Trauma Practice Questions

Q: What is the first priority in the management of a burn injury?

Airway control. **Explanation:** The management of a burn patient follows the standard **Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS)** protocol, where the primary survey begins with **ABCDE**. **1. Why Airway Control is the First Priority:** In burn injuries, the airway is the most critical immediate concern due to the risk of **inhalation injury**. Thermal injury to the upper airway can lead to rapid, life-threatening edema. If a patient presents with signs of inhalation injury (e.g., singed nasal hairs, carbonaceous sputum, or facial burns), the airway must be secured via endotracheal intubation immediately, as subsequent swelling may make later intubation impossible. **2. Why other options are incorrect:** * **Circulation (C) and Fluid Resuscitation (B):** While fluid resuscitation is vital in burns to prevent hypovolemic shock (using the Parkland formula), it follows Airway (A) and Breathing (B) in the priority sequence. Circulation is the "C" in ABCDE. * **Exposure (E):** This is the final step of the primary survey. While important to remove smoldering clothing and assess the Total Body Surface Area (TBSA) of the burn, it is never prioritized over life-saving airway management. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Indication for early intubation:** Stridor, hoarseness, or use of accessory muscles in a burn victim. * **Carbon Monoxide (CO) Poisoning:** Always suspect this in closed-space fires. Treat with 100% humidified oxygen. Note that pulse oximetry is unreliable in CO poisoning as it cannot distinguish carboxyhemoglobin from oxyhemoglobin. * **Rule of Nines:** Used for rapid TBSA assessment; remember that first-degree burns (erythema only) are **not** included in fluid calculations.

Q: What is the name of the wiring technique used for mandibular fractures?

Risdon wiring. **Explanation:** The management of mandibular fractures often involves **Intermaxillary Fixation (IMF)** to stabilize the jaw. **Risdon wiring** is the correct answer because it is a specific technique used to provide stable anchorage for IMF, particularly in cases where multiple teeth are missing or when additional horizontal stability is required. In this technique, a long wire is passed around the most posterior teeth on both sides and twisted to form a "horizontal cable" or arch wire along the buccal vestibule, to which other wires can be attached. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Ivy’s wiring:** This is a method of interdental wiring used to stabilize two adjacent teeth. It involves forming a small loop (eyelet) between two teeth to provide an attachment point for maxillomandibular fixation. * **Eyelet wiring:** This is essentially the same as Ivy’s wiring. It is used for temporary stabilization and is not a "full-arch" wiring technique like Risdon. * **Gilmer wiring:** This is the simplest and oldest form of IMF where wires are passed directly around the necks of individual upper and lower teeth and then twisted together. Its main disadvantage is that the mouth cannot be opened in an emergency without cutting the wires. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Most common site of Mandibular fracture:** Condyle (followed by the Angle and Symphysis). * **Champy’s Line:** The ideal line of osteosynthesis for placing mini-plates in mandibular fractures (along the line of tension). * **Guardsman Fracture:** A midline symphysis fracture combined with bilateral condylar fractures, often caused by a blow to the chin. * **First-line investigation:** Orthopantomogram (OPG). For the symphysis/parasymphysis, a **Lower Occlusal View** is preferred.

Q: In a head injury patient, Mannitol should not be used for the control of increased intracranial pressure when:

