Urology — MCQs
On this page
What is a key consideration for Total Parenteral Nutrition (TPN) formulation?
A 73-year-old woman with a long history of heavy smoking undergoes femoral artery-popliteal artery bypass for rest pain in her left leg. Due to serious underlying respiratory insufficiency, she continues to require ventilatory support for 4 days after her operation. As soon as her endotracheal tube is removed, she begins complaining of vague upper abdominal pain. She has daily fever spikes of 39°C (102.2°F) and a leukocyte count of 18,000/mL. An upper abdominal ultrasonogram reveals a dilated gallbladder, but no stones are seen. A presumptive diagnosis of acalculous cholecystitis is made. Which of the following is the next best step in her treatment?
Optical urethroplasty is indicated for which of the following conditions?
Struvite stones are primarily associated with which of the following ions?
What is the current treatment for short-segment passable stricture of the penile and bulbous urethra?
All are true about Peyronie's disease except?
All of the following are radiolucent kidney stones except?
What is the first force applied for tooth extraction?
An elderly male presents with a pathological fracture. Investigations reveal normal serum calcium and phosphorus, but low urine calcium. Serum alkaline phosphatase and acid phosphatase are elevated. Bone biopsy shows osteoblastic metastases. What is the most likely primary tumor site in this patient?
Which of the following statements about detrusor instability is false?
Urology Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 331: What is a key consideration for Total Parenteral Nutrition (TPN) formulation?
- A. Proteins should be prioritized over carbohydrates.
- B. Lipid administration rate should be less than 0.11 g/kg/hr. (Correct Answer)
- C. A 2-in-1 solution is specifically designed to contain lipids.
- D. Lipids should constitute only 10% of the total calories.
Explanation: ### Explanation **Correct Option: B (Lipid administration rate should be less than 0.11 g/kg/hr)** In Total Parenteral Nutrition (TPN), the rate of lipid infusion is critical to prevent **Fat Overload Syndrome** and metabolic complications. The recommended maximum infusion rate for intravenous fat emulsions (IVFE) is **0.11 g/kg/hr** (approximately 2.5 g/kg/day). Exceeding this rate can impair pulmonary gas exchange, cause reticuloendothelial system dysfunction, and lead to hypertriglyceridemia. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Option A:** Carbohydrates (Dextrose) are the primary energy source in TPN, typically providing 50–60% of total calories, while proteins are primarily used for tissue repair and nitrogen balance, not as a primary energy source. * **Option C:** A **2-in-1 solution** contains only dextrose and amino acids. A **3-in-1 solution** (Total Nutrient Admixture) is the one specifically designed to include lipids along with dextrose and amino acids. * **Option D:** Lipids generally constitute **20–30%** of the total caloric intake in TPN, not 10%. This helps prevent Essential Fatty Acid Deficiency (EFAD) and reduces the osmotic load of high-concentration dextrose. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Caloric Density:** Carbohydrates provide 3.4 kcal/g (IV form), Proteins 4 kcal/g, and Lipids 9 kcal/g. * **Monitoring:** Serum triglycerides must be monitored; if levels exceed 400 mg/dL, lipid infusion should be reduced or stopped. * **Complications:** The most common life-threatening complication of TPN is **Catheter-related Bloodstream Infection (CRBSI)**, while the most common metabolic complication is **Hyperglycemia**. * **Refeeding Syndrome:** Characterized by **Hypophosphatemia** (hallmark), hypokalemia, and hypomagnesemia upon initiating nutrition in malnourished patients.
Question 332: A 73-year-old woman with a long history of heavy smoking undergoes femoral artery-popliteal artery bypass for rest pain in her left leg. Due to serious underlying respiratory insufficiency, she continues to require ventilatory support for 4 days after her operation. As soon as her endotracheal tube is removed, she begins complaining of vague upper abdominal pain. She has daily fever spikes of 39°C (102.2°F) and a leukocyte count of 18,000/mL. An upper abdominal ultrasonogram reveals a dilated gallbladder, but no stones are seen. A presumptive diagnosis of acalculous cholecystitis is made. Which of the following is the next best step in her treatment?
