Urology — MCQs

Urology Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 861: Mackler's triad includes all except?

A. Vomiting
B. Subcutaneous emphysema
C. Lower thoracic pain
D. Peripheral cyanosis (Correct Answer)

Explanation: **Explanation:** **Mackler’s Triad** is the classic clinical presentation of **Boerhaave Syndrome**, which is a spontaneous transmural perforation of the esophagus, typically occurring after forceful vomiting or retching. 1. **Why Peripheral Cyanosis is the correct answer:** Peripheral cyanosis is **not** a component of Mackler’s triad. While a patient with Boerhaave syndrome may eventually develop signs of shock or respiratory distress (which could lead to cyanosis), it is not part of the diagnostic triad used to identify the condition clinically. 2. **Analysis of Incorrect Options (Components of the Triad):** * **Vomiting (Option A):** Usually the inciting event. Forceful vomiting leads to a sudden rise in intraluminal esophageal pressure against a closed cricopharyngeus muscle. * **Lower Thoracic Pain (Option C):** This is typically sudden, sharp, and excruciating "retrosternal" or lower chest pain following the bout of vomiting. * **Subcutaneous Emphysema (Option B):** This occurs as air escapes the perforated esophagus and tracks into the mediastinum and then the subcutaneous tissues of the neck or chest. It is felt as "crepitus" on palpation. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Most Common Site:** The left posterolateral aspect of the distal esophagus (2-3 cm above the gastroesophageal junction). * **Diagnosis:** The investigation of choice is a **Gastrografin (water-soluble) swallow**, which shows extravasation of contrast. * **Chest X-ray findings:** May show pneumomediastinum, pleural effusion (usually left-sided), or the **V-sign of Naclerio** (air behind the heart). * **Hamman’s Sign:** A "crunching" sound heard over the precordium synchronous with the heartbeat, indicating mediastinal emphysema. * **Management:** Surgical emergency requiring primary repair and mediastinal drainage if detected within 24 hours.

Question 862: A female patient presented with left iliac fossa pain for the past 6 months. On investigation, a 3 cm left renal pelvic stone was found with no hydroureteronephrosis, normal functioning kidneys on both sides, and no distal obstruction. What is the ideal management?

A. Percutaneous nephrolithotomy (PCNL) (Correct Answer)
B. Extra-corporeal shock wave lithotripsy (ESWL)
C. Laparoscopic nephrolithotomy
D. Medical dissolution therapy with oral potassium citrate

Explanation: **Explanation:** The management of renal stones is primarily determined by the **size, location, and composition** of the stone. According to the EAU (European Association of Urology) guidelines, **Percutaneous Nephrolithotomy (PCNL)** is the gold standard and first-line treatment for renal pelvic stones **>2 cm** in diameter. 1. **Why PCNL is correct:** For a 3 cm stone, PCNL offers the highest stone-free rate (SFR) in a single session. It allows for direct fragmentation and physical removal of large stone burdens, which would otherwise be difficult to clear using less invasive methods. 2. **Why other options are incorrect:** * **ESWL:** Generally indicated for stones **<2 cm**. For a 3 cm stone, ESWL has a high failure rate, requires multiple sessions, and carries a significant risk of "Steinstrasse" (stone street), where fragmented debris obstructs the ureter. * **Laparoscopic Nephrolithotomy:** This is usually reserved for complex cases, failed endourological procedures, or when there is a concomitant anatomical abnormality (like a PUJ obstruction) requiring reconstruction. It is not the first-line "ideal" management for a simple 3 cm pelvic stone. * **Medical Dissolution:** This is only effective for **Uric Acid stones**. Most renal stones are Calcium Oxalate (radio-opaque), and a 3 cm stone is far too large to rely on dissolution therapy alone. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Stone Size <1 cm:** ESWL or RIRS (Retrograde Intrarenal Surgery) are preferred. * **Stone Size 1–2 cm:** Choice between ESWL, RIRS, or PCNL (PCNL has the highest SFR). * **Stone Size >2 cm:** PCNL is the treatment of choice. * **Lower Pole Stones:** PCNL is preferred if the stone is >1.5 cm due to poor clearance rates with ESWL in the lower calyx.

