Trauma — MCQs
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Patient was in an accident and put on mechanical ventilation. He is opening his eyes on verbal command and follows motor commands with all four limbs. What is his GCS score?
A male patient has a sucking stab wound to the chest. Which action should the nurse take first?
Site for external cardiac massage is:
A man is brought to casualty who met with an accident. He sustained multiple rib fractures with paradoxical movement of chest. Management is
Initial fluid of choice in treatment of hypovolemia in patients presenting after trauma is
A 25-year-old male college student presents to emergency after road traffic accident. Patient is in state of shock and breath sounds are decreased on the side of chest trauma (left side). Normal heart sounds, no elevated JVP and dull note on percussion. What is the diagnosis?
A patient is brought to the emergency as a case of head injury, following a head on collision road traffic accident. Patient is unconscious and his right pupil is dilated. CT scan is not available. What's the next step in management
Factor causing fat embolism in trauma patients:
Feature of third-degree burn:
What is the investigation of choice for blunt abdominal trauma in an unstable patient?
Trauma Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 971: Patient was in an accident and put on mechanical ventilation. He is opening his eyes on verbal command and follows motor commands with all four limbs. What is his GCS score?
- A. 12
- B. 11
- C. 9
- D. 10 (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***10*** - **Eye-opening on verbal command scores 3 points** on the GCS (E3). - **Following motor commands with all four limbs scores 6 points** on the GCS (M6). - The patient is on **mechanical ventilation, meaning verbal response is untestable** and scores **1 point (V1T)** for intubated patients. - **Total GCS score: E3 + V1T + M6 = 10T** *12* - This score would incorrectly assume a verbal response of 5 (oriented), which is impossible for an intubated patient. - Would require: E3 + V5 + M4 or similar incorrect combinations that don't match the clinical presentation. *11* - This score would result from incorrect component assignment. - For example, E3 + V2 + M6 = 11, but verbal response cannot be 2 in an intubated patient (must be 1T). - Does not align with the untestable verbal response due to mechanical ventilation. *9* - This score underestimates the patient's neurological status. - Would require: E2 + V1 + M6 = 9, which contradicts the finding that the patient opens eyes on verbal command (E3, not E2). - Incorrectly assigns lower eye-opening score than the clinical presentation indicates.
Question 972: A male patient has a sucking stab wound to the chest. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Preparing to start an I.V. line
- B. Preparing a chest tube insertion tray
- C. Drawing blood for a hematocrit and hemoglobin level
- D. Applying a dressing over the wound and taping it on three sides (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Applying a dressing over the wound and taping it on three sides*** - This action immediately addresses the **life-threatening** risk of a **tension pneumothorax** by preventing air from entering the chest cavity during inspiration. - Taping on three sides creates a **flutter valve**, allowing air to exit the pleural space during expiration, thus preventing air trapping. *Preparing to start an I.V. line* - While important for fluid and medication administration in trauma, it is not the **immediate priority** for a sucking chest wound. - Airway, breathing, and circulation (ABC) principles prioritize securing the wound to prevent further respiratory compromise first. *Preparing a chest tube insertion tray* - A chest tube will likely be needed to **re-expand the lung** and drain air/blood from the pleural space. - However, the initial intervention focuses on **preventing tension pneumothorax**, which precedes chest tube insertion. *Drawing blood for a hematocrit and hemoglobin level* - This is an important diagnostic step for assessing **blood loss**, but it is not an immediate life-saving intervention. - Addressing the open chest wound to prevent respiratory collapse takes precedence over laboratory tests.
Question 973: Site for external cardiac massage is:
- A. Xiphoid process
- B. Lower third of sternum (Correct Answer)
- C. Junction of body and manubrium sterni
- D. 2 fingers below xiphoid process
Explanation: ***Lower third of sternum*** - Compression in this area is optimal for effective **cardiac output** during resuscitation, as it directly overlies the heart. - This position minimizes the risk of injury to other organs while providing adequate force transmission to the heart. *Xiphoid process* - Compressing the **xiphoid process** can lead to serious complications such as **liver laceration** or other internal organ damage. - It does not provide effective compression of the heart due to its anatomical position. *Junction of body and manubrium sterni* - This area is too high to effectively compress the heart, resulting in **ineffective cardiac massage**. - Compression here is also less stable and can increase the risk of injuries to the **upper ribs** and **clavicle**. *2 fingers below xiphoid process* - Compressing too close to or below the **xiphoid process** risks damaging abdominal organs like the **liver** or **spleen**. - While it attempts to steer clear of the xiphoid itself, it places the compression point too inferiorly for optimal cardiac resuscitation.