- A. Nasogastric suction and broad-spectrum antibiotics
- B. Immediate cholecystectomy with operative cholangiogram
- C. Percutaneous drainage of the gallbladder (Correct Answer)
- D. Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) to visualize and drain the common bile duct
Explanation: **Explanation:** The patient presents with classic features of **Acute Acalculous Cholecystitis (AAC)**: a critically ill, post-operative patient with respiratory failure, high-grade fever, leukocytosis, and vague abdominal pain. Ultrasound findings of a dilated gallbladder without stones in a high-stress clinical setting confirm the diagnosis. **Why Percutaneous Drainage is Correct:** The "gold standard" for AAC in stable patients is cholecystectomy. However, this patient is **hemodynamically unstable/critically ill** (recent major vascular surgery, prolonged ventilation, respiratory insufficiency). In such high-risk surgical candidates, **Percutaneous Cholecystostomy (PC)** is the treatment of choice. It allows for immediate decompression and drainage of the infected gallbladder with minimal physiological stress, acting as a bridge to recovery or definitive surgery. **Why Other Options are Incorrect:** * **Option A:** While antibiotics are necessary, they are insufficient as monotherapy for AAC, which carries a high risk of gangrene and perforation. * **Option B:** Immediate cholecystectomy carries high morbidity and mortality in a patient with severe respiratory insufficiency and recent major vascular surgery. * **Option D:** ERCP is used for choledocholithiasis (CBD stones) or biliary obstruction. AAC involves the gallbladder, not primarily the common bile duct. **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Risk Factors for AAC:** Prolonged fasting (TPN), major trauma/burns, post-cardiac/vascular surgery, and sepsis. * **Pathogenesis:** Bile stasis and gallbladder ischemia. * **Diagnosis:** Ultrasound is the initial test (look for gallbladder wall thickening >4mm or pericholecystic fluid without stones). **HIDA scan** is the most sensitive imaging if US is inconclusive. * **Management Rule:** If the patient is stable → Cholecystectomy; if unstable/high-risk → Percutaneous Cholecystostomy.
Question 333: Optical urethroplasty is indicated for which of the following conditions?
- A. Congenital stricture of the urethra (Correct Answer)
- B. Hypospadias
- C. Epispadias
- D. Testicular tumors
Explanation: **Explanation:** **Optical Urethroplasty** (also known as **Direct Vision Internal Urethrotomy - DVIU**) is a minimally invasive endoscopic procedure used to treat urethral strictures. It involves using an endoscope (urethrotome) equipped with a cold knife or laser to incise the fibrotic scar tissue of the stricture under direct visualization, thereby widening the urethral lumen. 1. **Why Option A is Correct:** **Congenital stricture of the urethra** (and short-segment acquired strictures, usually <1.5 cm) is the primary indication for optical urethroplasty. It is most effective for primary, non-obliterative strictures where the underlying corpus spongiosum is relatively healthy. 2. **Why the Other Options are Incorrect:** * **B & C (Hypospadias and Epispadias):** These are congenital malformations involving an abnormal location of the urethral meatus. They require complex **reconstructive plastic surgery** (e.g., Snodgrass procedure, MAGPI) to create a new urethra (urethroplasty) and correct penile curvature (chordee), rather than a simple internal incision. * **D (Testicular Tumors):** These are managed via **Radical Inguinal Orchidectomy**. Urethral procedures have no role in the management of testicular malignancies. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Gold Standard for Urethral Stricture:** While DVIU is common for short strictures, **Urethroplasty (Excision and Primary Anastomosis or Substitution)** is the gold standard for long-term cure, especially for recurrent or long-segment (>2 cm) strictures. * **Sachse’s Urethrotome:** The specific instrument used for Optical Urethroplasty. * **Contraindication:** DVIU should not be performed if there is an active urinary tract infection (UTI). * **Recurrence:** The most common complication of DVIU is the recurrence of the stricture.
Question 334: Struvite stones are primarily associated with which of the following ions?
