Trauma Practice Questions

Q: A 26 year old female was brought to ER post fire incidence. Her face and lower limbs were spared. Based on the burn distribution shown, calculate the percentage of body surface area affected.

40-50%. ***40-50%*** - The **Rule of Nines** is used to estimate the Total Body Surface Area (TBSA) of burns in adults. According to this rule, the anterior trunk is 18%, each upper limb is 9%, and the posterior trunk is 18%. - In this patient, burns cover the entire anterior trunk (18%), both upper limbs (9% + 9% = 18%), and likely the upper posterior trunk (approx. 9%), totaling around **45%**, which falls in this range. This calculation is critical for fluid resuscitation. *5-10%* - This percentage represents a much smaller burn area, equivalent to approximately one full arm (9%) or the head (9%). - The visual evidence clearly shows extensive burns involving the entire torso and both arms, far exceeding this estimation. *20-30%* - This TBSA would typically represent burns covering the entire anterior trunk (18%) plus one arm (9%), totaling 27%. - This estimate is incorrect as it fails to account for the burns on the second upper limb and the likely involvement of the back. *10-15%* - A burn of this size would involve an area such as the anterior chest (9%) or one leg from the knee down. - This option significantly underestimates the burn severity, as the anterior trunk alone accounts for 18% of the TBSA.

Q: A fracture caused by falls landing on feet/buttocks (force transmitted through the spine), heavy blows to the top of the skull/vertex, twisting of the head on the spine, or blows to the occiput or chin. Which type of fracture is this?

Fissured Fracture (Linear Fracture). ***Fissured Fracture (Linear Fracture)*** - This type of fracture, also known as a **linear fracture**, results from forces that cause a simple, nondisplaced crack in the skull vault. - The mechanisms described—such as forces transmitted through the spine (falls on feet/buttocks) or blows to the vertex, chin, or occiput—are classic causes of **linear skull fractures** because the force is typically dispersed over a wide area, rather than focused enough to cause depression. *Depressed Fracture* - These fractures occur due to high-velocity **localized impact**, where the outer table of the skull is driven inward below the level of the inner table, posing a high risk of **dural tear** and underlying brain injury. - The mechanisms listed in the question involve generalized force transmission or twisting, which are inconsistent with the **inward comminution** required for a depressed fracture. *Gutter Fracture* - This term is specifically associated with **penetrating missile injuries**, like low-velocity bullet wounds, where bone fragments are typically driven inward, creating a characteristic groove or channel. - The mechanisms listed in the prompt are **blunt force** injuries or transmission of force, not penetrating trauma that creates a 'gutter.' *Diastatic Fracture (Sutural Fracture)* - This fracture involves the **separation of cranial sutures** due to a fracture line extending into them, primarily observed in infants and young children before the sutures are fully fused. - The forces described result in a break *through* the bone of the vault (a fissure) rather than primarily causing the **separation of existing, fused sutures** in an adult skull.

Q: A patient presents with a transverse fracture at the skull base, described as splitting it and creating a 'hinge' with a 'nodding face sign.' This fracture extends from one petrous ridge across the sella turcica to the other petrous ridge. Which type of fracture is this?

Motorcyclist Fracture (Hinge Fracture). ***Motorcyclist Fracture (Hinge Fracture)*** - This is a descriptive term for a high-energy **transverse skull base fracture** that typically runs through the middle cranial fossa, traversing the skull base from one **petrous ridge** across the **sella turcica** to the opposite petrous ridge. - The fracture creates a 'hinge' mechanism that physically separates the facial skeleton from the calvarium, resulting in instability often described clinically as the **'nodding face sign'**. *Depressed Fracture* - A depressed fracture is characterized by bone fragments driven inwards, below the level of the surrounding skull, often leading to potential injury to the underlying **dura mater** and brain parenchyma. - These fractures result from blunt force trauma focused on a small area, and their primary feature is **inward displacement**, not the transverse splitting and hinge mechanism described. *Comminuted Fracture* - A comminuted fracture involves the bone being broken into **multiple pieces** (three or more separate fragments) at the fracture site. - While hinge fractures are often complex, the defining feature of this clinical presentation is the **transverse path** across the sella and the resulting hinge-like instability, which is a structural description differentiating it from a general comminution. *Ring Fracture* - A ring fracture occurs around the **foramen magnum** and is caused by significant axial loading (e.g., severe fall onto the feet or buttocks). - This fracture causes instability at the **craniocervical junction** and is localized to the posterior cranial fossa, not the extensive transverse fracture across the middle cranial fossa described.