Question 863: Secondary deposits from prostatic carcinoma are commonest in which organ?

A. Bone (Correct Answer)
B. Kidney
C. Liver
D. Brain

Explanation: **Explanation:** Prostatic carcinoma is characterized by its high affinity for the skeletal system. The correct answer is **Bone**, which is the most common site for distant metastasis, occurring in approximately 85-90% of patients with advanced disease. **Why Bone is the correct answer:** The primary mechanism for this spread is the **Batson venous plexus**, a valveless vertebral venous system that connects the deep pelvic veins and thoracic veins to the internal vertebral venous plexuses. This allows retrograde flow of tumor cells directly to the axial skeleton (pelvis, lumbar spine, and femur) without passing through the lungs. Metastases from the prostate are characteristically **osteoblastic** (bone-forming), appearing as radiodense lesions on X-rays. **Why other options are incorrect:** * **Kidney:** While prostate cancer can cause obstructive uropathy by blocking the ureters, it rarely metastasizes to the renal parenchyma. * **Liver:** This is a common site for visceral metastasis in many cancers (like GI tract or lung), but in prostate cancer, visceral spread usually occurs much later in the disease progression, after bone involvement. * **Brain:** Brain metastases are rare in prostate cancer and typically signify an end-stage, androgen-independent phase of the disease. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Commonest site of bone metastasis:** Lumbar spine > Pelvis > Thoracic spine. * **Type of lesion:** Prostate cancer is the classic cause of **osteoblastic** lesions. (Contrast: Multiple myeloma and Breast cancer often cause osteolytic lesions). * **Tumor Marker:** PSA (Prostate-Specific Antigen) is used for screening and monitoring treatment response. * **Gold Standard Investigation for Bone Mets:** Bone Scan (Technetium-99m MDP) is more sensitive than X-ray for early detection.

Question 864: Urinary incontinence results from all of the following except:

A. Neurogenic bladder
B. Vesicovaginal fistula
C. Ectopic ureter
D. Rectovesical fistula (Correct Answer)

Explanation: **Explanation:** The core concept in urinary incontinence is the involuntary leakage of urine through the urethra or an abnormal communication. **Why Rectovesical Fistula is the correct answer:** A **Rectovesical fistula** is an abnormal communication between the rectum and the urinary bladder. In this condition, the pressure gradient typically causes gas (pneumaturia) or fecal matter to enter the bladder and be voided via the urethra, or urine to pass into the rectum and be excreted during defecation. It does **not** cause the involuntary dripping or loss of control of urine (incontinence) that characterizes the other options. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Neurogenic Bladder:** Damage to the nerve pathways (e.g., spinal cord injury, diabetes) leads to detrusor overactivity (urge incontinence) or an acontractile bladder resulting in overflow incontinence. * **Vesicovaginal Fistula (VVF):** This is a common cause of **true incontinence** in females (often post-obstetric or post-gynecological surgery), where urine leaks continuously from the bladder into the vagina. * **Ectopic Ureter:** If a ureter opens distal to the external urethral sphincter (e.g., in the vagina or vestibule in females), it results in classic **continuous dribbling** despite a normal voiding pattern. **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Ectopic Ureter Classic Presentation:** A young girl who voids normally but is "always wet" (pathognomonic). * **VVF Diagnosis:** Confirmed by the **Three-Swab Test** or Methylene blue test. * **Rectovesical Fistula:** Most commonly caused by malignancy (rectal/bladder), diverticulitis, or Crohn’s disease; presents with **pneumaturia** and **fecaluria**.

Question 865: Urinary catheterization is indicated in cases of acute retention of urine due to which of the following conditions?