- A. Magnesium (Correct Answer)
- B. Calcium
- C. Sodium and Potassium
- D. Both Magnesium and Calcium
Explanation: **Explanation:** Struvite stones, also known as **Triple Phosphate stones**, are composed of **Magnesium Ammonium Phosphate ($MgNH_4PO_4 \cdot 6H_2O$)**. They are primarily associated with **Magnesium**, Ammonium, and Phosphate ions. These stones form in the presence of urease-producing bacteria (most commonly *Proteus mirabilis*, but also *Klebsiella* and *Pseudomonas*). The bacterial enzyme urease splits urea into ammonia and carbon dioxide, which increases the urinary pH (alkaline urine), creating the ideal environment for magnesium ammonium phosphate to precipitate. **Analysis of Options:** * **Option A (Magnesium):** This is the primary cation that defines the chemical structure of a struvite stone. * **Option B (Calcium):** While calcium is the most common component of kidney stones overall (Calcium Oxalate), it is not the defining ion of struvite. However, struvite stones often contain a small amount of Calcium Phosphate (Carbonate Apatite), which leads to the term "Triple Phosphate." * **Option C (Sodium and Potassium):** These are monovalent cations that do not form the crystalline lattice of struvite stones. * **Option D (Both Magnesium and Calcium):** While both can be present, the question asks what they are *primarily* associated with. The hallmark of struvite is the Magnesium-Ammonium-Phosphate complex. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Morphology:** They typically form **Staghorn Calculi**, filling the renal pelvis and calyces. * **Microscopy:** Characteristic **"Coffin-lid"** appearance of crystals. * **Risk Factors:** More common in females due to a higher incidence of Urinary Tract Infections (UTIs). * **Radiology:** They are **Radio-opaque** (though less dense than calcium oxalate). * **Treatment:** Complete surgical removal (often via PCNL) is necessary because the stone acts as a reservoir for bacteria, leading to recurrent infections.
Question 335: What is the current treatment for short-segment passable stricture of the penile and bulbous urethra?
- A. Internal urethrotomy with Thompson-Walker's urethrotome
- B. Optical internal urethrotomy (Correct Answer)
- C. Syme's operation
- D. Wheelhouse operation
Explanation: **Explanation:** The management of urethral strictures depends on the location, length, and severity of the narrowing. For a **short-segment (<1.5–2 cm)**, passable stricture in the bulbar or penile urethra, **Optical Internal Urethrotomy (OIU)**, also known as **Direct Vision Internal Urethrotomy (DVIU)**, is the current treatment of choice. * **Why Option B is Correct:** OIU involves using an endoscope (urethrotome) to visualize the stricture directly and incising the fibrotic tissue (usually at the 12 o'clock position) using a cold knife or laser. It is minimally invasive, has a high immediate success rate for short primary strictures, and allows for rapid recovery. * **Why Options A, C, and D are Incorrect:** * **Option A:** Thompson-Walker’s urethrotome is used for **blind internal urethrotomy**. This technique is largely obsolete because it lacks endoscopic visualization, increasing the risk of false passages and rectal injury. * **Option C:** **Syme’s operation** (External Urethrotomy) is an older open surgical procedure where the stricture is opened via a perineal incision using a staff as a guide. It is rarely performed today. * **Option D:** **Wheelhouse operation** is an open procedure used for **impassable/obliterative** strictures where no guide wire can pass. It involves a perineal approach to find the proximal opening of the urethra. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Gold Standard for Long Strictures (>2 cm):** Urethroplasty (e.g., BMG - Buccal Mucosal Graft). * **Recurrence:** If a stricture recurs after the first OIU, the success rate of a second OIU is very low (<10%); Urethroplasty is then indicated. * **Most common site of post-traumatic stricture:** Bulbar urethra (due to straddle injury). * **Most common site of post-gonococcal stricture:** Bulbar urethra.
Question 336: All are true about Peyronie's disease except?
- A. Self limiting
- B. Medical treatment is effective (Correct Answer)
- C. Association with Dupuytren's contracture
- D. Calcified plaques
Explanation: **Explanation:** Peyronie’s disease is a localized connective tissue disorder characterized by the formation of a fibrous, inelastic **tunica albuginea plaque**, leading to penile deformity, pain, and erectile dysfunction. 1. **Why Option B is the Correct Answer (The "Except"):** While various oral agents (Vitamin E, Potaba, Colchicine, Tamoxifen) have been historically used, **medical treatment is largely ineffective** in reversing the plaque or correcting the curvature. The only FDA-approved non-surgical treatment is intralesional *Collagenase clostridium histolyticum* (Xiaflex), but even this has limited efficacy. Surgery remains the gold standard for stable, symptomatic disease. 2. **Analysis of Other Options:** * **Option A (Self-limiting):** The disease typically has two phases: an active inflammatory phase (painful) and a stable chronic phase. In many patients, the pain resolves spontaneously over 6–12 months, and in about 10–15% of cases, the curvature may improve without intervention. * **Option C (Association with Dupuytren's):** There is a strong clinical association (approx. 10–20%) between Peyronie’s disease and **Dupuytren’s contracture** (palmar fascia), as well as Ledderhose disease (plantar fascia), suggesting a common genetic predisposition to fibrotic disorders. * **Option D (Calcified plaques):** In the chronic, stable phase, the fibrous plaques often undergo **dystrophic calcification**, which can be visualized on ultrasound or X-ray. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Site:** Most commonly involves the **dorsal aspect** of the penis, leading to upward curvature. * **Surgery Timing:** Surgery is only indicated after the disease has been **stable for at least 6 months** (no pain, no change in deformity). * **Surgical Procedures:** * *Nesbit’s Procedure:* Plication of the convex side (shortens the long side). * *Plaque Incision/Excision and Grafting:* For severe curvature or short penis. * *Penile Prosthesis:* For patients with co-existing erectile dysfunction.
