Urology Practice Questions

Q: What is the most common site for extramammary Paget's disease?

Vulva. **Explanation:** **Extramammary Paget’s Disease (EMPD)** is a rare intraepithelial adenocarcinoma that arises in skin areas rich in apocrine sweat glands. **Why Vulva is Correct:** The **vulva** is the most common site for EMPD, accounting for approximately **65% of all cases**. It typically presents in postmenopausal Caucasian women as a well-demarcated, erythematous, "eczematous-looking" plaque that may be itchy or burning. Histologically, it is characterized by the presence of **Paget cells** (large cells with clear, mucinous cytoplasm) within the epidermis. Unlike mammary Paget’s disease, which is almost always associated with an underlying breast malignancy, EMPD is associated with an underlying internal malignancy (like urogenital or colorectal cancer) in only about 20–30% of cases. **Why Other Options are Incorrect:** * **Vagina:** Primary Paget’s disease of the vagina is extremely rare; it usually occurs as a secondary extension from vulvar disease. * **Penis/Scrotum:** While the male genitalia are the second most common site for EMPD, they are significantly less frequently involved than the vulva. * **Anus:** Perianal Paget’s disease is the third most common site. It is clinically significant because it has a much higher association with underlying visceral (colorectal) malignancy compared to vulvar EMPD. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Staining:** Paget cells are **PAS positive**, **Alcian blue positive**, and **Mucicarmine positive** (indicating mucin production). * **Immunohistochemistry (IHC):** Typically **CK7 positive** and **CEA positive**. * **Differential Diagnosis:** Often misdiagnosed as chronic eczema, psoriasis, or fungal infection due to its "strawberries and cream" appearance. * **Management:** Wide local excision is the treatment of choice, though recurrence rates are high due to multifocal "skip" lesions.

Q: Regarding ectopia vesicae, which of the following is true EXCEPT?

There is a ventral curvature of the penis.. **Explanation** Ectopia vesicae (Bladder Exstrophy) is a complex congenital malformation resulting from a failure of the infra-umbilical anterior abdominal wall and bladder neck to fuse. **Why Option B is the correct answer (The Exception):** In ectopia vesicae, the penis is typically short and broad with a **dorsal curvature** (chordee), not a ventral one. This is because the urethral groove is open on the dorsal surface (Epispadias), and the corpora cavernosa are separated and shortened, pulling the penis upward toward the abdominal wall. Ventral curvature is characteristic of Hypospadias, not Exstrophy-Epispadias complex. **Analysis of other options:** * **Option A (True):** Chronic irritation and metaplasia of the exposed bladder mucosa significantly increase the risk of malignancy, most commonly **Adenocarcinoma** (due to glandular metaplasia), unlike the usual transitional cell carcinoma. * **Option C (True):** Since the bladder neck and sphincteric mechanisms are malformed and open, there is no reservoir function, leading to continuous **total incontinence**. * **Option D (True):** Because the posterior bladder wall (trigone) is exposed to the exterior, the ureteric orifices are visible, and one can directly observe the intermittent **efflux of urine** from them. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Associated skeletal finding:** Widening of the symphysis pubis (diastasis). * **Umbilicus:** Positioned lower than normal. * **Management:** Primary closure is ideally performed within 48–72 hours of birth. * **Most common malignancy:** Adenocarcinoma of the bladder. * **Key distinction:** Epispadias is always present in bladder exstrophy.

Q: What is the first-line treatment for overactive bladder?

Behavioural therapy. **Explanation:** **Overactive Bladder (OAB)** is a clinical syndrome characterized by urinary urgency, usually accompanied by frequency and nocturia, with or without urgency urinary incontinence. **Why Behavioural Therapy is Correct:** According to the American Urological Association (AUA) and European Association of Urology (EAU) guidelines, **Behavioural Therapy is the first-line treatment** for OAB. It is non-invasive, has no systemic side effects, and is highly effective. It includes: * **Bladder training:** Scheduled voiding to increase bladder capacity. * **Pelvic floor muscle training (Kegel exercises):** To inhibit detrusor contractions. * **Lifestyle modifications:** Fluid management, caffeine reduction, and weight loss. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **A. Antimuscarinic drugs (e.g., Oxybutynin, Tolterodine):** These are **second-line** treatments. They work by blocking M3 receptors on the detrusor muscle but are often limited by side effects like dry mouth, constipation, and blurred vision. * **C. Cholinergic drugs:** These (e.g., Bethanechol) stimulate bladder contraction and are used in urinary retention/hypotonic bladder, not OAB. OAB requires *anti*-cholinergics. * **D. Botulinum toxin type A:** This is a **third-line** treatment. It is reserved for patients refractory to behavioural and pharmacological therapies and is administered via intra-detrusor injection. **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Gold Standard Investigation:** Urodynamic study (shows detrusor overactivity). * **Mirabegron:** A $\beta_3$-adrenoceptor agonist, used as a second-line alternative to antimuscarinics (preferred in elderly to avoid cognitive side effects). * **Surgical Management:** Augmentation cystoplasty is the last resort for refractory cases.

