Trauma — MCQs

Trauma Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 1181: Which of the following statements is true regarding contrecoup brain injury?

A. Occurs at the site opposite to the impact (Correct Answer)
B. Only affects the brain tissue
C. Occurs when the head strikes a stationary object
D. More common when a moving object strikes a stationary head

Explanation: ***Occurs at the site opposite to the impact*** - **Contrecoup injury** is defined as brain damage occurring on the side **opposite** to the initial point of impact - This occurs due to the brain's inertia, causing it to move within the skull and strike the opposite side after initial impact - This is the **defining characteristic** of contrecoup injury *More common when a moving object strikes a stationary head* - This is **incorrect** - this scenario typically causes **coup injury** (injury at the impact site) - **Contrecoup injuries** are more common when a **moving head strikes a stationary object** (e.g., fall, motor vehicle accident hitting dashboard) - The deceleration mechanism in moving head injuries causes the brain to rebound and strike the opposite skull surface *Occurs when the head strikes a stationary object* - While this scenario **can** produce contrecoup injury, it is not the **defining feature** - This describes the mechanism (moving head → stationary object) but not the essential characteristic (injury location opposite to impact) - Both coup and contrecoup injuries can occur in this scenario *Only affects the brain tissue* - **Incorrect** - contrecoup injury can involve multiple structures - Associated injuries include **skull fractures, subdural hematomas, subarachnoid hemorrhage, and intracerebral hemorrhages** - The term describes the pattern of brain injury but complications extend beyond neural parenchyma alone

Question 1182: After a young male presented with a non-pulsatile retroperitoneal hematoma and an on-table IVU was performed, the right kidney was not visualized, while the left kidney showed immediate excretion of dye. What is the next step in management?

A. Perform retrograde pyelography
B. Nephrectomy
C. Perform on table angiography
D. Open Gerota's fascia and explore proximal renal vessels (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Open Gerota's fascia and explore proximal renal vessels*** - A non-pulsatile retroperitoneal hematoma with non-visualization of the kidney on IVU suggests a **renal pedicle injury**, likely involving the renal artery. - **Prompt exploration** of the renal vessels within Gerota's fascia is crucial to assess for and repair potential vascular damage to save the kidney. *Nephrectomy* - This is an **extreme measure** and should only be considered after attempts to salvage the kidney have failed or if the kidney is severely damaged beyond repair, which is not yet confirmed. - **Preservation of renal function** is paramount, especially in a young patient, so initial management focuses on repair rather than removal. *Perform retrograde pyelography* - Retrograde pyelography primarily visualizes the collecting system (ureter and renal pelvis) and would not effectively identify **vascular injuries** to the renal artery or vein. - The immediate concern is the lack of perfusion to the kidney, indicated by non-visualization on IVU, which points to a **vascular issue rather than a collecting system obstruction**. *Perform on table angiography* - While angiography can identify vascular injuries, performing it "on table" during an open surgical exploration for a retroperitoneal hematoma can be **time-consuming** and delay direct access to the injured vessels. - **Direct surgical exploration** allows for immediate control of bleeding and repair of the vessel, which is often faster and more definitive in an acute setting.

Question 1183: What is the treatment for most cases of blunt trauma to the kidney?

A. Conservative (Correct Answer)
B. Nephrectomy
C. Nephrotomy
D. Nephroplexy

Explanation: ***Conservative*** - The majority of kidney injuries resulting from **blunt trauma** are low-grade (Grades I-III) and can be successfully managed with **conservative (non-operative) methods**. - This typically involves bed rest, careful monitoring of vital signs and urine output, hydration, and serial imaging to ensure stability and healing of the kidney. *Nephrectomy* - **Nephrectomy** (surgical removal of the kidney) is generally reserved for severe, high-grade kidney injuries (Grades IV-V) that are life-threatening or cannot be controlled by other means. - Indications include uncontrollable hemorrhage, extensive renal parenchymal destruction, or a non-viable kidney. *Nephrotomy* - **Nephrotomy** is an incision into the kidney, often performed for stone removal or to drain an abscess, but it is not a primary treatment for blunt traumatic kidney injury. - While surgical repair (nephrorrhaphy) may sometimes be indicated for high-grade injuries to preserve the kidney, a simple nephrotomy is not the standard approach. *Nephroplexy* - **Nephroplexy** is a surgical procedure to fix a prolapsed or "floating" kidney (nephroptosis), which is an entirely different condition from traumatic injury. - This procedure aims to secure the kidney in its normal anatomical position and is not indicated for kidney trauma.