Question 337: All of the following are radiolucent kidney stones except?
- A. Uric acid
- B. Orotic acid
- C. Xanthiene
- D. Cysteine (Correct Answer)
Explanation: In urology, kidney stones are classified based on their appearance on a plain X-ray (KUB) as **Radiopaque** (visible), **Radiolucent** (invisible), or **Faintly Radiopaque**. ### **Why Cysteine is the Correct Answer** While most organic stones are radiolucent, **Cystine stones** are unique because they contain **Sulfur** atoms. Sulfur has a higher atomic number, which makes these stones **faintly radiopaque** (often described as having a "ground-glass" appearance). Therefore, they are not truly radiolucent like the other options. ### **Analysis of Incorrect Options (Truly Radiolucent Stones)** * **A. Uric Acid:** These are the most common radiolucent stones. They form in acidic urine and are completely invisible on X-ray but visible on CT scans (Non-Contrast CT is the gold standard). * **B. Orotic Acid:** These are rare stones associated with hereditary orotic aciduria. Like most pure organic acid stones, they do not attenuate X-rays and are radiolucent. * **C. Xanthine:** These occur due to xanthine oxidase deficiency (genetic or secondary to Allopurinol). They are also purely organic and radiolucent. ### **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG** * **Mnemonic for Radiolucent Stones:** **"U X O"** (Uric acid, Xanthine, Orotic acid/Indinavir). * **Cystine Stones:** Associated with a hexagonal crystal shape in urine ("Benzene ring") and a positive **Cyanide-Nitroprusside test**. * **Indinavir Stones:** These are the *only* stones that are radiolucent even on a CT scan. * **Most Radiopaque Stone:** Calcium Oxalate (Monohydrate > Dihydrate). * **Staghorn Calculi:** Usually composed of **Struvite** (Magnesium Ammonium Phosphate) and are radiopaque.
Question 338: What is the first force applied for tooth extraction?
- A. Buccal
- B. Lingual
- C. Apical (Correct Answer)
- D. Palatal
Explanation: **Explanation:** In exodontia, the sequence of force application is critical for a successful extraction and the prevention of root fracture. The **Apical force** is the first force applied when using dental forceps. **Why Apical Force is First:** 1. **Center of Rotation:** By pushing the forceps blades apically, the center of rotation of the tooth is moved further down the root. This reduces the risk of fracturing the root tip during subsequent movements. 2. **Expansion of Alveolus:** The apical pressure acts as a wedge between the tooth root and the alveolar bone, initiating the expansion of the bony socket. 3. **Grip:** It ensures the beaks of the forceps are seated firmly on the root structure rather than the crown, providing better mechanical advantage. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Buccal/Lingual/Palatal (A, B, D):** These are **lateral (luxation) forces**. While these movements are essential for expanding the cortical plates and severing the periodontal ligament (PDL) fibers, they must only be applied *after* the tooth has been firmly engaged with apical pressure. Applying lateral force first increases the likelihood of coronal or root fracture because the center of rotation remains too high. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Primary Objective:** The goal of forceps use is to expand the socket and sever the PDL, not to "pull" the tooth. * **Order of Force:** Apical → Buccal/Lingual (Luxation) → Rotational (for single-conical rooted teeth like Maxillary Incisors) → Tractional (Delivery). * **Mandibular Molars:** Usually require strong buccal and lingual pressures due to the density of the mandibular bone. * **Maxillary Molars:** Primarily buccal force is used because the buccal plate is thinner than the palatal plate.
Question 339: An elderly male presents with a pathological fracture. Investigations reveal normal serum calcium and phosphorus, but low urine calcium. Serum alkaline phosphatase and acid phosphatase are elevated. Bone biopsy shows osteoblastic metastases. What is the most likely primary tumor site in this patient?
