Trauma — MCQs

Trauma Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 1201: Parkland's formula is used to calculate the fluid replacement to be given in the first 24 hours in a case of deep burns. What is the Parkland formula?

A. TBSA x weight in kg x 4 (Correct Answer)
B. TBSA x weight in kg x 2
C. TBSA x weight in kg x 3
D. TBSA x weight in kg

Explanation: ***TBSA x weight in kg x 4*** - Parkland's formula calculates the **total fluid replacement during the first 24 hours** post-burn as 4 mL of Ringer's Lactate per kilogram of body weight per percentage of **total body surface area (TBSA)** burned. - Half of the calculated volume is administered within the first 8 hours, and the remaining half over the next 16 hours. *TBSA x weight in kg x 2* - This value represents half of the recommended fluid volume using the Parkland formula, and would be insufficient for total 24-hour resuscitation. - Inadequate fluid resuscitation can lead to **burn shock**, characterized by hypoperfusion and organ dysfunction. *TBSA x weight in kg x 3* - This multiplier falls short of the recommended 4 mL/kg/TBSA for comprehensive fluid resuscitation in adults. - Using this formula could result in undertreatment, potentially compromising tissue perfusion and increasing the risk of complications. *TBSA x weight in kg* - This formula represents one-fourth of the recommended fluid volume according to the Parkland formula. - This significantly inadequate fluid replacement would lead to severe **hypovolemia**, organ failure, and a very poor prognosis.

Question 1202: The best method to prevent gas gangrene in a 45-year-old female who has been brought to the emergency room with a crush injury of the thigh following a motor vehicle accident is

A. Extensive wound debridement (Correct Answer)
B. Hyperbaric oxygen therapy
C. Gas gangrene prophylaxis serum
D. Tetanus prophylaxis

Explanation: ***Extensive wound debridement*** - **Debridement** removes **necrotic tissue** and foreign bodies, eliminating the anaerobic environment and substrate upon which *Clostridium perfringens* thrives. - This direct removal of contaminated tissue is the most effective way to prevent the proliferation of anaerobic bacteria responsible for **gas gangrene**. *Hyperbaric oxygen therapy* - While **hyperbaric oxygen therapy** can be a useful adjuvant treatment once **gas gangrene** is established, it is not the primary preventative measure. - It creates a hyperoxic environment toxic to anaerobes and aids tissue healing, but it does not address the initial wound contamination. *Gas gangrene prophylaxis serum* - There is currently **no effective or routinely used gas gangrene prophylaxis serum** or antitoxin for prevention. - Antitoxins are more relevant in treating established toxemia, and their prophylactic use is not standard practice due to limited efficacy and potential side effects. *Tetanus prophylaxis* - **Tetanus prophylaxis** (e.g., tetanus toxoid vaccine, TIG) is crucial for crush injuries due to the risk of *Clostridium tetani* infection, but it does not prevent gas gangrene. - Tetanus and gas gangrene are caused by different clostridial species with distinct pathological mechanisms and require different prophylactic approaches.

Question 1203: True regarding management of traumatic pneumothorax is:

A. Immediate ICD tube insertion (Correct Answer)
B. CT-scan should be done to confirm pulmonary leak
C. Intermittent needle aspiration
D. Conservative management is appropriate for all cases

Explanation: ***Immediate ICD tube insertion*** - **Chest tube (ICD) insertion** is the **standard of care** for traumatic pneumothorax according to **ATLS guidelines** - Unlike spontaneous pneumothorax, traumatic cases require tube thoracostomy due to: - High risk of **tension pneumothorax** development - Need for **positive pressure ventilation** in trauma patients - Presence of **ongoing air leak** from lung injury - Frequent **associated injuries** (hemothorax, rib fractures) - Even small traumatic pneumothoraces warrant chest tube due to unpredictable progression *CT-scan should be done to confirm pulmonary leak* - **Chest X-ray** is the standard initial imaging for traumatic pneumothorax, not CT scan - CT may be used to detect **occult pneumothorax** or for surgical planning, but is not routinely required for diagnosis - The term "confirm pulmonary leak" is medically imprecise; diagnosis is typically made by chest X-ray *Intermittent needle aspiration* - **Needle aspiration** is appropriate for **primary spontaneous pneumothorax** in select cases - **Not recommended** for traumatic pneumothorax due to: - Higher recurrence rates - Need for definitive drainage - Risk of ongoing bleeding or air leak - May be used temporarily for **tension pneumothorax** as an emergency measure before chest tube insertion *Conservative management is appropriate for all cases* - The word **"all"** makes this statement incorrect - Conservative management may be considered only for **very small (<2cm), asymptomatic** occult pneumothoraces in stable patients - Most traumatic pneumothoraces require intervention due to trauma mechanism and associated risks

Question 1204: Which of the following is not a clinical feature of a fracture of the zygomatic bone?