A. Stricture
B. Rupture
C. Postoperative status (Correct Answer)
D. Carcinoma of the prostate

Explanation: **Explanation:** **Correct Answer: C. Postoperative status** In the postoperative period, acute retention of urine (ARU) is common due to the effects of anesthesia (which inhibits the detrusor reflex), pain, and the use of opioids. In these cases, the urethra is anatomically intact and unobstructed. Therefore, **urethral catheterization** is the first-line management to decompress the bladder and prevent myogenic damage. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **A. Stricture:** In cases of urethral stricture, the lumen is narrowed and fibrotic. Forcing a catheter can cause a "false passage" or further trauma. While gentle catheterization with a small-bore or specialized catheter (e.g., Tiemann tip) is sometimes attempted, it is not the ideal indication compared to a clear passage. * **B. Rupture:** This is an absolute **contraindication** for urethral catheterization. If a urethral injury is suspected (e.g., blood at the meatus, high-riding prostate), a Retrograde Urethrogram (RUG) must be performed first. Blind catheterization can convert a partial tear into a complete rupture. * **C. Carcinoma of the Prostate:** Advanced prostate cancer causes mechanical obstruction and distortion of the prostatic urethra. Catheterization is often difficult and may require a Suprapubic Cystostomy (SPC) if the obstruction is complete. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Gold Standard for ARU:** Urethral catheterization is the initial step unless trauma is suspected. * **Trauma Rule:** If "Blood at Meatus" is mentioned, the next best step is **RUG**, and the management for retention is **Suprapubic Catheterization (SPC)**. * **Post-obstructive Diuresis:** Monitor urine output and electrolytes closely after relieving chronic retention, as sudden decompression can lead to polyuria and hypotension. * **Size Matters:** A standard 16 Fr Foley catheter is typically used for adults.

Question 866: Renal tuberculosis is characterised by:

A. Loin pain
B. Painful hematuria
C. Sterile pyuria (Correct Answer)
D. Constitutional symptoms

Explanation: **Explanation:** **Renal Tuberculosis (Genitourinary TB)** is the most common site of extra-pulmonary tuberculosis. It occurs due to the hematogenous spread of *Mycobacterium tuberculosis* from the lungs to the renal cortex. **Why "Sterile Pyuria" is the Correct Answer:** Sterile pyuria is the **hallmark** of renal tuberculosis. It is defined as the presence of white blood cells (pus cells) in the urine in the absence of bacterial growth on standard culture media. This occurs because *M. tuberculosis* does not grow on routine aerobic culture media (like MacConkey or Blood Agar); it requires specialized media (e.g., Lowenstein-Jensen medium) and a longer incubation period. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Loin Pain:** While it can occur due to ureteric strictures or hydronephrosis, it is often absent or vague. The most common presenting symptom of renal TB is actually **increased frequency of micturition** (due to bladder involvement/Thimble bladder). * **Painful Hematuria:** Hematuria in renal TB is typically **painless**. Painful hematuria is more characteristic of urolithiasis or acute bacterial cystitis. * **Constitutional Symptoms:** While fever, weight loss, and night sweats are classic for pulmonary TB, they are frequently **absent** in isolated genitourinary TB. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Earliest Sign:** Sterile pyuria. * **Earliest Radiological Sign:** "Moth-eaten" appearance of the calyces (due to erosions). * **Putty Kidney:** A late-stage finding where the kidney becomes a non-functioning, autonephrectomized mass of caseous material and calcification. * **Thimble Bladder:** A small-capacity, fibrotic bladder resulting from chronic TB cystitis. * **Investigation of Choice:** Urine for AFB (3–5 consecutive early morning samples) and Gold Standard is Culture.

Question 867: Which of the following is NOT a self-retaining urinary catheter?