Q: What is this study?

Retrograde Pyelogram. ***Retrograde Pyelogram*** - Shows **contrast injected via ureteral catheter** with **pelvicalyceal system opacification** without nephrogram phase, characteristic of retrograde approach. - **Catheter visible** ascending from below through the ureter, confirming retrograde contrast injection technique. *Ultrasound* - Uses **sound waves** without any contrast material, producing grayscale images of organ structure. - Cannot demonstrate the **detailed pelvicalyceal anatomy** with contrast opacification seen in this study. *X Ray KUB* - Plain radiograph showing **bones and soft tissue shadows** without any contrast enhancement. - Would not show the **opacified collecting system** or ureteral catheter as clearly demonstrated here. *Contrast CT KUB* - Provides **cross-sectional images** in axial, coronal, and sagittal planes with contrast enhancement. - Would show **nephrogram phase** with parenchymal enhancement, unlike this study which shows only collecting system opacification.

Q: Peyronie's disease affects which of the following structures?

Penis. **Explanation:** **Peyronie’s Disease** is a localized connective tissue disorder characterized by the formation of a fibrous inelastic scar (plaque) within the **tunica albuginea** of the **penis**. This plaque leads to a loss of elasticity, resulting in a characteristic curvature of the penis during erection, which may be accompanied by pain and erectile dysfunction. **Why the correct answer is right:** * **Penis:** The pathology specifically involves the tunica albuginea surrounding the corpora cavernosa. Repeated microvascular injury during sexual activity is thought to trigger an abnormal wound-healing response, leading to collagen deposition and plaque formation. **Why the incorrect options are wrong:** * **Breast:** Disorders involving fibrous bands in the breast include Mondor’s disease (superficial thrombophlebitis), but not Peyronie’s. * **Vagina:** While the vagina can have fibrotic conditions (like lichen sclerosus), Peyronie’s is anatomically specific to the male phallus. * **Scrotum:** Scrotal pathologies typically involve the tunica vaginalis (e.g., hydrocele) or the contents (testis/epididymis), not the fibrous plaque formation seen in Peyronie’s. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Association:** Strongly associated with **Dupuytren’s contracture** (palmar fascia fibrosis) in about 10–20% of cases. It is also linked to Ledderhose disease (plantar fibrosis). * **Clinical Features:** Painful erections (early phase), palpable dorsal plaque, and abnormal curvature (usually dorsal). * **Management:** * *Medical:* Vitamin E, Potaba, or intralesional injections (Collagenase *Clostridium histolyticum*). * *Surgical:* Indicated if the deformity prevents intercourse (e.g., Nesbit’s procedure/plication or plaque excision with grafting).

Q: A 55-year-old smoker presents with a history of five episodes of macroscopic hematuria, each lasting for about 4-5 days over the past five years. Which of the following investigations should be performed to evaluate the suspected diagnosis?