Q: Four patients were brought to the casualty after sustaining trauma. Which of the following is the correct match among the following?

Gaze palsy is - Midbrain lesion. ***Gaze palseis-Mid brain lesion***- **Vertical gaze palsies** are commonly associated with lesions affecting the **midbrain**, particularly the **pretectal area** and the rostral interstitial nucleus of the **medial longitudinal fasciculus (riMLF)**.- Trauma or increased intracranial pressure leading to compression in this region, such as in **Parinaud syndrome**, can result in impaired upward or downward gaze.*Extradural hemorrhage (EDH)- Pin point pupil*- An **EDH** typically causes rapid mass effect and subsequent **uncal herniation**, leading to compression of the **oculomotor nerve (CN III)** and resulting in a fixed, **dilated pupil** (mydriasis) ipsilateral to the lesion.- **Pinpoint pupils** are classically associated with damage to the descending sympathetic pathways in the **pons** (pontine hemorrhage) or opioid overdose.*Penetrating injury to eustachian tube- CSF otorrhea*- **CSF otorrhea** (leakage of CSF from the ear) occurs due to a tear in the dura mater and the **temporal bone**, specifically involving the **petrous segment** and tympanic membrane rupture.- Injury to the **Eustachian tube** primarily connects the middle ear to the nasopharynx; damage here would typically cause air leak or middle ear bleeding, not primary CSF leakage through the external auditory canal.*Penetrating injury to eye- Battle sign*- **Battle sign** is ecchymosis (bruising) over the **mastoid process** and is a hallmark clinical indicator of a **basilar skull fracture**, usually involving the middle cranial fossa (temporal bone).- Penetrating injuries to the eye are associated with localized ocular trauma (e.g., globe rupture, hyphema) but are not typically linked to this specific sign of underlying skull base injury.

Q: Which of the following is associated with CSF otorrhea?

Battle sign. ***Battle sign***- **Battle sign** (ecchymosis over the mastoid process) is highly indicative of a **basilar skull fracture**, specifically involving the **temporal bone**.- Fractures of the petrous portion of the temporal bone often breach the **dura mater** and middle ear cavity, leading directly to leakage of cerebrospinal fluid (**CSF otorrhea**).*Traumatic rupture of the tympanic membrane*- While rupture of the **tympanic membrane (TM)** is often present, it is usually a consequence of the underlying **temporal bone fracture**, not the primary source of the CSF leak.- CSF otorrhea fundamentally requires a fracture allowing communication between the **subarachnoid space** and the middle ear; TM rupture solely allows fluid egress.*Penetrating injury to the eye*- These injuries involve the orbit and structures of the eye, typically causing orbital trauma, globe rupture, or associated **facial fractures**.- They are not the usual mechanism for basilar skull fractures involving the **middle cranial fossa** or temporal bone, which are necessary for CSF otorrhea.*Fracture of the roof of the nose*- Fractures of the skull base involving the anterior cranial fossa, such as the **cribriform plate** (roof of the nose), classically cause **CSF rhinorrhea** (CSF leakage through the nose).- This anatomical location is functionally separate from the temporal bone pathology required to produce **CSF otorrhea**.

Q: A 32-year-old male presents to the emergency department 6 hours after a motor vehicle accident with hypotension (BP 80/50 mmHg), tachycardia (HR 130/min), and abdominal distension. FAST (Focused Assessment with Sonography for Trauma) shows free fluid in Morrison's pouch. What is the most appropriate immediate management?