Question 974: A man is brought to casualty who met with an accident. He sustained multiple rib fractures with paradoxical movement of chest. Management is
- A. Consult cardiothoracic surgeon
- B. Tracheostomy
- C. Strapping
- D. Intermittent positive pressure ventilation (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Intermittent positive pressure ventilation*** - **Paradoxical movement of the chest** (flail chest) indicates instability of the chest wall, impairing effective ventilation. - **Intermittent positive pressure ventilation (IPPV)** helps to stabilize the chest wall internally by applying positive pressure, improving oxygenation and reducing the work of breathing. *Consult cardiothoracic surgeon* - While a cardiothoracic surgeon might be involved for severe cases or surgical fixation, **immediate management for respiratory compromise due to flail chest** is focused on ventilation support. - Consulting a surgeon would be part of a broader management plan, but not the primary immediate intervention for ventilatory failure. *Tracheostomy* - **Tracheostomy** is a surgical procedure to create an airway, typically considered for long-term ventilation or upper airway obstruction. - It is not the immediate intervention for acute flail chest, as **endotracheal intubation** for IPPV would be performed first if needed. *Strapping* - **Strapping** the chest (e.g., with tape or bandages) is **contraindicated** in flail chest. - It restricts chest wall movement unnecessarily, **impairs ventilation**, and can exacerbate respiratory distress and atelectasis.
Question 975: Initial fluid of choice in treatment of hypovolemia in patients presenting after trauma is
- A. Blood
- B. Colloid
- C. Plasma expanders
- D. Crystalloid (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Crystalloid*** - **Crystalloids** such as normal saline or lactated Ringer's solution are the initial fluid of choice for **hypovolemia in trauma patients** due to their ready availability, low cost, and effectiveness in rapidly expanding the intravascular volume. - They freely distribute across the extracellular space, effectively compensating for fluid loss and supporting organ perfusion. *Blood* - While essential for significant **hemorrhage**, blood products are typically reserved for patients who do not respond to crystalloid resuscitation or have documented severe blood loss. - Transfusion carries risks such as **transfusion reactions**, and blood preparation and cross-matching take time, making them less suitable for initial, rapid fluid replacement. *Colloid* - **Colloids** (e.g., albumin, starches) are larger molecules that theoretically remain in the intravascular space longer, but their benefits over crystalloids in trauma are controversial and they are significantly more expensive. - Some colloids have been associated with adverse effects like **renal dysfunction** or **coagulopathy**, making crystalloids a safer initial option. *Plasma expanders* - **Plasma expanders** is a broad term that includes both colloids and some hypertonic crystalloid solutions, but it is not commonly used as a primary, specific category for initial fluid resuscitation. - The potential benefits of these agents are still debated, and they are typically not recommended as the first-line choice in the acute management of **traumatic hypovolemic shock**.
Question 976: A 25-year-old male college student presents to emergency after road traffic accident. Patient is in state of shock and breath sounds are decreased on the side of chest trauma (left side). Normal heart sounds, no elevated JVP and dull note on percussion. What is the diagnosis?
- A. Massive Hemothorax (Correct Answer)
- B. Cardiac tamponade
- C. Flail chest
- D. Tension pneumothorax
Explanation: ***Massive Hemothorax*** - The combination of **shock**, **decreased breath sounds**, and **dullness to percussion** on the injured side is highly indicative of massive hemothorax. - A massive hemothorax involves rapid accumulation of a large volume of blood (typically >1500 mL) in the pleural space, leading to significant **hypovolemic shock** and **respiratory compromise**. *Cardiac tamponade* - Characterized by **Beck's triad**: **hypotension**, **muffled heart sounds**, and **elevated JVP**, none of which are fully present here (heart sounds are normal, JVP is not elevated). - While it can cause shock, the lung findings (decreased breath sounds, dullness) point away from a primary cardiac issue. *Flail chest* - Defined by **paradoxical chest wall movement** due to fractures of multiple adjacent ribs in two or more places, which is not mentioned in the presentation. - Although it can lead to respiratory distress, it typically presents with crepitus and localized pain, not necessarily with dullness to percussion or profound shock from blood loss. *Tension pneumothorax* - Presents with **absent or decreased breath sounds** and **hyperresonance to percussion** on the affected side, along with **tracheal deviation** away from the affected side and distended neck veins. - The key differentiating factor here is the **dullness to percussion**, which is inconsistent with the air accumulation seen in tension pneumothorax.
Question 977: A patient is brought to the emergency as a case of head injury, following a head on collision road traffic accident. Patient is unconscious and his right pupil is dilated. CT scan is not available. What's the next step in management
- A. Craniotomy right side
- B. Burrhole left side
- C. Burrhole right side (Correct Answer)
- D. Craniotomy left side
Explanation: ***Burrhole right side*** - A unilaterally dilated pupil in a head injury patient indicates **herniation syndrome** due to increasing intracranial pressure, often from an **epidural hematoma** on the same side. - In the absence of a CT scan, an urgent **burr hole** on the side of the dilated pupil (right side in this case) is a life-saving measure to evacuate the hematoma and decompress the brain. - The dilated pupil confirms **ipsilateral oculomotor nerve compression**, guiding the side for surgical intervention. *Craniotomy right side* - A **craniotomy** is a more extensive procedure typically performed after diagnostic imaging (CT scan) has confirmed the exact location and size of the hematoma. - In an emergency setting with an unconscious patient and no CT, a burr hole is a faster, less invasive, and potentially life-saving initial intervention. *Burrhole left side* - Performing a burr hole on the **left side** would be incorrect because the dilated pupil is on the right side, indicating the probable location of the brain compression on the **ipsilateral** side. - This could lead to a delay in addressing the actual pathology and worsen the patient's neurological outcome. *Craniotomy left side* - A craniotomy on the **left side** would be inappropriate for the same reasons as a burr hole on the left side: the dilated pupil points to a lesion on the **right side**. - Furthermore, a craniotomy is generally not the initial emergency procedure without imaging in such a critical situation.
