Trauma Practice Questions

Q: A 21-year-old man presents to the emergency department after sustaining a stab wound to the neck at a local farmer's market. The patient is otherwise healthy and is complaining of pain. The patient is able to offer the history himself. His temperature is 97.6°F (36.4°C), blood pressure is 120/84 mmHg, pulse is 90/min, respirations are 15/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Physical exam demonstrates a 3 cm laceration 1 cm inferior to the mastoid process on the right side. The patient's breath sounds are clear and he is protecting his airway. No stridor or difficulty breathing is noted. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

CT angiogram. ***CT angiogram*** - A **CT angiogram (CTA)** is the most appropriate next step given the location of the stab wound, which is close to vital neurovascular structures, particularly the **carotid and vertebral arteries**. - CTA is a **non-invasive** and rapid imaging modality that can effectively rule out or confirm vascular injuries, guide further management, and avoid unnecessary surgical exploration. *Observation and blood pressure monitoring* - While initial observation is important, relying solely on it for a penetration injury near major vessels is **insufficient** and could lead to delayed diagnosis of potentially life-threatening vascular damage. - Although the patient is currently **hemodynamically stable**, vascular injuries can present with delayed symptoms and require more definitive diagnostic evaluation. *Intubation* - The patient has no signs of airway compromise, such as **stridor, difficulty breathing, or impaired oxygenation**. - **Prophylactic intubation** is not indicated as it carries risks and is only performed when there is an immediate or impending threat to the airway. *Surgical exploration* - **Surgical exploration** is an invasive procedure and should be reserved for cases where there is clear evidence of vascular injury or when less invasive diagnostics like CTA are unavailable or inconclusive. - In a stable patient, **non-invasive imaging** should precede surgery unless there are hard signs of vascular compromise (e.g., pulsatile bleeding, expanding hematoma, thrill/bruit).

Q: A lady with 50% TBSA burn with involvement of dermis and subcutaneous tissue came to the emergency department. The burns will be classified as:

3rd degree burn. ***3rd degree burn*** - **Third-degree burns** involve the entire thickness of the skin (dermis and epidermis) and often extend into the **subcutaneous tissue**, muscle, or bone. - These burns typically appear dry, leathery, and often lack pain sensation due to nerve destruction. *2nd degree superficial* - **Superficial second-degree burns** involve the epidermis and the superficial part of the dermis, often presenting with **blisters** and painful, red, moist skin. - They do not extend to the subcutaneous tissue, which is a key feature of the burn described. *2nd degree deep* - **Deep second-degree burns** involve the epidermis and deeper layers of the dermis, but not the entire dermis or subcutaneous tissue. - While they can be less painful and appear dry, the involvement of **subcutaneous tissue** pushes the classification to third-degree. *1st degree* - **First-degree burns** only affect the epidermis, causing redness and pain but **no blistering** or damage to deeper layers. - These are typically sunburns or minor scalds and do not involve the dermis or subcutaneous tissue.

Q: A lady comes to OPD after fall from scooty. Her vitals are stable. She is having continuous, clear watery discharge from nose after 2 days. This is most likely a feature of?

CSF rhinorrhoea. ***CSF rhinorrhoea*** - **Clear watery discharge** appearing **two days after head trauma** (fall from scooty) is highly suggestive of **cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) rhinorrhoea**. - This occurs due to a breach in the **skull base**, allowing CSF to leak from the subarachnoid space into the nasal cavity. *Acute respiratory infection* - An acute respiratory infection typically presents with symptoms like **fever, cough**, and **nasal discharge** that is often thicker and discolored, not clear and watery. - The onset of discharge two days after trauma without other signs of infection also makes this less likely. *Rhinitis* - Rhinitis involves inflammation of the nasal mucosa, leading to watery discharge, sneezing, and congestion. - However, the traumatic etiology and the specific timing of the discharge make **CSF leak** a more pertinent diagnosis than simple rhinitis. *Middle cranial fossa fracture* - While a **middle cranial fossa fracture** can cause CSF leakage, the discharge from the nose (rhinorrhoea) typically originates from an **anterior cranial fossa fracture**. - A middle cranial fossa fracture is more commonly associated with **otorrhoea** (CSF leakage from the ear) if the temporal bone is involved.

