Urology — MCQs
On this page
Renal stone formation is a multistep process that includes supersaturation of the urine, lack of inhibitory substances, and urinary stasis. Which type of renal calculi is associated with Proteus infection?
A 35-year-old premenopausal patient has recently developed a 1.5 cm pigmented lesion on her back. Which of the following forms of tissue diagnosis will you recommend?
The tooth most commonly involved in chronic focal sclerosing osteomyelitis is?
Which of the following is the most common cause of urinary tract infection?
A child presents with severe scrotal pain and a history suggestive of testicular torsion. What is the definitive management?
During a routine checkup, a 50-year-old man is found to have blood in his urine. He is otherwise in excellent health. An abdominal CT scan reveals a 2-cm right renal mass. You inform the patient that staging of this tumor is key to selecting treatment and evaluating prognosis. Which of the following is the most important staging factor for this patient?
A 60-year-old man with prostate cancer and osteoblastic secondaries in the pelvis and lumbar vertebrae showed well-differentiated adenocarcinoma of the prostate on needle biopsy. What is the first-line treatment?
A 50-year-old male presents with hematuria and abdominal pain. What is the most likely cause, excluding one of the following?
Which one of the following is used as an irrigation solution during transurethral resection of the prostate?
Circumcision is indicated in which of the following conditions?
Urology Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 231: Renal stone formation is a multistep process that includes supersaturation of the urine, lack of inhibitory substances, and urinary stasis. Which type of renal calculi is associated with Proteus infection?
- A. Uric acid
- B. Triple phosphate (Correct Answer)
- C. Calcium oxalate
- D. Xanthine
Explanation: **Explanation:** The correct answer is **Triple phosphate (B)**. These stones, also known as **Struvite** or **Infective stones**, are composed of Magnesium Ammonium Phosphate. **Pathophysiology:** The formation of triple phosphate stones is intrinsically linked to urinary tract infections (UTIs) caused by **urease-producing organisms**, most notably ***Proteus mirabilis*** (others include *Klebsiella*, *Pseudomonas*, and *Staphylococcus*). These bacteria produce the enzyme urease, which hydrolyzes urea into ammonia and carbon dioxide. This process increases urinary pH (alkaline urine, pH > 7.2), which decreases the solubility of phosphate, leading to the precipitation of magnesium ammonium phosphate crystals. These often grow rapidly to form large **Staghorn calculi** that fill the renal pelvis and calyces. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **A. Uric acid:** These stones form in **acidic urine** (pH < 5.5). They are radiolucent on X-ray and are associated with gout or high purine turnover. * **C. Calcium oxalate:** The most common type of renal stone worldwide. They are generally associated with hypercalciuria or hyperoxaluria rather than specific bacterial infections. * **D. Xanthine:** Rare stones caused by a genetic deficiency of the enzyme xanthine oxidase or the use of allopurinol. **High-Yield Pearls for NEET-PG:** 1. **Microscopy:** Triple phosphate crystals have a characteristic **"Coffin-lid"** appearance. 2. **Radiology:** They are **radio-opaque** (though less dense than calcium oxalate). 3. **Staghorn Appearance:** While most staghorn calculi are struvite, in children, they may be composed of cystine. 4. **Treatment:** Requires complete surgical removal of the stone and eradication of the infection, as the stone itself acts as a nidus for bacteria.
Question 232: A 35-year-old premenopausal patient has recently developed a 1.5 cm pigmented lesion on her back. Which of the following forms of tissue diagnosis will you recommend?