Immediate exploratory laparotomy. ***Immediate exploratory laparotomy*** - The patient has evidence of **hemorrhagic shock** (hypotension BP 80/50 mmHg and tachycardia HR 130/min) combined with a positive FAST exam showing free fluid in Morrison's pouch, indicating **hemoperitoneum** following blunt abdominal trauma. - According to **ATLS (Advanced Trauma Life Support) guidelines**, hemodynamically unstable patients with positive FAST findings require immediate transfer to the operating room for **exploratory laparotomy** to identify and control the source of hemorrhage. - This represents a life-threatening injury requiring definitive surgical intervention without delay. *CT abdomen with intravenous contrast* - CT scan is the **gold standard** for evaluating hemodynamically **stable** patients with blunt abdominal trauma. - This patient is **hemodynamically unstable** (BP 80/50 mmHg), making transport to the CT scanner dangerous and potentially fatal. - Delaying definitive surgical treatment to obtain imaging in an unstable patient significantly increases mortality risk. *Observation with serial abdominal examinations* - Observation is appropriate only for **stable patients** with equivocal findings or minor trauma. - This patient has clear evidence of **ongoing hemorrhage** (shock + positive FAST) requiring immediate intervention. - Serial examinations would dangerously delay life-saving surgery and lead to preventable death from exsanguination. *Diagnostic peritoneal lavage* - DPL is an older invasive diagnostic test that has been largely replaced by **FAST** in modern trauma management. - When FAST has already confirmed hemoperitoneum in an unstable patient, performing DPL adds no diagnostic value and only delays definitive treatment. - The diagnosis is already made - the patient needs surgery, not further diagnostic procedures.

Q: After a building collapse, a patient presents with airway obstruction and mouth filled with concrete debris. BP is 90/60 mmHg, HR 105/min. A cricothyrotomy is performed. Which of the following statements regarding this procedure is true?

It must be followed by a formal tracheostomy. ***It must be followed by a formal tracheostomy*** - The procedure performed is an emergency surgical airway, likely a **cricothyrotomy**, which is a life-saving but temporary measure used when **endotracheal intubation** is impossible. - Due to the high risk of long-term complications, especially **subglottic stenosis** and cricoid cartilage damage, it requires prompt conversion (typically within 48-72 hours) to a more permanent airway using a **formal tracheostomy**. *It provides adequate ventilation for up to 6 hours* - While it provides adequate immediate ventilation, 6 hours is not a safety cut-off; the decision to convert is driven by the risk of **laryngeal damage** and scarring with delayed action. - The primary goal of cricothyrotomy is **immediate stability**, not providing a specific period of ventilation. *It allows for removal of large foreign bodies from the airway* - The procedure bypasses the upper airway obstruction by inserting a tube through the **cricothyroid membrane** (below the vocal cords). - It does **not** facilitate the removal of large foreign bodies or concrete debris, which would require specialized tools like **bronchoscopy** or direct laryngoscopy. *It can be safely used for prolonged airway management without further intervention* - This statement is false, as prolonged use (>72 hours) of a cricothyrotomy is highly associated with localized complications, including vocal cord dysfunction and life-threatening **subglottic stenosis**. - A cricothyrotomy is only intended as a **bridge** until a definitive airway (tracheostomy) can be established in a controlled environment.

Q: A 30-year-old female was brought to the emergency room after a fire. On examination, full-thickness burns and deep partial-thickness burns were present involving the lower limb circumferentially. A procedure was performed to relieve vascular compromise. Identify the procedure?

Escharotomy. ***Escharotomy*** - Performed for **full-thickness (circumferential)** burns to relieve pressure caused by the rigid, constricting **eschar** (necrotic tissue). - Indicated when there are signs of **compartment syndrome** or impaired distal circulation (e.g., absent pulses, cyanosis) in the affected limb. *Debridement* - Involves removing dead, contaminated, or foreign material from a wound to promote healing. - While necessary for complex burns, simply debridement does not address the acute vascular compromise caused by circumferential full-thickness burns. *Excised to healthy tissue* - Refers to **tangential** or **fascial excision** of the burn wound, an operative procedure typically done under general anesthesia for definitive wound management. - This is performed later for wound bed preparation, not an immediate, bedside procedure to restore circulation and prevent limb loss like **escharotomy**. *Early skin grafting* - The definitive procedure used to close the wound after it is excised and prepared. - Cannot be performed until severe vascular constriction is relieved and the wound bed is adequately prepared, making it a later step in management.