A. Diplopia
B. Trismus
C. Bleeding
D. Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) rhinorrhea (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) rhinorrhea*** - **CSF rhinorrhea** is strongly associated with fractures involving the **cribriform plate** or **anterior cranial fossa**, typically seen in more extensive craniofacial trauma. - While a zygomatic bone fracture can cause periorbital edema and ecchymosis, it does not directly involve structures that would lead to CSF leakage. *Diplopia* - Zygomatic bone fractures can displace the eye globe or entrap extraocular muscles, leading to **double vision** (diplopia). - This is a common finding, especially when the fracture extends into the orbit. *Trismus* - The zygoma forms part of the **zygomatic arch**, which is closely related to the temporomandibular joint (TMJ) and muscles of mastication. - Fractures in this area can cause pain and muscle spasm, limiting jaw movement and resulting in **trismus**. *Bleeding* - Any bone fracture, including that of the zygoma, involves disruption of blood vessels within the bone and surrounding soft tissues. - This typically results in **hematoma formation**, swelling, and bruising (ecchymosis) around the fracture site.

Question 1205: Which of the following is NOT a clinical feature of fat embolism?

A. Fat globules in urine are diagnostic (Correct Answer)
B. Systemic hypoxia may occur
C. Tachypnoea
D. Has a latent period of 1-3 days after trauma

Explanation: ***Fat globules in urine are diagnostic*** - While **fat globules** can sometimes be found in the urine of patients with fat embolism syndrome (FES), their presence is **not diagnostic** for FES. - The diagnosis of FES is primarily clinical, based on a constellation of symptoms rather than a single definitive laboratory test. *Tachypnoea* - **Tachypnoea** (rapid breathing) is a common clinical feature of fat embolism, often indicating **pulmonary involvement** and respiratory distress. - This symptom arises from **fat emboli** lodging in the pulmonary capillaries, leading to inflammation and impaired gas exchange. *Systemic hypoxia may occur* - **Systemic hypoxia**, characterized by low oxygen levels in the blood, is a significant complication of fat embolism, particularly due to **pulmonary dysfunction**. - **Impaired gas exchange** in the lungs caused by fat emboli leads to a reduction in oxygen saturation throughout the body. *Has a latent period of 1-3 days after trauma* - Fat embolism syndrome typically presents with a **latent period** of **12 to 72 hours (1-3 days)** following the initial traumatic event, such as a long bone fracture. - This delay is characteristic and helps differentiate FES from other immediate post-traumatic complications.

Question 1206: As per the trimodal distribution, what percentage of all deaths occur immediately in major trauma?

A. 25%
B. 35%
C. 50% (Correct Answer)
D. 45%

Explanation: ***50%*** - The **trimodal distribution of trauma deaths** identifies three peaks in mortality following major trauma. The first peak, representing approximately **50% of all deaths**, occurs **immediately** at the scene or shortly after. - These deaths are often due to severe, unavoidable injuries such as **aortic rupture, severe brain injury, brainstem injury, or high cervical spinal cord injury**. *25%* - This percentage is too low for the immediate death peak in major trauma. The distribution indicates a significantly higher proportion of deaths occur upfront. - While a certain percentage of deaths occur later, the **initial immediate mortality** is much higher than 25%. *35%* - This value is not consistent with the established percentages of the trimodal distribution for immediate trauma deaths. - The **immediate death peak** is known to be the largest, representing a considerable proportion of overall mortality. *45%* - This is close but not the most accurate percentage for immediate trauma deaths in the trimodal distribution. - The figure of **50% is widely accepted and taught** for the initial, immediate mortality phase.

Question 1207: Which of the following statements is true regarding intra-abdominal compartment syndrome?

A. All of the options (Correct Answer)
B. Pneumoperitoneum can increase intra-abdominal pressure but is not a common cause.
C. Renal blood flow is affected.
D. Intra-abdominal pressure > 20 mmHg with new organ dysfunction

Explanation: ***All of the options*** - All statements provided accurately describe aspects of intra-abdominal compartment syndrome or factors influencing intra-abdominal pressure. - **Intra-abdominal compartment syndrome (ACS)** is defined by a sustained IAP **greater than 20 mmHg** associated with **new organ dysfunction**. - **Intra-abdominal hypertension** is defined as an IAP persistently ≥12 mmHg. *Pneumoperitoneum can increase intra-abdominal pressure but is not a common cause* - While **pneumoperitoneum**, particularly during laparoscopic surgery, does increase IAP, it is typically a **controlled and transient** increase. - This makes it an uncommon cause of sustained, pathological intra-abdominal compartment syndrome. - The gas is usually absorbed or released, preventing the prolonged high pressures seen in other etiologies like severe ascites, hemorrhage, or aggressive fluid resuscitation. *Renal blood flow is affected* - Elevated intra-abdominal pressure **reduces renal perfusion pressure** and compresses renal veins and parenchyma, leading to decreased renal blood flow. - This results in **oliguria or anuria** and is a critical component of the **organ dysfunction** defining ACS. - Often leads to acute kidney injury if not promptly addressed. *Intra-abdominal pressure > 20 mmHg with new organ dysfunction* - This is the **complete definition** of intra-abdominal compartment syndrome. - The combination of **sustained IAP > 20 mmHg** plus **new organ dysfunction/failure** distinguishes ACS from intra-abdominal hypertension alone. - Organ dysfunction may manifest as renal failure, respiratory compromise, decreased cardiac output, or abdominal perfusion pressure < 60 mmHg.