- A. Needle biopsy
- B. Trucut biopsy
- C. Excision biopsy (Correct Answer)
- D. Incisional biopsy
Explanation: **Explanation:** The clinical presentation of a **pigmented lesion** (especially one that is 1.5 cm) must be managed with a high index of suspicion for **Malignant Melanoma**. **1. Why Excision Biopsy is the Correct Choice:** For any suspicious pigmented lesion, the gold standard for diagnosis is an **Excisional Biopsy** with a narrow margin (typically 1–3 mm). The primary reason is that the prognosis and surgical management of melanoma are determined by the **Breslow Depth** (vertical thickness of the tumor). An excisional biopsy provides the pathologist with the entire architecture of the lesion to measure this depth accurately. **2. Why Other Options are Incorrect:** * **Needle Biopsy (FNA) & Trucut Biopsy:** These are contraindicated for primary pigmented lesions. They provide only a small tissue sample, which may lead to **sampling errors** and, more importantly, fail to provide the full thickness required to determine the Breslow depth. * **Incisional Biopsy:** This involves removing only a portion of the lesion. It is generally avoided because it may miss the thickest part of the tumor and theoretically risks "seeding" or disrupting the local lymphatics, though the primary concern remains inaccurate staging. It is only reserved for very large lesions in cosmetically sensitive areas (e.g., face or subungual). **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Breslow Thickness:** The most important prognostic factor in cutaneous melanoma. * **Safety Margins:** Once melanoma is confirmed via excision biopsy, a **Wide Local Excision (WLE)** is performed with margins based on the Breslow depth (e.g., 1 cm margin for depth <1 mm; 2 cm margin for depth >2 mm). * **ABCDE Criteria:** Remember the signs of melanoma—**A**symmetry, **B**order irregularity, **C**olor variegation, **D**iameter >6 mm, and **E**volving.
Question 233: The tooth most commonly involved in chronic focal sclerosing osteomyelitis is?
- A. Maxillary second molar
- B. Maxillary third molar
- C. Maxillary first molar
- D. Mandibular first molar (Correct Answer)
Explanation: **Explanation:** **Chronic Focal Sclerosing Osteomyelitis**, also known as **Condensing Osteitis**, is a periapical inflammatory reaction characterized by localized bone sclerosis. It occurs as a response to a low-grade, chronic infection or irritation (usually from pulpitis or pulpal necrosis) in individuals with high tissue resistance. **Why the Mandibular First Molar is Correct:** The **mandibular first molar** is the most common tooth involved because it is typically the first permanent tooth to erupt in the oral cavity. Consequently, it is exposed to the oral environment the longest, making it the tooth most frequently affected by dental caries and subsequent chronic pulpal inflammation. The dense bone of the mandible (compared to the maxilla) also favors the formation of sclerotic bone rather than drainage. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Maxillary Molars (A, B, C):** While these teeth can develop condensing osteitis, the maxilla has a more vascular, cancellous bone structure which is less prone to the focal radiopaque "sclerotic" reaction seen in the mandible. Furthermore, the mandibular first molar's earlier eruption date gives it a statistical lead in pathology frequency. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Radiographic Appearance:** Presents as a well-defined, uniform **radiopacity** at the apex of the root. The periodontal ligament (PDL) space may be widened, but the radiopacity is not separated from the root by a radiolucent rim (unlike cementoblastoma). * **Demographics:** Most commonly seen in children and young adults (under age 20). * **Treatment:** No specific treatment is needed for the bone itself; management focuses on treating the source of infection (Root Canal Treatment or Extraction). The "bone scar" may remain even after the tooth is treated. * **Differential Diagnosis:** Must be distinguished from **Idiopathic Osteosclerosis** (which occurs in vital teeth without an inflammatory cause).
Question 234: Which of the following is the most common cause of urinary tract infection?
- A. Instrumentation (Correct Answer)
- B. Urethral diverticulum
- C. Bladder stones
- D. Pregnancy
Explanation: **Explanation:** **Instrumentation** is the most common cause of urinary tract infections (UTIs) in a clinical or hospital setting. The underlying medical concept is the disruption of the natural mucosal barrier and the direct introduction of periurethral flora into the bladder. Specifically, **catheterization** accounts for nearly 80% of healthcare-associated UTIs. Biofilm formation on the surface of the catheter provides a protected environment for bacteria to multiply, bypassing the body’s primary defense mechanism (micturition/flushing action). **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Urethral Diverticulum:** While it causes stasis of urine which leads to infection, it is a relatively rare structural abnormality compared to the frequency of medical instrumentation. * **Bladder Stones:** These act as a nidus for infection and cause chronic irritation, but they are usually a *complication* of stasis or existing infection rather than the most common primary cause. * **Pregnancy:** Pregnancy increases the risk of UTI (and progression to pyelonephritis) due to progesterone-induced ureteral dilatation and mechanical compression by the gravid uterus. However, statistically, it affects a specific demographic, whereas instrumentation is a universal risk factor across all age groups and genders in clinical practice. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Most common organism:** *Escherichia coli* (both community and hospital-acquired). * **Most common nosocomial infection:** Urinary Tract Infection (usually secondary to catheterization). * **Key Prevention:** The most effective way to prevent catheter-associated UTI (CAUTI) is to avoid unnecessary catheterization and remove the catheter as soon as possible. * **Definition:** Significant bacteriuria is typically defined as $\geq 10^5$ colony-forming units (CFU)/mL in a midstream urine sample.