Serum osmolality is more than 320 mOsmol/kg. **Explanation:** Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic used to reduce intracranial pressure (ICP) by creating an osmotic gradient that draws water from the brain parenchyma into the intravascular space. **Why Option A is Correct:** The efficacy of Mannitol depends on the osmotic gradient between the blood and the brain. If the **serum osmolality exceeds 320 mOsmol/kg**, the gradient is lost, and Mannitol no longer effectively shifts fluid. Furthermore, at levels above 320 mOsmol/kg, there is a significantly increased risk of **acute tubular necrosis (ATN)** and renal failure. Therefore, serum osmolality must be monitored closely, and Mannitol should be withheld if this threshold is crossed. **Why the other options are incorrect:** * **Option B (PaCO2 100 mm Hg):** Maintaining adequate oxygenation is vital in head injuries to prevent secondary brain insult. High PaO2 is not a contraindication for osmotic therapy. * **Option D (pH < 7.35):** While acidosis can cause vasodilation and increase ICP, it does not preclude the use of Mannitol. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Mechanism:** Mannitol has two phases—an initial **rheological effect** (decreases blood viscosity, increasing cerebral blood flow) followed by the **osmotic effect** (occurs after 15–30 mins). * **Contraindications:** Congestive heart failure (due to initial volume expansion), pulmonary edema, and anuria. * **Alternative:** Hypertonic saline (3%) is increasingly preferred over Mannitol in patients with hypotension or borderline renal function.

Q: Which of the following causes maximum bleeding?

Artery caught between fractured ends of bones. ### Explanation The amount of bleeding from an arterial injury depends primarily on the vessel's ability to undergo **vasospasm and retraction**. **Why Option C is Correct:** When an artery is caught between fractured bone ends, it is held **distended and patent**. The mechanical entrapment prevents the vessel from retracting into the surrounding soft tissues and prevents the muscular wall from contracting (vasospasm). This keeps the lumen wide open, leading to continuous, profuse, and often fatal hemorrhage. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **B. Complete arterial severing:** Contrary to intuition, a completely transected artery often bleeds less than a partially injured one. The severed ends can retract into the sheath and undergo intense circumferential vasospasm, which facilitates clot formation and natural hemostasis. * **A. Partial arterial severing:** In a partial tear (e.g., a longitudinal or transverse nick), the intact portion of the arterial wall prevents the vessel from retracting or contracting fully. While this bleeds more than a complete transection, it typically bleeds less than an artery held open by bone fragments. * **D. Intimal tear:** This involves an internal injury to the vessel lining. While it is highly dangerous because it leads to **thrombosis and distal ischemia**, it rarely causes significant external or cavitary bleeding. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **The "Retraction Principle":** A completely severed artery is safer than a partially torn one because retraction is the body's primary defense against exsanguination. * **Fracture Association:** Brachial artery injuries are most common with supracondylar fractures of the humerus, while Popliteal artery injuries are common with knee dislocations or distal femur fractures. * **Management:** In trauma, the priority is always "Control the Bleed" (Pressure > Tourniquet) followed by restoring distal perfusion.

Q: Which of the following can cause secondary brain injury?

All of the above. ### Explanation **Concept:** Brain injury is classified into two phases: **Primary injury** occurs at the moment of impact (e.g., contusions, axonal shearing). **Secondary injury** refers to the subsequent biochemical and physiological insults that further damage the brain tissue. The primary goal of neurotrauma management is to prevent secondary injury by maintaining adequate **Cerebral Perfusion Pressure (CPP)**, which is calculated as: *CPP = Mean Arterial Pressure (MAP) – Intracranial Pressure (ICP).* **Why "All of the Above" is Correct:** * **Hypoxia (Option A):** The injured brain is extremely sensitive to oxygen deprivation. Hypoxia (PaO₂ 30 mmHg), it compresses cerebral vasculature, reducing CPP and potentially leading to brain herniation. * **Hypotension (Option C):** A single episode of hypotension (Systolic BP < 90 mmHg) is one of the strongest predictors of poor outcome in TBI. Low MAP directly reduces CPP, causing cerebral ischemia. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** 1. **The "Golden Rule" of TBI:** Avoid the "H-bombs"—Hypotension, Hypoxia, Hypercapnia, and Hyperthermia—to minimize secondary injury. 2. **Target Values:** In trauma management, aim for a **Systolic BP ≥ 100–110 mmHg** (depending on age) and keep **ICP < 22 mmHg**. 3. **Cushing’s Triad:** A late sign of increased ICP characterized by Hypertension, Bradycardia, and Irregular respirations. 4. **Monro-Kellie Doctrine:** The cranial vault is a fixed volume; an increase in one component (blood, CSF, or brain/mass) must be compensated by a decrease in another, or ICP will rise exponentially.