Question 1208: What percentage of total body surface area is affected in an adult with burns involving both lower limbs and genitalia?

A. 18%
B. 19%
C. 36%
D. 37% (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***37%*** - The **Rule of Nines** is used to estimate the percentage of **Total Body Surface Area (TBSA)** affected by burns in adults. - According to this rule, each lower limb accounts for **18%** of TBSA, and the genitalia/perineum accounts for **1%**. Therefore, both lower limbs (18% + 18%) + genitalia (1%) = **37%**. *18%* - This percentage represents only **one entire lower limb** or the entire anterior trunk in an adult according to the Rule of Nines. - It does not account for both lower limbs and the genitalia. *19%* - This would represent one lower limb (18%) plus the genitalia (1%), or an entire lower limb plus a small additional area. - It does not cover the **entirety of both lower limbs** and genitalia. *36%* - This percentage would typically refer to the **entire back** (18%) and the **entire chest/abdomen** (18%), or both lower limbs without the genitalia. - It specifically **excludes the 1% for the genitalia**, making it an underestimation for the scenario described.

Question 1209: A 60-kg female has a second-degree deep burn involving 40% of her total body surface area, with hoarseness of voice. What is the IMMEDIATE priority in her management?

A. Intubation must be done (Correct Answer)
B. 9.6 liters of Ringer’s lactate should be given in the first 24 hours.
C. Normal saline is the fluid of choice.
D. 4.8 liters of Ringer’s lactate should be given in the first 8 hours.

Explanation: ***Intubation must be done*** - The presence of **hoarseness of voice** in a burn patient indicates potential **airway edema** or **inhalational injury**, which can rapidly progress to complete airway obstruction. - Securing the airway via **intubation** is the immediate priority to prevent life-threatening respiratory compromise. - Early intubation is crucial because airway edema progresses over hours, and delayed intubation may become extremely difficult or impossible. *9.6 liters of Ringer's lactate should be given in the first 24 hours.* - While **fluid resuscitation** is crucial in burn management, calculating the total 24-hour fluid requirement using the **Parkland formula** (4 mL × kg × %TBSA = 4 × 60 × 40 = 9,600 mL) is secondary to **securing the airway**. - Fluid resuscitation follows the **ABC protocol** where Airway takes precedence over Circulation. *Normal saline is the fluid of choice.* - This is **incorrect**. **Ringer's lactate** is the preferred crystalloid over normal saline for burn resuscitation because it is a **balanced crystalloid** with a composition closer to plasma, reducing the risk of **hyperchloremic acidosis**. - Choice of fluid is important but is not the immediate priority over managing an impending airway emergency. *4.8 liters of Ringer's lactate should be given in the first 8 hours.* - Administering half of the total 24-hour fluid volume (9.6 L ÷ 2 = 4.8 L) in the first 8 hours is correct per the **Parkland formula** for fluid resuscitation. - This is a critical step in managing burn shock, but it follows the established **ABC (Airway, Breathing, Circulation)** protocol, placing **airway management** as the paramount immediate concern.

Question 1210: Lucid interval is associated with?

A. Acute subdural hematoma
B. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
C. Extradural hematoma (Correct Answer)
D. Chronic subdural hematoma

Explanation: ***Extradural hematoma*** - A **lucid interval** is the classic finding, where the patient experiences a temporary improvement in consciousness after initial head injury before neurological deterioration. - This is due to a **slowly expanding hematoma**, often caused by a ruptured **middle meningeal artery**, allowing a period of relatively normal function. *Acute subdural hematoma* - This condition typically presents with **immediate neurological deterioration** following the injury, without a lucid interval. - It results from **venous bleeding** which causes rapid accumulation of blood and pressure on the brain. *Subarachnoid hemorrhage* - Characterized by a **sudden, severe headache** often described as the "worst headache of my life." - It is usually caused by the rupture of an **aneurysm**, leading to bleeding into the subarachnoid space and meningeal irritation. *Chronic subdural hematoma* - Symptoms develop **gradually over weeks to months** after a minor head injury, not with a distinct lucid interval followed by rapid decline. - Often found in elderly patients or those on anticoagulants, due to slow venous bleeding.

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