Urine microscopy and cytology. **Explanation:** The clinical presentation of a 55-year-old smoker with recurrent episodes of painless macroscopic hematuria is highly suspicious for **Bladder Cancer (Urothelial Carcinoma)**. In any patient over 40 with painless hematuria, malignancy must be ruled out until proven otherwise. **Why Option A is correct:** **Urine cytology** is a critical initial screening tool for urothelial malignancy. It has high specificity (up to 95%) for detecting high-grade malignant cells shed into the urine. **Urine microscopy** is essential to confirm the presence of RBCs and rule out other causes like infection (pyuria) or glomerular disease (dysmorphic RBCs/casts). **Why other options are incorrect:** * **B. X-ray KUB:** Primarily used to detect radiopaque renal calculi. It has no role in diagnosing soft tissue bladder tumors. * **C. Ultrasound KUB:** While useful for screening the upper tract and identifying large bladder masses, it can miss small or flat (CIS) lesions. It is often an adjunct, but cytology is more specific for malignancy screening. * **D. DTPA Scan:** This is a nuclear medicine study used to assess the Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR) and renal function/obstruction. It provides no diagnostic information regarding hematuria or malignancy. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Gold Standard Investigation:** Cystoscopy is the definitive investigation for bladder cancer as it allows direct visualization and biopsy. * **Risk Factors:** Smoking is the most significant risk factor for bladder cancer (linked to β-naphthylamine). * **Imaging of Choice:** For staging and upper tract evaluation, **CT Urography** is the preferred modality. * **Classic Triad:** Painless, intermittent, macroscopic hematuria in an elderly smoker = Bladder Cancer.

Q: Which of the following statements about varicocele is false?

It is typically present in old age patients.. **Explanation:** **Why Option D is the Correct Answer (The False Statement):** Varicocele is primarily a condition of **young adults and adolescents**, typically appearing during puberty (ages 15–25). It is caused by the physiological increase in blood flow to the testes during this period. If a varicocele appears suddenly in an **elderly patient**, it is considered a "red flag." This often suggests a secondary cause, such as a **Renal Cell Carcinoma (RCC)** obstructing the renal vein or a retroperitoneal tumor causing venous compression. **Analysis of Other Options:** * **Option A (Left testis):** This is true. 90% of varicoceles occur on the left side due to anatomical reasons: the left spermatic vein is longer, enters the left renal vein at a **right angle**, and lacks effective valves, leading to higher hydrostatic pressure. * **Option B (Infertility):** This is true. Varicoceles are the most common reversible cause of male infertility. They cause stasis of blood, leading to **increased scrotal temperature** and reflux of adrenal metabolites, which impair spermatogenesis (decreased count and motility). * **Option C (Palomo procedure):** This is true. The Palomo procedure involves a **high ligation** of the spermatic veins (and often the artery) at the level of the internal inguinal ring. Other surgical options include the Ivanissevich (inguinal) and Marmar (sub-inguinal microsurgical) procedures. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Examination:** Characterized by a **"bag of worms"** feel on palpation. * **Grading:** Grade I (palpable only with Valsalva), Grade II (palpable standing), Grade III (visible through scrotal skin). * **Diagnosis:** Color Doppler Ultrasound is the gold standard investigation. * **Indication for Surgery:** Pain, testicular atrophy, or infertility with abnormal semen analysis.

Q: What is the most appropriate treatment for acute paronychia?

Partial nail removal. **Explanation:** Acute paronychia is a localized infection of the nail fold, most commonly caused by *Staphylococcus aureus*. The management depends on the stage of the infection and the presence of an underlying abscess. **Why Partial Nail Removal is Correct:** In cases of acute paronychia where an abscess has formed beneath the nail plate (subungual extension), simple incision of the soft tissue is insufficient. **Partial nail removal** (specifically of the lateral edge of the nail) is the most effective treatment because it ensures complete decompression of the subungual space and allows for adequate drainage of the infected pocket. This approach prevents recurrence and promotes faster healing compared to simple soft tissue drainage. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **B. Nail Removal:** Complete nail avulsion is overly aggressive for a localized paronychia and is generally reserved for severe fungal infections (onychomycosis) or extensive subungual trauma. * **C. Lifting of the Eponychium:** This technique (using a flat probe or elevator) is used for very early, superficial paronychia. However, it is often inadequate if the pus has already tracked under the nail plate. * **D. Incision and Drainage:** While I&D is standard for most abscesses, in paronychia, a simple skin incision often fails to drain the subungual component, leading to treatment failure. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Most common organism:** *Staphylococcus aureus* (Acute); *Candida albicans* (Chronic). * **Chronic Paronychia:** Defined as lasting >6 weeks; treatment involves avoiding moisture and topical steroids/antifungals (Marsupialization is the surgical option). * **Felon:** An infection of the pulp space of the finger; requires a lateral longitudinal incision to avoid damaging the digital nerves and vessels.

Q: A 68-year-old male with hypertension presents for annual examination. On review of systems, he reports urinary hesitancy and nocturia. His examination reveals a nontender but enlarged prostate without nodules. His blood pressure logs and clinic readings show average values of 150/80 mm Hg. Which medication offer treatment of hypertension and prostatic symptoms?