Question 235: A child presents with severe scrotal pain and a history suggestive of testicular torsion. What is the definitive management?
- A. Elevation of the testes to relieve pain
- B. Rest and antibiotics
- C. Scrotal hypothermia
- D. Surgical exploration and detorsion (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ### Explanation **1. Why Option D is Correct:** Testicular torsion is a **surgical emergency** caused by the twisting of the spermatic cord, leading to venous occlusion followed by arterial compromise and testicular ischemia. The "Golden Period" for salvage is within **6 hours** of symptom onset. Definitive management requires immediate **surgical exploration**. During surgery, the testis is detorsed; if viable, a bilateral **orchidopexy** (fixation of both testes) is performed because the anatomical defect (e.g., Bell-clapper deformity) is usually bilateral. If the testis is gangrenous, an orchidectomy is performed. **2. Why Other Options are Incorrect:** * **Option A (Elevation of testes):** This refers to **Prehn’s sign**. While elevation may relieve pain in epididymo-orchitis (Positive Prehn's), it typically exacerbates pain in torsion (Negative Prehn's). Regardless, it is a diagnostic physical sign, not a treatment. * **Option B (Rest and antibiotics):** This is the management for acute epididymo-orchitis. Delaying surgery in torsion to trial antibiotics leads to testicular necrosis. * **Option C (Scrotal hypothermia):** Cooling does not resolve the mechanical twist or restore blood flow; it has no role in definitive management. **3. NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Most common age:** Bimodal distribution (Neonatal period and Puberty). * **Diagnosis:** Primarily clinical. **Color Doppler Ultrasound** is the investigation of choice (shows decreased/absent flow), but surgery should not be delayed for imaging if clinical suspicion is high. * **Reflex:** The **Cremasteric reflex** is characteristically absent in torsion. * **Manual Detorsion:** Performed via the "Open Book" maneuver (rotating the testis from medial to lateral), but this is only a temporizing measure before definitive surgery.
Question 236: During a routine checkup, a 50-year-old man is found to have blood in his urine. He is otherwise in excellent health. An abdominal CT scan reveals a 2-cm right renal mass. You inform the patient that staging of this tumor is key to selecting treatment and evaluating prognosis. Which of the following is the most important staging factor for this patient?
- A. Histologic grade of the tumor
- B. Metastases to regional lymph nodes (Correct Answer)
- C. Proliferative capacity of the tumor cells
- D. Somatic mutations in the p53 tumor suppressor gene
Explanation: **Explanation:** The clinical presentation of an incidental 2-cm renal mass in a 50-year-old male is highly suggestive of **Renal Cell Carcinoma (RCC)**. In the management of RCC, staging is the single most important predictor of survival and the primary determinant of surgical strategy. **Why Option B is Correct:** The **TNM (Tumor, Node, Metastasis) staging system** is the gold standard for evaluating the prognosis of RCC. Among the options provided, the presence of **metastases to regional lymph nodes (N stage)** is a critical component of anatomical staging. Patients with lymph node involvement (N1) have a significantly worse 5-year survival rate compared to those with localized disease (N0). While the tumor size (T1a for 2 cm) is small, the status of regional nodes remains a more powerful prognostic factor for systemic spread and overall survival than histological or molecular markers. **Why Other Options are Incorrect:** * **Option A (Histologic Grade):** While the Fuhrman or ISUP grading systems provide information about the aggressiveness of the tumor, they are secondary to the anatomical stage (TNM) in predicting outcomes. * **Option C & D (Proliferative capacity/p53 mutations):** These are molecular and cellular markers. While they are subjects of ongoing research, they are not currently used in standard clinical staging or as primary determinants for treatment protocols in RCC. **High-Yield NEET-PG Pearls:** * **Most common subtype:** Clear cell RCC (associated with VHL gene deletion on chromosome 3p). * **Classic Triad (rarely seen now):** Hematuria, flank pain, and palpable mass. * **Staging Fact:** RCC has a propensity for **venous invasion** (renal vein and IVC), which is a key feature of the 'T' stage. * **Treatment:** For a 2-cm mass (T1a), **Partial Nephrectomy** (nephron-sparing surgery) is the treatment of choice.