Q: Which is the most common organ affected in primary blast injury?

Ear. **Explanation:** Blast injuries are classified into four categories (Primary to Quaternary). **Primary blast injuries** are caused specifically by the **overpressure wave** (blast wave) interacting with the body. This wave most significantly affects **air-containing organs** and **air-fluid interfaces**, as these tissues are highly compressible and susceptible to shearing forces. * **Correct Answer (B) Ear:** The **tympanic membrane (TM)** is the most sensitive structure to pressure changes. It can rupture at pressures as low as 5–15 psi. Because it has the lowest threshold for damage, the ear is the **most common** organ affected in primary blast injury. * **Option (A) Lung:** While "Blast Lung" (pulmonary contusion/hemorrhage) is the **most common cause of death** among initial survivors of a blast, it requires higher pressures to occur than a TM rupture. * **Option (D) Bowel:** Gas-filled organs like the colon (especially the cecum) can suffer mural hemorrhage or perforation, but this is less common than ear or lung involvement. * **Option (C) Skin:** The skin is generally resilient to the overpressure wave itself; injuries to the skin are more common in secondary (shrapnel) or tertiary (displacement) blast phases. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** 1. **Most common organ affected:** Ear (Tympanic membrane). 2. **Most common cause of death (Primary):** Blast Lung (look for the triad of apnea, bradycardia, and hypotension). 3. **Secondary Blast Injury:** Caused by flying debris/shrapnel (most common cause of overall casualties). 4. **Tertiary Blast Injury:** Caused by the victim being thrown against an object. 5. **Quaternary Blast Injury:** All other injuries (burns, toxic inhalation, crush syndrome).

Q: Which of the following is not a feature of a Le Fort II fracture?

Enophthalmos. **Explanation:** Le Fort fractures are classic patterns of midface fractures involving the pterygoid plates. Understanding the anatomical lines of these fractures is crucial for NEET-PG. **Why Enophthalmos is the correct answer:** Enophthalmos (posterior displacement of the eyeball) is a hallmark feature of **Le Fort III fractures** (Craniofacial disjunction) or isolated **Orbital Blow-out fractures**. In a Le Fort II fracture, the orbital floor is involved, but the lateral orbital wall remains intact. Therefore, the orbital volume does not increase significantly enough to cause enophthalmos. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Malocclusion:** This is a common feature of all Le Fort fractures (I, II, and III) because the tooth-bearing segment of the maxilla is separated from the stable cranial base, leading to a "floating palate" and disrupted bite. * **Paraesthesia:** In Le Fort II (Pyramidal fracture), the fracture line passes through the **infraorbital foramen**. This frequently results in damage or compression of the infraorbital nerve, causing anesthesia or paraesthesia of the cheek and upper lip. * **CSF Rhinorrhea:** Since the fracture line in Le Fort II involves the ethmoid air cells and potentially the cribriform plate (at the nasofrontal suture), a dural tear can occur, leading to the leakage of cerebrospinal fluid through the nose. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls:** * **Le Fort I:** Horizontal fracture (Guerin's fracture); involves only the dentoalveolar segment. * **Le Fort II:** Pyramidal fracture; involves the nasal bones, maxillary sinus, and infraorbital rim. * **Le Fort III:** Craniofacial disjunction; involves the zygomatic arch and lateral orbital wall. * **Key Sign:** All Le Fort fractures must involve the **pterygoid plates** to be classified as such. * **Dish-face deformity:** Classically associated with Le Fort II and III due to the retrusion of the midface.

Q: A patient presents to the emergency department. On examination, they open their eyes only to painful stimuli, speak inappropriate words, and move their limbs on command. What is their Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score?