Q: Curling ulcer is seen in:

Burn. ***Burn*** - **Curling's ulcer** is a type of acute peptic ulcer that can develop in the **duodenum** in patients suffering from severe burns. - It is believed to be caused by **ischemia** due to reduced plasma volume and systemic vasoconstriction following the burn injury, leading to decreased blood flow to the gastrointestinal tract. *Corticosteroids* - Corticosteroid use can increase the risk of **peptic ulcer disease** by impairing mucosal defense and inhibiting prostaglandin synthesis. - However, the ulcers associated with corticosteroids are not specifically termed Curling's ulcers; this term is reserved for ulcers caused by severe burns. *TPN* - Total Parenteral Nutrition (TPN) itself does not directly cause specific ulcers like Curling's ulcers. - Complications of TPN can include issues like **cholestasis** or **catheter-related infections**, but not acute stress ulcers. *Head injury* - Acute gastric ulcers that can develop after a severe head injury or other central nervous system trauma are known as **Cushing's ulcers**. - These ulcers are thought to be caused by **increased vagal stimulation** and excessive gastric acid secretion.

Q: A 40-year-old patient presents with a femur fracture, pulmonary infiltration, and respiratory distress. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Fat embolism. ***Fat embolism*** - A **femur fracture** significantly increases the risk of **fat embolism**, where fat globules from the bone marrow enter the bloodstream and lodge in the pulmonary capillaries. - The classic triad of **fat embolism syndrome** includes respiratory distress, neurological symptoms, and a petechial rash, but respiratory symptoms (pulmonary infiltration and distress) are usually the first to appear. *Obstruction* - While an obstruction could cause respiratory distress, it typically wouldn't be associated with diffuse **pulmonary infiltrates** following a long bone fracture. - **Airway obstruction** would present with stridor or wheezing, and is usually localized rather than systemic. *Pulmonary embolism* - A **pulmonary embolism** (PE) can cause respiratory distress and infiltrates, but given the context of a recent femur fracture, fat embolism is a more specific and likely diagnosis. - PE is usually due to a **venous thromboembolism** and can be suspected in immobilized patients, but the question points more strongly to fat release. *Air embolism* - **Air embolism** usually results from iatrogenic causes (e.g., central line insertion, surgery) or trauma to large veins, allowing a significant amount of air into the circulation. - While it can cause respiratory distress, it doesn't typically cause the diffuse **pulmonary infiltrates** described, which are characteristic of fat embolism.

Q: Patient with history of blunt trauma to face presents with enophthalmos, diplopia on upward gaze and loss of sensitivity over cheek. True statement about this is:

It is a blow out fracture. ***It is a blow out fracture*** - The combination of **enophthalmos** (sunken eye), **diplopia on upward gaze** (due to **inferior rectus muscle entrapment**), and **loss of sensitivity over the cheek** (indicating infraorbital nerve involvement) are classic signs of an **orbital blowout fracture**. - These fractures typically involve the **orbital floor** or medial wall, caused by a direct impact to the orbit, which transmits force to the thin bony walls causing them to fracture while the orbital rim remains intact. *Maxillary fracture* - While the **infraorbital nerve** passes through the maxilla, a general maxillary fracture typically presents with broader symptoms such as **midfacial pain**, **swelling**, and **malocclusion**, which are not specified here. - Maxillary fractures often involve the **zygomaticomaxillary complex** or Le Fort patterns, which usually lead to more extensive facial abnormalities. *Zygomatic bone is most likely injured* - A **zygomatic arch fracture** would primarily cause **flattening of the cheek** and pain upon opening the mouth, not enophthalmos or diplopia on upward gaze. - While the zygoma forms part of the orbit, isolated zygomatic fractures rarely cause these specific orbital findings. *Frontal bone fracture* - **Frontal bone fractures** typically result from **high-impact trauma** and can involve the **frontal sinus**, leading to **forehead swelling**, **CSF rhinorrhea**, or **periorbital ecchymosis** (raccoon eyes). - The symptoms described are not characteristic of a frontal bone fracture.

Q: Which of the following is FALSE regarding deep second-degree burns?

Show blanching response. ***Show blanching response (FALSE - Correct Answer)*** - This is the **FALSE statement**. Deep second-degree burns typically show **absent or diminished blanching response**, not a positive blanching response. - A **blanching response** indicates intact blood flow to the capillaries, which is typical of **superficial partial-thickness burns** only. - In **deep second-degree burns**, the damage extends deeper into the reticular dermis, involving the **dermal capillary plexus**, leading to loss of the blanching response. *Heal by scar deposition (TRUE)* - **Deep second-degree burns** damage the dermal elements responsible for regeneration, necessitating significant **scar deposition** for healing. - Due to destruction of many **dermal appendages** (hair follicles, sebaceous glands), complete regeneration without scarring is unlikely. *Painless (TRUE)* - While superficial burns are very painful, **deep second-degree burns** can be relatively **painless** due to destruction of **nerve endings** in the deeper dermis. - The variable destruction of **nociceptors** means patients may experience both painful areas and areas of reduced sensation or numbness. *Damage to deeper dermis (TRUE)* - **Deep second-degree burns** are characterized by injury extending into the **reticular dermis** (deeper layer), which lies beneath the papillary dermis. - This level of damage affects significant **dermal structures** including hair follicles, sweat glands, and nerve endings.