Question 237: A 60-year-old man with prostate cancer and osteoblastic secondaries in the pelvis and lumbar vertebrae showed well-differentiated adenocarcinoma of the prostate on needle biopsy. What is the first-line treatment?
- A. Proscavax vaccine
- B. Transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP)
- C. Radical prostatectomy
- D. Hormonal ablation (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ### Explanation **Correct Answer: D. Hormonal ablation** **Why it is correct:** The patient presents with **Metastatic Prostate Cancer** (Stage IV), evidenced by osteoblastic secondaries in the pelvis and lumbar vertebrae. In metastatic disease, the goal of treatment shifts from curative to palliative. Prostate cancer cells are androgen-dependent; therefore, **Androgen Deprivation Therapy (ADT)** or hormonal ablation is the gold standard first-line treatment. This can be achieved surgically (Bilateral Orchidectomy) or medically (LHRH agonists like Leuprolide or GnRH antagonists like Degarelix). It aims to reduce serum testosterone to castrate levels (<50 ng/dL), leading to tumor regression and symptomatic relief from bone pain. **Why incorrect options are wrong:** * **A. Proscavax vaccine:** This is an immunotherapy (similar to Sipuleucel-T) used primarily in asymptomatic or minimally symptomatic **Metastatic Castration-Resistant Prostate Cancer (mCRPC)**, not as a first-line therapy for hormone-sensitive disease. * **B. TURP:** This is a palliative procedure used only to relieve bladder outlet obstruction symptoms. It does not treat the underlying malignancy or the metastatic spread. * **C. Radical Prostatectomy:** This is the treatment of choice for **localized** prostate cancer (Stage T1 or T2). It is generally not indicated in the presence of distant metastases as it cannot provide a cure. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Osteoblastic Metastasis:** Prostate cancer is the most common cause of osteoblastic (bone-forming) lesions in elderly males. * **Flare Phenomenon:** When starting LHRH agonists (e.g., Leuprolide), there is a transient rise in testosterone. To prevent a "flare" of bone pain or spinal cord compression, **Anti-androgens (e.g., Flutamide or Bicalutamide)** must be administered for 2 weeks prior. * **Most common site of metastasis:** Bone (specifically the axial skeleton via Batson’s venous plexus).
Question 238: A 50-year-old male presents with hematuria and abdominal pain. What is the most likely cause, excluding one of the following?
- A. Renal stone
- B. Renal cell cancer
- C. Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) (Correct Answer)
- D. Urothelial carcinoma
Explanation: ### Explanation The clinical presentation of **painless or painful hematuria associated with abdominal pain** in a 50-year-old male typically points toward upper urinary tract pathology or malignancy. **Why BPH is the correct (excluded) answer:** While Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH) is a very common cause of hematuria in elderly males, it typically presents with **Lower Urinary Tract Symptoms (LUTS)** such as frequency, urgency, nocturia, and a weak stream. Crucially, BPH **does not cause abdominal pain** unless it leads to acute urinary retention (causing suprapubic pain). In the context of a differential diagnosis for hematuria and general abdominal pain, BPH is the least likely fit compared to renal or ureteral pathologies. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Renal Stone:** This is a classic cause of hematuria accompanied by sharp, colicky abdominal or flank pain (ureteric colic). * **Renal Cell Cancer (RCC):** The "classic triad" of RCC includes hematuria, abdominal pain, and a palpable mass. Even if the triad is incomplete, hematuria and dull ache are common presentations. * **Urothelial Carcinoma:** Tumors of the renal pelvis or ureter can cause hematuria and obstructive abdominal/flank pain due to blood clots or the tumor itself causing hydronephrosis. **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Most common cause of gross hematuria in patients >50 years:** Bladder Cancer (Urothelial). * **Most common cause of microscopic hematuria:** BPH. * **Painful hematuria** usually suggests infection or calculi, while **painless hematuria** in an older adult is "malignancy until proven otherwise." * **Initial Investigation of choice for Hematuria:** NCCT Urography (CT KUB).