11. ### Explanation The **Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)** is a clinical tool used to assess a patient's level of consciousness based on three parameters: Eye opening (E), Verbal response (V), and Motor response (M). The score ranges from a minimum of 3 to a maximum of 15. **Breakdown of the Patient’s Score:** 1. **Eye Opening (E):** The patient opens eyes only to painful stimuli. This corresponds to a score of **2**. (Spontaneous = 4, To speech = 3, To pain = 2, None = 1). 2. **Verbal Response (V):** The patient speaks inappropriate words (random or exclamatory words without sustained conversation). This corresponds to a score of **3**. (Oriented = 5, Confused = 4, Inappropriate words = 3, Incomprehensible sounds = 2, None = 1). 3. **Motor Response (M):** The patient moves limbs on command (obeys commands). This corresponds to a score of **6**. (Obeys commands = 6, Localizes pain = 5, Normal flexion/Withdrawal = 4, Abnormal flexion/Decorticate = 3, Extension/Decerebrate = 2, None = 1). **Total GCS = E2 + V3 + M6 = 11.** **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Option B (10):** This would be the score if the patient only localized pain (M5) instead of obeying commands. * **Option C (9):** This would be the score if the patient also had incomprehensible sounds (V2) instead of words. * **Option D (13):** This indicates a milder impairment, usually seen if the patient was confused (V4) and opened eyes to speech (E3). **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **GCS ≤ 8** is the traditional definition of a **coma** and is an indication for **intubation** ("GCS of 8, intubate"). * **Motor response** is the most significant prognostic indicator among the three components. * If a patient is intubated, the verbal score is recorded as **"T"** (e.g., GCS 10T). * **Severity Classification:** 13–15 (Mild), 9–12 (Moderate), 3–8 (Severe head injury).

Question 1

What is the first priority in the management of a burn injury?

Accepted Answer

Airway control

Answer

Exposure

Answer

Fluid resuscitation

Answer

Circulation

Question 2

Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding silver sulfadiazine?

Accepted Answer

It can be used for treating established infections on burnt surfaces

Answer

The concentration used is 1%

Answer

It is used for preventing infections on burnt surfaces

Answer

It is active against Pseudomonas

Question 3

Which nerve has the best prognosis after repair?

Accepted Answer

Radial nerve

Answer

Median nerve

Answer

Sciatic nerve

Answer

Ulnar nerve

Question 4

What is the name of the wiring technique used for mandibular fractures?

Accepted Answer

Risdon wiring

Answer

Ivy's wiring

Answer

Gilmer wiring

Answer

Eyelet wiring

Question 5

In a head injury patient, Mannitol should not be used for the control of increased intracranial pressure when:

Accepted Answer

Serum osmolality is more than 320 mOsmol/kg

Answer

PaCO2 is less than 34 mm Hg

Answer

PaO2 is more than 100 mm Hg

Answer

pH is less than 7.35

Question 6

Which of the following causes maximum bleeding?

Accepted Answer

Artery caught between fractured ends of bones

Answer

Partial arterial severing

Answer

Complete arterial severing

Answer

Intimal tear

Question 7

Which of the following can cause secondary brain injury?

Accepted Answer

All of the above

Answer

Hypoxia

Answer

Intracranial pressure > 30mm Hg

Answer

Hypotension

Question 8

Which is the most common organ affected in primary blast injury?

Accepted Answer

Ear

Answer

Lung

Answer

Skin

Answer

Bowel

Question 9

Which of the following is not a feature of a Le Fort II fracture?

Accepted Answer

Enophthalmos

Answer

Malocclusion

Answer

Paraesthesia

Answer

CSF rhinorrhea

Question 10

A patient presents to the emergency department. On examination, they open their eyes only to painful stimuli, speak inappropriate words, and move their limbs on command. What is their Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score?

Accepted Answer

11

Answer

10

Answer

9

Answer

13

Trauma — MCQs

Trauma — MCQs

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