Question 978: Factor causing fat embolism in trauma patients:
- A. Diabetes Mellitus
- B. Respiratory failure
- C. Joint mobility
- D. Long bone fractures (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Long bone fractures*** - **Long bone fractures**, especially of the femur and tibia, are the most common cause of **fat embolism syndrome (FES)**. - Trauma to the bone marrow releases fat globules into the venous circulation, leading to emboli in the lungs and other organs. *Diabetes Mellitus* - **Diabetes mellitus** is a metabolic disorder and is not directly implicated in the acute formation of **fat emboli** following trauma. - While it can affect microvascular integrity over time, it does not cause the sudden release of fat into the bloodstream. *Respiratory failure* - **Respiratory failure** can be a *consequence* of **fat embolism syndrome** if lung involvement is severe, but it is not a *cause* of the fat embolism itself. - Lung injury from fat emboli can impair gas exchange, leading to respiratory distress. *Joint mobility* - **Joint mobility** refers to the range of motion in a joint and is not a factor in the development of **fat embolism**. - While trauma can affect joint mobility, the mechanical disruption leading to fat embolism specifically involves bone marrow.
Question 979: Feature of third-degree burn:
- A. Whole dermis destroyed (Correct Answer)
- B. Pain present
- C. Transudation of fluid present
- D. Erythematous in appearance
Explanation: ***Whole dermis destroyed*** - A **third-degree burn** involves the complete destruction of the **epidermis** and **dermis**, extending into the subcutaneous tissue. - This extensive damage results in a leathery, stiff, and often waxy white, brown, or charred black appearance. *Pain present* - Third-degree burns typically cause **no pain** in the burned area itself because the nerve endings in the dermis have been completely destroyed. - While there may be pain surrounding a third-degree burn due to less severe burn areas, the core third-degree area is numb. *Transudation of fluid present* - **Transudation of fluid** (blister formation and significant edema) is a prominent feature of **second-degree burns**, where the epidermis separates from the dermis. - In third-degree burns, the skin is destroyed, and the protein-rich fluid tends to **coagulate** within the damaged tissues rather than forming blisters or freely transuding. *Erythematous in appearance* - **Erythema** (redness) is characteristic of **first-degree burns** and **superficial second-degree burns**, due to vasodilation in the intact dermis. - Third-degree burns are typically **waxy white, leathery, charred black, or brown**, not red, due to the destruction of blood vessels and tissue necrosis.
Question 980: What is the investigation of choice for blunt abdominal trauma in an unstable patient?
- A. X-ray abdomen
- B. MRI
- C. USG (Correct Answer)
- D. Diagnostic Peritoneal Lavage (DPL)
Explanation: ***USG (FAST Exam)*** - In an **unstable patient** with blunt abdominal trauma, **Focused Assessment with Sonography for Trauma (FAST) exam** is the investigation of choice. - It is **rapid, non-invasive, and bedside**, allowing immediate detection of **free fluid** (blood) in the peritoneal cavity, pericardium, and pleural spaces without transporting the patient. - Guides immediate decision for **laparotomy** in hemodynamically unstable patients. - **Note:** In **stable patients**, **CT abdomen** is the gold standard as it provides detailed anatomical information, but it requires patient transport and time. *X-ray abdomen* - Provides limited information in blunt trauma, primarily showing **free air** (bowel perforation) or **bony fractures**. - **Not sensitive** for detecting intraperitoneal bleeding, which is the primary concern in unstable patients. *MRI* - Offers excellent soft tissue detail but is **time-consuming** and requires the patient to be **hemodynamically stable**. - **Impractical** for unstable trauma patients requiring rapid assessment and intervention. *Diagnostic Peritoneal Lavage (DPL)* - An **invasive procedure** that is sensitive for detecting intra-abdominal hemorrhage. - Has largely been **replaced by FAST exam** in most trauma centers due to FAST being non-invasive, rapid, and repeatable. - DPL has a **higher false-positive rate** and cannot identify the source of bleeding.
Practice by Chapter
Initial Assessment of Trauma Patient
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Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) Principles
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Chest Trauma
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Abdominal Trauma
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Head Trauma
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Spinal Trauma
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Extremity Trauma
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Vascular Trauma
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Genitourinary Trauma
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Burns Management
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Mass Casualty Management
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Damage Control Surgery
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