Q: A 50 kg patient has 40 % burn of the body surface area. Calculate the ringer lactate solution to be given for first 8 hours of fluid:

4 Litres. ***4 Litres*** - The **Parkland formula** for fluid resuscitation in burn patients is **4 mL x body weight (kg) x % total body surface area (TBSA) burned**. - For this patient: 4 mL x 50 kg x 40% = 8000 mL or **8 Litres** of Ringer's Lactate in the first 24 hours. Half of this volume ([8 Litres / 2] = **4 Litres**) is given in the first 8 hours. *8 Litres* - This amount represents the **total fluid requirement** for the entire first 24 hours, not just the first 8 hours. - Only **half of the total calculated fluid** is administered in the initial 8-hour period. *2 Litres* - This volume is generally **too low** for a patient with 40% TBSA burns, which is considered a significant burn. - Insufficient fluid resuscitation can lead to **burn shock** and organ hypoperfusion. *1 Litre* - This amount is **grossly inadequate** for a patient with 40% TBSA burns. - Administering such a small volume would likely result in **severe hypovolemic shock** and clinical deterioration.

Question 1

A 21-year-old man presents to the emergency department after sustaining a stab wound to the neck at a local farmer's market. The patient is otherwise healthy and is complaining of pain. The patient is able to offer the history himself. His temperature is 97.6°F (36.4°C), blood pressure is 120/84 mmHg, pulse is 90/min, respirations are 15/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Physical exam demonstrates a 3 cm laceration 1 cm inferior to the mastoid process on the right side. The patient's breath sounds are clear and he is protecting his airway. No stridor or difficulty breathing is noted. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

Accepted Answer

CT angiogram

Answer

Observation and blood pressure monitoring

Answer

Intubation

Answer

Surgical exploration

Question 2

A lady with 50% TBSA burn with involvement of dermis and subcutaneous tissue came to the emergency department. The burns will be classified as:

Accepted Answer

3rd degree burn

Answer

2nd degree superficial

Answer

2nd degree deep

Answer

1st degree

Question 3

A young male patient presents with dyspnea; auscultation reveals absent breath sounds on the right side, and he has hypotension. What is the immediate next step?

Accepted Answer

Needle insertion in 2nd intercostal space, midclavicular line

Answer

Chest X-ray

Answer

Intubate the patient

Answer

Urgent IV fluid administration

Question 4

A lady comes to OPD after fall from scooty. Her vitals are stable. She is having continuous, clear watery discharge from nose after 2 days. This is most likely a feature of?

Accepted Answer

CSF rhinorrhoea

Answer

Acute respiratory infection

Answer

Rhinitis

Answer

Middle cranial fossa fracture

Question 5

Curling ulcer is seen in:

Accepted Answer

Burn

Answer

Corticosteroids

Answer

TPN

Answer

Head injury

Question 6

A 40-year-old patient presents with a femur fracture, pulmonary infiltration, and respiratory distress. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Fat embolism

Answer

Obstruction

Answer

Pulmonary embolism

Answer

Air embolism

Question 7

Patient with history of blunt trauma to face presents with enophthalmos, diplopia on upward gaze and loss of sensitivity over cheek. True statement about this is:

Accepted Answer

It is a blow out fracture

Answer

Maxillary fracture

Answer

Zygomatic bone is most likely injured

Answer

Frontal bone fracture

Question 8

In an accident case, after the arrival of medical team, all should be done in early management except;

Accepted Answer

Check BP

Answer

Glasgow coma scale

Answer

Stabilization of cervical vertebrae

Answer

Check Respiration

Question 9

Which of the following is FALSE regarding deep second-degree burns?

Accepted Answer

Show blanching response

Answer

Heal by scar deposition

Answer

Painless

Answer

Damage to deeper dermis

Question 10

A 50 kg patient has 40 % burn of the body surface area. Calculate the ringer lactate solution to be given for first 8 hours of fluid:

Accepted Answer

4 Litres

Answer

8 Litres

Answer

2 Litres

Answer

1 Litre

Trauma — MCQs

Trauma — MCQs

On this page

Practice by Chapter

Want unlimited practice?