types.

Question 917: Which of the following statement is false about hydrocele?

A. Arises due to patent processus vaginalis
B. Wait for 5 years for spontaneous closure of congenital hydrocele (Correct Answer)
C. Lord's plication of sac for small hydrocele
D. Jaboulay's eversion of sac for medium hydrocele

Explanation: **Explanation:** The correct answer is **B** because the management of congenital hydrocele involves observation only up to **1–2 years of age**, not 5 years. Most congenital hydroceles are "communicating" and resolve spontaneously as the processus vaginalis obliterates. If it persists beyond the age of 2, surgical intervention (Herniotomy) is indicated due to the high risk of an associated inguinal hernia. **Analysis of other options:** * **Option A:** Congenital hydrocele occurs due to a **patent processus vaginalis**, allowing peritoneal fluid to track into the scrotum. This is the fundamental embryological basis for the condition. * **Option C:** **Lord’s plication** is a surgical technique used for small, thin-walled hydroceles. The sac is bunched up (plicated) with multiple sutures without being excised or everted, minimizing the risk of postoperative hematoma. * **Option D:** **Jaboulay’s procedure** involves the eversion of the sac behind the testis and spermatic cord. It is the treatment of choice for medium-sized, thin-walled hydroceles. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** 1. **Gold Standard Investigation:** Scrotal Ultrasound (though diagnosis is primarily clinical via the **transillumination test**). 2. **Surgery of Choice (Adults):** Subtotal excision of the sac (for large/thick-walled) or Jaboulay’s/Lord’s. 3. **Surgery of Choice (Children):** **Herniotomy** (High ligation of the sac). Never perform a scrotal approach in children. 4. **Secondary Hydrocele:** Always rule out underlying testicular malignancy or filariasis in adult presentations.

Question 918: In which of the following conditions is a cystometric study indicated?

A. Neurogenic bladder (Correct Answer)
B. Stress incontinence
C. Fistula
D. Urge incontinence

Explanation: **Explanation:** **Cystometry** is the gold standard component of a urodynamic study (UDS) used to evaluate the pressure-volume relationship of the bladder during the filling phase. It measures bladder capacity, compliance, and the presence of involuntary detrusor contractions. **1. Why Neurogenic Bladder is Correct:** In neurogenic bladder (caused by spinal cord injury, diabetes, or multiple sclerosis), the coordination between the detrusor muscle and the urethral sphincter is lost. Cystometry is **essential** to classify the type of bladder dysfunction (e.g., detrusor hyperreflexia or areflexia) and to assess the risk of high-pressure storage, which can lead to upper renal tract damage (hydronephrosis). **2. Why Other Options are Incorrect:** * **Stress Incontinence:** Diagnosis is primarily clinical (demonstrating leakage with a cough/Valsalva). Urodynamics are usually reserved only if surgery is planned or if the diagnosis is unclear. * **Fistula:** Conditions like vesicovaginal fistula (VVF) are structural defects, not functional ones. Diagnosis is made via physical exam, dye tests (Moir’s test), or imaging (CT/IVP/Cystoscopy). * **Urge Incontinence:** Often diagnosed based on history (Overactive Bladder). While cystometry can show detrusor overactivity, it is not the first-line investigation unless conservative management fails. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Normal Bladder Capacity:** 300–500 mL. * **First Sensation of Filling:** 150–250 mL. * **Compliance:** Calculated as $\Delta \text{Volume} / \Delta \text{Pressure}$. Low compliance is a hallmark of a "stiff" neurogenic bladder. * **Pdet (Detrusor Pressure):** Calculated as $P_{ves} (\text{intravesical}) - P_{abd} (\text{intra-abdominal})$. This distinguishes bladder contractions from abdominal straining.

Question 919: Per rectum examination is not a useful test for the diagnosis of which of the following conditions?