A. Foley
B. Malecot
C. Gibbon
D. Red rubber (Correct Answer)

Explanation: **Explanation:** In urological practice, urinary catheters are classified based on their design and duration of use into **self-retaining** (indwelling) and **non-self-retaining** (intermittent) catheters. **Why "Red Rubber" is the correct answer:** The **Red Rubber (Robinson) catheter** is a non-self-retaining, straight catheter. It lacks any built-in mechanism (like a balloon or specialized flanges) to anchor it within the bladder. It is designed for **intermittent catheterization**, such as draining the bladder once or obtaining a sterile urine sample, and must be removed immediately after the procedure. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Foley Catheter:** The most common self-retaining catheter. it utilizes an **inflatable balloon** at the tip to remain secured in the bladder neck. * **Malecot Catheter:** A self-retaining catheter characterized by **"wings" or "flanges"** at the tip. These expand once inserted to provide anchorage. It is frequently used for suprapubic cystostomy or nephrostomy drainage. * **Gibbon Catheter:** A long, flexible, PVC self-retaining catheter. It is designed with **straps or wings** to be taped to the penis/thigh, allowing it to remain in situ for longer periods compared to simple straight catheters. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **De Pezzer (Mushroom) Catheter:** Another self-retaining catheter with a bulbous tip, primarily used for suprapubic drainage or gastrostomy. * **Coude Tip:** A catheter with a curved tip used specifically to bypass an enlarged prostate. * **Material Matters:** Latex catheters (like standard Foley) should be avoided in patients with latex allergies; **Silicone** is the preferred alternative for long-term use as it is less prone to encrustation.

Question 868: A PSA level greater than 2 ng/mL is seen in which of the following conditions?

A. Prostate cancer (Correct Answer)
B. Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)
C. Prostatitis
D. Metastatic carcinoma

Explanation: **Explanation:** Prostate-Specific Antigen (SA) is a glycoprotein enzyme secreted by the epithelial cells of the prostate gland. While PSA is organ-specific, it is not cancer-specific. However, in the context of screening and diagnosis, a PSA level **greater than 4 ng/mL** has traditionally been the threshold for concern, but recent guidelines and exam patterns often use **>2 ng/mL** as a significant cutoff, especially in younger patients or when calculating PSA velocity. **1. Why Prostate Cancer is the correct answer:** In prostate cancer, the normal glandular architecture is disrupted, allowing PSA to leak into the systemic circulation at much higher rates than in healthy tissue. While other conditions raise PSA, the question specifically targets the diagnostic utility of PSA as a screening marker for malignancy. **2. Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **B. Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH):** While BPH can elevate PSA due to increased prostate volume, the rise is usually proportional to the size of the gland (PSA density). It is less likely to be the "primary" intended answer when malignancy is an option. * **C. Prostatitis:** Inflammation can cause massive, transient spikes in PSA (often >10 ng/mL). However, this is an acute inflammatory state rather than a chronic diagnostic marker. * **D. Metastatic Carcinoma:** While metastatic prostate cancer results in very high PSA levels (often >100 ng/mL), the term "metastatic carcinoma" is non-specific and could refer to cancers of the lung, colon, etc., which do not produce PSA. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **PSA Velocity:** An increase of **>0.75 ng/mL per year** is highly suggestive of malignancy, even if the total PSA is <4 ng/mL. * **Free-to-Total PSA Ratio:** A ratio **<10-15%** suggests cancer; a ratio **>25%** suggests BPH. * **Age-specific PSA:** Normal limits increase with age (e.g., <2.5 for 40-49 years; <6.5 for 70-79 years). * **PSA Density:** PSA value divided by prostate volume (via TRUS). A value **>0.15** is suspicious for cancer.

Question 869: What is the primary treatment for metastatic prostate carcinoma?