Question 1

A 26 year old female was brought to ER post fire incidence. Her face and lower limbs were spared. Based on the burn distribution shown, calculate the percentage of body surface area affected.

Accepted Answer

40-50%

Answer

20-30%

Answer

5-10%

Answer

10-15%

Question 2

A fracture caused by falls landing on feet/buttocks (force transmitted through the spine), heavy blows to the top of the skull/vertex, twisting of the head on the spine, or blows to the occiput or chin. Which type of fracture is this?

Accepted Answer

Fissured Fracture (Linear Fracture)

Answer

Diastatic Fracture (Sutural Fracture)

Answer

Depressed Fracture

Answer

Gutter Fracture

Question 3

A patient presents with a transverse fracture at the skull base, described as splitting it and creating a 'hinge' with a 'nodding face sign.' This fracture extends from one petrous ridge across the sella turcica to the other petrous ridge. Which type of fracture is this?

Accepted Answer

Motorcyclist Fracture (Hinge Fracture)

Answer

Comminuted Fracture

Answer

Depressed Fracture

Answer

Ring Fracture

Question 4

Four patients were brought to the casualty after sustaining trauma. Which of the following is the correct match among the following?

Accepted Answer

Gaze palsy is - Midbrain lesion

Answer

b.Penetrating injury to eustachian tube- CSF otorrhea

Answer

c.Penetrating injury to eye- Battle sign

Answer

a.Extradural hemorrhage (EDH)- Pin point pupil

Question 5

Which of the following is associated with CSF otorrhea?

Accepted Answer

Battle sign

Answer

Traumatic rupture of the tympanic membrane

Answer

Penetrating injury to the eye

Answer

Fracture of the roof of the nose

Question 6

A 32-year-old male presents to the emergency department 6 hours after a motor vehicle accident with hypotension (BP 80/50 mmHg), tachycardia (HR 130/min), and abdominal distension. FAST (Focused Assessment with Sonography for Trauma) shows free fluid in Morrison's pouch. What is the most appropriate immediate management?

Accepted Answer

Immediate exploratory laparotomy

Answer

CT abdomen with intravenous contrast

Answer

Observation with serial abdominal examinations

Answer

Diagnostic peritoneal lavage

Question 7

A patient has burns involving the face, both upper limbs and front of the chest. What is the percentage of burns involved?

Accepted Answer

30 to 37

Answer

25 to 48

Answer

27 to 30

Answer

38 to 42

Question 8

A 40-year-old male with head injury presents with respiratory distress and absent breath sounds on the right. GCS is 8/15. What is the most immediate next step in management?

Accepted Answer

Secure airway

Answer

Contrast-enhanced CT (CECT)

Answer

Oxygen by nasal prongs

Answer

Intercostal chest drain (ICD)

Question 9

After a building collapse, a patient presents with airway obstruction and mouth filled with concrete debris. BP is 90/60 mmHg, HR 105/min. A cricothyrotomy is performed. Which of the following statements regarding this procedure is true?

Accepted Answer

It must be followed by a formal tracheostomy

Answer

It provides adequate ventilation for up to 6 hours

Answer

It can be safely used for prolonged airway management without further intervention

Answer

It allows for removal of large foreign bodies from the airway

Question 10

A 30-year-old female was brought to the emergency room after a fire. On examination, full-thickness burns and deep partial-thickness burns were present involving the lower limb circumferentially. A procedure was performed to relieve vascular compromise. Identify the procedure?

Accepted Answer

Escharotomy

Answer

Debridement

Answer

Early skin grafting

Answer

Excised to healthy tissue

Trauma — MCQs

Trauma — MCQs

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