Question 239: Which one of the following is used as an irrigation solution during transurethral resection of the prostate?
- A. 1.5% glycine (Correct Answer)
- B. Physiological saline
- C. Ringer's lactate
- D. 5% dextrose
Explanation: **Explanation:** The primary goal of an irrigation fluid during Transurethral Resection of the Prostate (TURP) is to provide clear visualization while remaining non-conductive and non-hemolytic. **1. Why 1.5% Glycine is Correct:** Glycine (1.5%) is a non-electrolytic, isotonic solution. Because it does not conduct electricity, it allows the use of **monopolar electrocautery** without dispersing the current. It is also transparent, ensuring a clear surgical field. While it is the standard choice, its absorption into the systemic circulation can lead to "TURP Syndrome" (dilutional hyponatremia and glycine toxicity). **2. Why Incorrect Options are Wrong:** * **Physiological Saline (0.9% NaCl) & Ringer's Lactate:** These are electrolytic solutions. They conduct electricity, which would cause the electrical current from a monopolar resectoscope to dissipate into the fluid rather than focusing on the tissue, potentially causing thermal injury to the bladder. *Note: Saline is used only in Bipolar TURP.* * **5% Dextrose:** While non-conductive, it is sticky (impairing visualization) and can cause significant hyperglycemia and osmotic diuresis if absorbed systemically. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **TURP Syndrome:** Caused by the absorption of large volumes of glycine. Key features include hyponatremia, confusion, visual disturbances (glycine acts as an inhibitory neurotransmitter in the retina), and fluid overload. * **Bipolar TURP:** This newer technique uses **Normal Saline** as irrigation, significantly reducing the risk of TURP syndrome. * **Other Fluids:** Sorbitol and Mannitol are also non-conductive alternatives but are less commonly used than Glycine. * **Height of Fluid Bag:** Should be kept at approximately **60 cm** above the patient to maintain flow without forcing excessive fluid into the venous sinuses.
Question 240: Circumcision is indicated in which of the following conditions?
- A. Phimosis
- B. Recurrent balanitis
- C. Paraphimosis
- D. All of the above (Correct Answer)
Explanation: **Explanation:** Circumcision is the surgical removal of the prepuce (foreskin) and is one of the most common urological procedures. It is indicated for both therapeutic and prophylactic reasons. * **Phimosis (Option A):** This is the inability to retract the prepuce over the glans penis. While physiological in infants, pathological phimosis (often due to Balanitis Xerotica Obliterans) causes urinary obstruction or pain, making circumcision the definitive treatment. * **Recurrent Balanitis/Balanoposthitis (Option B):** Inflammation of the glans (balanitis) and the prepuce (posthitis) is common in uncircumcised males, especially those with diabetes. Recurrence leads to scarring and secondary phimosis; thus, circumcision is indicated to maintain hygiene and prevent further infections. * **Paraphimosis (Option C):** This is a urological emergency where a retracted tight foreskin becomes trapped behind the corona, causing venous congestion and edema. While initial management involves manual reduction, circumcision is required electively to prevent recurrence. Since all three conditions are classic indications for the procedure, **Option D** is the correct answer. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Absolute Contraindication:** **Hypospadias** (the prepuce is needed for future reconstructive skin flaps). Other contraindications include chordee and bleeding diathesis. * **Balanitis Xerotica Obliterans (BXO):** This is the most common cause of pathological phimosis and is considered a premalignant condition. * **Protective Effect:** Circumcision significantly reduces the risk of **Penile Carcinoma** and decreases the transmission of HIV and HPV. * **Complication:** The most common acute complication is **hemorrhage**, while the most common late complication is **meatal stenosis**.
Practice by Chapter
Urological Anatomy
Practice Questions
Hematuria Evaluation
Practice Questions
Urinary Calculi
Practice Questions
Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia
Practice Questions
Prostate Cancer
Practice Questions
Bladder Cancer
Practice Questions
Renal Cell Carcinoma
Practice Questions
Testicular Tumors
Practice Questions
Urinary Tract Infections
Practice Questions
Urinary Incontinence
Practice Questions
Genitourinary Trauma
Practice Questions
Pediatric Urology Basics
Practice Questions
Want unlimited practice?
Get full access to all questions, explanations, and performance tracking.
Start For Free