A. Radiotherapy
B. Estrogen therapy
C. GnRH analogs (Correct Answer)
D. Radiotherapy with chemotherapy

Explanation: **Explanation:** The primary treatment for metastatic prostate carcinoma is **Androgen Deprivation Therapy (ADT)**. Since prostate cancer cells are androgen-dependent for growth, the goal is to reduce serum testosterone to castrate levels (<50 ng/dL). **Why GnRH Analogs are correct:** GnRH analogs (e.g., Leuprolide, Goserelin) are the gold standard for ADT. They work by providing continuous stimulation to the pituitary gland, leading to down-regulation of GnRH receptors. This results in a decrease in LH and FSH secretion, subsequently inhibiting testicular testosterone production. Note: They initially cause a transient "testosterone flare," which is usually managed by co-administering anti-androgens (like Flutamide) for the first few weeks. **Why other options are incorrect:** * **Radiotherapy (A & D):** While radiotherapy is a definitive treatment for localized prostate cancer or used palliatively for bone pain in metastasis, it is not the *primary* systemic treatment for metastatic disease. Chemotherapy (e.g., Docetaxel) is typically reserved for hormone-refractory cases. * **Estrogen therapy (B):** Historically used (Diethylstilbestrol), it reduces testosterone but is no longer a first-line choice due to significant cardiovascular side effects and thromboembolic risks. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Most common site of metastasis:** Bone (specifically Osteoblastic lesions). * **Tumor Marker:** PSA (Prostate Specific Antigen) is used for monitoring response to therapy. * **Castrate-Resistant Prostate Cancer (CRPC):** Defined as disease progression despite testosterone levels being at castrate levels. * **Alternative to GnRH Analogs:** Bilateral Orchidectomy (Surgical Castration) is the fastest way to achieve castrate levels of testosterone.

Question 870: The Chesser Moir technique is used in which of the following conditions?

A. Vesicovaginal fistula (VVF) (Correct Answer)
B. Stress incontinence
C. Urethrocoete
D. Enterocoele

Explanation: **Explanation:** The **Chassar Moir technique** (also known as the Moir’s operation) is a classic surgical procedure used for the repair of a **Vesicovaginal Fistula (VVF)**. It involves a **transvaginal approach** where the edges of the fistula tract are excised to create raw, healthy tissue margins. The bladder and vaginal walls are then separated (dissected) and closed in distinct, tension-free layers using absorbable sutures. This technique is particularly favored for simple, non-malignant, and non-radiation-induced VVFs located in the mid-vaginal or vault area. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **B. Stress Incontinence:** This is typically managed by procedures like the **Burch Colposuspension** or Mid-urethral slings (e.g., **TVT/TOT**). * **C. Urethrocoete:** This refers to the prolapse of the female urethra into the vaginal canal, usually treated via **Anterior Colporrhaphy** (Kelly’s Plication). * **D. Enterocoele:** This is a herniation of the Pouch of Douglas (containing small bowel) into the vagina, managed by procedures like the **McCall Culdoplasty** or Ward-Mayo operation. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Gold Standard Investigation for VVF:** Cystoscopy (to locate the fistula in relation to ureteric orifices). * **Diagnostic Test:** The **Three-swab test** (Moir’s test) helps differentiate VVF from Ureterovaginal fistula. * **Latzko’s Procedure:** Another transvaginal technique specifically used for **post-hysterectomy vault VVFs**. * **O’Conor’s Technique:** The standard **transabdominal** (transvesical) approach for VVF repair. * **Martius Flap:** A fibro-fatty labial flap used to provide a vascularized bed during complex VVF repairs.

Practice by Chapter

Urological Anatomy

Practice Questions

Hematuria Evaluation

Practice Questions

Urinary Calculi

Practice Questions

Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia

Practice Questions

Prostate Cancer

Practice Questions

Bladder Cancer

Practice Questions

Renal Cell Carcinoma

Practice Questions

Testicular Tumors

Practice Questions

Urinary Tract Infections

Practice Questions

Urinary Incontinence

Practice Questions

Genitourinary Trauma

Practice Questions

Pediatric Urology Basics

Practice Questions

Want unlimited practice?

Get full access to all questions, explanations, and performance tracking.

Start For Free

Urology — MCQs

Urology — MCQs

On this page

Practice by Chapter

Want unlimited practice?