Terazosin. **Explanation:** The patient presents with classic symptoms of **Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH)** (urinary hesitancy, nocturia, enlarged smooth prostate) and **Stage 2 Hypertension**. The goal is to identify a medication that addresses both conditions simultaneously. **Why Terazosin is correct:** Terazosin is a **selective alpha-1 adrenergic receptor antagonist**. 1. **In BPH:** It relaxes the smooth muscle in the bladder neck and prostatic capsule, reducing dynamic urethral obstruction and improving urinary flow. 2. **In Hypertension:** It causes peripheral vasodilation by blocking alpha-1 receptors on vascular smooth muscle, thereby lowering blood pressure. While no longer first-line for isolated hypertension, alpha-blockers (Terazosin, Doxazosin) are the drug of choice for patients with comorbid BPH. **Why other options are incorrect:** * **A. Aliskiren:** A direct renin inhibitor. While it treats hypertension, it has no effect on the smooth muscle of the prostate. * **B. Propranolol:** A non-selective beta-blocker. It is used for tremors, portal hypertension, or migraine prophylaxis, but it does not improve BPH symptoms and may even worsen them by allowing unopposed alpha-constriction. * **C. Furosemide:** A loop diuretic. It treats fluid overload but would **exacerbate nocturia** and urinary frequency in a patient with BPH. **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **First-dose phenomenon:** Alpha-blockers can cause significant orthostatic hypotension; patients should take the first dose at bedtime. * **Tamsulosin vs. Terazosin:** Tamsulosin is uro-selective (Alpha-1A), meaning it improves BPH symptoms with minimal effect on blood pressure. For a patient with *both* BPH and HTN, non-selective alpha-1 blockers like **Terazosin or Doxazosin** are preferred. * **IFIS:** Alpha-blockers are associated with **Intraoperative Floppy Iris Syndrome** during cataract surgery.

Question 1

What is the most common site for extramammary Paget's disease?

Accepted Answer

Vulva

Answer

Vagina

Answer

Penis

Answer

Anus

Question 2

Regarding ectopia vesicae, which of the following is true EXCEPT?

Accepted Answer

There is a ventral curvature of the penis.

Answer

Carcinoma of the bladder may occur.

Answer

There is incontinence of urine.

Answer

There is visible uretero-vesical efflux.

Question 3

What is the first-line treatment for overactive bladder?

Accepted Answer

Behavioural therapy

Answer

Antimuscarinic drug

Answer

Cholinergic drug

Answer

Botulinum toxin type A

Question 4

What is this study?

Accepted Answer

Retrograde Pyelogram

Answer

Ultrasound

Answer

X Ray KUB

Answer

Contrast CT KUB

Question 5

Peyronie's disease affects which of the following structures?

Accepted Answer

Penis

Answer

Breast

Answer

Vagina

Answer

Scrotum

Question 6

A 55-year-old smoker presents with a history of five episodes of macroscopic hematuria, each lasting for about 4-5 days over the past five years. Which of the following investigations should be performed to evaluate the suspected diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Urine microscopy and cytology

Answer

X-ray KUB

Answer

Ultrasound KUB

Answer

DTPA scan

Question 7

Which of the following statements about varicocele is false?

Accepted Answer

It is typically present in old age patients.

Answer

It is most common in the left testis.

Answer

It can cause infertility.

Answer

It can be treated by the palomo procedure.

Question 8

What is the most appropriate treatment for acute paronychia?

Accepted Answer

Partial nail removal

Answer

Nail removal

Answer

Lifting of the eponychium

Answer

Incision and drainage

Question 9

A 68-year-old male with hypertension presents for annual examination. On review of systems, he reports urinary hesitancy and nocturia. His examination reveals a nontender but enlarged prostate without nodules. His blood pressure logs and clinic readings show average values of 150/80 mm Hg. Which medication offer treatment of hypertension and prostatic symptoms?

Accepted Answer

Terazosin

Answer

Aliskiren

Answer

Propranolol

Answer

Furosemide

Question 10

Squamous cell carcinoma of the urinary bladder is associated with which of the following?

Accepted Answer

Chronic cystitis

Answer

Calculus

Answer

Schistosomiasis

Answer

Diabetes mellitus

Urology — MCQs

Urology — MCQs

On this page

Practice by Chapter

Want unlimited practice?