- A. Renal cell carcinoma
- B. Prostate carcinoma (Correct Answer)
- C. Breast carcinoma
- D. Thyroid carcinoma
Explanation: **Explanation:** The clinical presentation of an elderly male with a pathological fracture and **osteoblastic (sclerotic) metastases** is a classic hallmark of **Prostate Carcinoma**. 1. **Why Prostate Carcinoma is correct:** * **Osteoblastic Lesions:** Unlike most cancers that cause osteolytic (bone-destroying) lesions, prostate cancer typically stimulates osteoblasts, leading to dense, sclerotic bone. * **Biochemical Markers:** Elevated **Acid Phosphatase** (specifically the prostatic acid phosphatase isoenzyme) is a traditional marker for extra-capsular spread of prostate cancer. Elevated **Alkaline Phosphatase (ALP)** reflects increased osteoblastic activity during bone remodeling. * **Calcium Profile:** In osteoblastic metastases, serum calcium is often normal or low (due to calcium being "trapped" in the new bone formation), leading to low urinary calcium. 2. **Why other options are incorrect:** * **Renal Cell Carcinoma (RCC):** Typically presents with purely **osteolytic** (punched-out) lesions that are highly vascular (pulsatile). * **Breast Carcinoma:** While it can be mixed, it is predominantly **osteolytic** in most cases (though it is the most common cause of osteoblastic lesions in *females*). * **Thyroid Carcinoma:** Usually presents with **osteolytic** metastases, often described as "cold" on bone scans but "hot" on iodine scans. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Most common site of bone metastasis in Prostate CA:** Lumbar spine (via the **Batson venous plexus**, which lacks valves). * **Osteoblastic vs. Osteolytic:** Prostate cancer is the most common cause of osteoblastic lesions in men; Breast cancer is the most common cause of mixed/osteoblastic lesions in women. * **PSA:** While Acid Phosphatase is mentioned here, **Prostate Specific Antigen (PSA)** is the modern gold-standard tumor marker for screening and monitoring.
Question 340: Which of the following statements about detrusor instability is false?
- A. 50% of men with bladder outflow obstruction have detrusor instability.
- B. Patients with neurogenic bladder may have detrusor instability.
- C. Genuine stress incontinence (GSI) is indistinguishable from detrusor instability. (Correct Answer)
- D. Urodynamic studies are essential for evaluation of detrusor instability.
Explanation: **Explanation:** **Detrusor Instability (Overactive Bladder)** is characterized by involuntary detrusor contractions during the filling phase of cystometry. 1. **Why Option C is the correct (False) statement:** **Genuine Stress Incontinence (GSI)** and **Detrusor Instability (DI)** are clinically and pathophysiologically distinct. GSI is a mechanical issue where intra-abdominal pressure exceeds urethral closure pressure (often due to pelvic floor laxity), leading to leakage during coughing or sneezing. DI is a functional/neuromuscular issue leading to urgency and frequency. While symptoms can overlap (Urge vs. Stress), they are **distinguishable** via clinical history and, definitively, through **urodynamic studies**. 2. **Analysis of other options:** * **Option A:** True. Approximately 50-75% of men with Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH) and bladder outflow obstruction develop secondary detrusor instability due to compensatory changes in the bladder wall. * **Option B:** True. Neurogenic bladder (e.g., due to spinal cord injury or Multiple Sclerosis) frequently presents with detrusor overactivity (detrusor hyperreflexia). * **Option C:** True. Urodynamics (Cystometry) is the **gold standard** for diagnosis, as it demonstrates involuntary contractions that cannot be suppressed by the patient. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **First-line treatment for DI:** Bladder retraining and lifestyle modifications. * **Pharmacotherapy for DI:** Anticholinergics (Oxybutynin, Tolterodine) or Beta-3 agonists (Mirabegron). * **Mixed Incontinence:** When a patient exhibits symptoms of both GSI and DI; urodynamics is crucial here to determine which component is predominant before surgery. * **Bladder Compliance:** A decrease in compliance is a hallmark of a "stiff" bladder, often seen in chronic DI or neurogenic cases.
Practice by Chapter
Urological Anatomy
Practice Questions
Hematuria Evaluation
Practice Questions
Urinary Calculi
Practice Questions
Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia
Practice Questions
Prostate Cancer
Practice Questions
Bladder Cancer
Practice Questions
Renal Cell Carcinoma
Practice Questions
Testicular Tumors
Practice Questions
Urinary Tract Infections
Practice Questions
Urinary Incontinence
Practice Questions
Genitourinary Trauma
Practice Questions
Pediatric Urology Basics
Practice Questions
Want unlimited practice?
Get full access to all questions, explanations, and performance tracking.
Start For Free