A. Anal fissure
B. Hemorrhoid
C. Pilonidal sinus (Correct Answer)
D. Rectal ulcer

Explanation: **Explanation:** The Digital Rectal Examination (DRE) or Per Rectum (PR) examination is a fundamental clinical tool used to evaluate pathologies of the anal canal, rectum, and adjacent structures (like the prostate). **Why Pilonidal Sinus is the Correct Answer:** A **Pilonidal Sinus** is a condition occurring in the **sacrococcygeal region** (the cleft of the buttocks), usually caused by hair follicles penetrating the skin. It is an **extracanalicular** condition located superficial to the sacrum and coccyx. Since the pathology is located on the skin surface of the natal cleft and does not involve the anal canal or rectal lumen, a PR examination provides no diagnostic utility for this condition. Diagnosis is purely clinical via inspection. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Anal Fissure:** PR examination (though often painful and sometimes deferred for a visual inspection) is used to assess sphincter tone and rule out associated pathologies like sentinel piles or hypertrophied anal papillae. * **Hemorrhoids:** While internal hemorrhoids are soft and often not palpable unless thrombosed, a PR exam is essential to rule out other causes of rectal bleeding (like malignancy) and to assess the anal canal. * **Rectal Ulcer:** Solitary Rectal Ulcer Syndrome (SRUS) or malignant ulcers are directly palpable via PR exam. The clinician can feel the induration, depth, and distance from the anal verge. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Positioning:** The preferred position for a PR exam is the **Left Lateral (Sims) position**. * **Contraindication:** A PR exam is strictly contraindicated in cases of **suspected Coccygodynia** (due to pain) and should be performed with extreme caution/topical anesthesia in **acute anal fissures**. * **Pilonidal Sinus Fact:** It is most common in young, hairy males ("Jeep Bottom") and the primary treatment is wide local excision or flap reconstruction (e.g., Limberg flap).

Question 920: A 13-year-old male was brought to OPD with pain right side testes after being hit by a cricket ball 2 hours back. On examination, severe testicular pain and an absent cremasteric reflex. What is the next step?

A. Surgical exploration (Correct Answer)
B. USG Venous Doppler
C. NSAIDS
D. USG Arterial Doppler

Explanation: ***Surgical exploration*** - This patient presents with **severe testicular pain** and **absent cremasteric reflex**, which has approximately **99% positive predictive value for testicular torsion** - The combination of these clinical findings constitutes a **surgical emergency** requiring **immediate scrotal exploration** without delay for imaging - **Time is critical**: testicular salvage rates are >90% if detorsion occurs within 6 hours, dropping to ~50% at 6-12 hours and <10% after 12 hours - In cases with **high clinical suspicion** (classic presentation with absent cremasteric reflex), imaging should **NOT delay surgical intervention** - Standard of care: proceed directly to the operating room for exploration and detorsion *USG Arterial Doppler* - While Doppler ultrasound can assess testicular blood flow, it is indicated only when the **diagnosis is equivocal** or clinical findings are unclear - Doppler has significant limitations: false negatives occur with intermittent or partial torsion, and arranging the study delays definitive treatment - In this case with **pathognomonic clinical findings** (absent cremasteric reflex + severe pain), imaging would inappropriately delay life-saving surgery - **"Time is testicle"** - every minute of delay reduces the chance of testicular salvage *USG Venous Doppler* - Venous Doppler is not the appropriate imaging modality for suspected testicular torsion - Arterial blood flow assessment is more relevant than venous drainage in diagnosing ischemia - However, with classic clinical presentation, neither imaging modality should delay surgical exploration *NSAIDS* - Administering analgesics alone is inappropriate management for suspected testicular torsion - Pain control does not address the underlying vascular compromise and will lead to **testicular loss** - NSAIDs may mask symptoms and create false reassurance while ischemic damage progresses

Practice by Chapter

Urological Anatomy

Practice Questions

Hematuria Evaluation

Practice Questions

Urinary Calculi

Practice Questions

Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia

Practice Questions

Prostate Cancer

Practice Questions

Bladder Cancer

Practice Questions

Renal Cell Carcinoma

Practice Questions

Testicular Tumors

Practice Questions

Urinary Tract Infections

Practice Questions

Urinary Incontinence

Practice Questions

Genitourinary Trauma

Practice Questions

Pediatric Urology Basics

Practice Questions

Want unlimited practice?

Get full access to all questions, explanations, and performance tracking.

Start For Free

Urology — MCQs

Urology — MCQs

On this page

Practice by Chapter

Want unlimited practice?