Question 1184: Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a blowout fracture of the orbit?

A. Orbital floor and medial wall involvement are common
B. Exophthalmos (Correct Answer)
C. Tear drop sign on CT scan
D. Diplopia due to muscle entrapment

Explanation: ***Exophthalmos*** - A **blowout fracture** typically causes the orbital contents to herniate into adjacent sinuses (maxillary or ethmoid), leading to an **increase in orbital volume**. - This increased orbital volume, combined with swelling and potential hemorrhage, usually results in **enophthalmos** (recession of the eyeball), not exophthalmos (protrusion of the eyeball). *Orbital floor and medial wall involvement are common* - The **orbital floor** (paper-thin bone separating the orbit from the maxillary sinus) and **medial wall** (separating the orbit from the ethmoid sinus) are the weakest structures of the orbit and are most commonly fractured in a blowout injury. - These areas are susceptible to fracture due to the force transmitted to the orbital contents, causing a sudden increase in intraorbital pressure. *Tear drop sign on CT scan* - The **tear drop sign** on a CT scan is a classic finding in orbital blowout fractures, representing the **herniation of orbital fat** or inferior rectus muscle into the maxillary sinus. - This sign indicates the displacement of soft tissue through the fractured orbital floor. *Diplopia due to muscle entrapment* - **Diplopia** (double vision) is a common symptom in blowout fractures, often caused by the **entrapment of extraocular muscles** (most commonly the inferior rectus or medial rectus) within the fracture site. - Muscle entrapment restricts ocular motility, particularly on upward or sideways gaze, leading to double vision.

Question 1185: The least common organ injured by blast injury is:

A. Tympanic membrane
B. Skull
C. Stomach (Correct Answer)
D. Alveoli of the lung

Explanation: ***Stomach*** - The stomach is one of the **least commonly injured organs** in blast trauma due to its location deep within the abdominal cavity, protected by other structures. - Its **elasticity** and ability to absorb pressure also offer some protection against direct blast wave injury. *Tympanic membrane* - The **tympanic membrane (eardrum)** is the **most common organ injured** by blast overpressure due to its delicate structure and direct exposure to changes in atmospheric pressure. - **Perforation** of the tympanic membrane is a hallmark of blast injury and a significant indicator of blast exposure severity. *Alveoli of the lung* - The **lungs** are highly susceptible to primary blast injury (blast lung) because they contain **air-fluid interfaces** that transmit and amplify blast waves. - Injury to the **alveoli** can lead to **hemorrhage**, edema, and pneumothorax, significantly impairing gas exchange. *Skull* - While not as commonly injured by the primary blast wave as the tympanic membrane or lungs, the **skull** can sustain serious injuries from **secondary blast effects** (fragments/projectiles) or **tertiary blast effects** (head impact from displacement). - **Traumatic brain injury (TBI)** is a significant concern in blast trauma, often resulting from both direct intracranial pressure changes and impact.

Question 1186: A 20-year-old man is hit on the eye with a ball, and on examination, there is restriction of upward gaze and diplopia, with no obvious visible signs of injury to the eye ball, but with some enophthalmos. What is the likely diagnosis?

A. Zygoma fracture
B. Maxillary fracture
C. Blow out fracture of the orbit (Correct Answer)
D. Injury to lateral rectus

Explanation: ***Blow out fracture of the orbit*** - This fracture typically involves the **orbital floor** or medial wall, leading to prolapse of orbital contents into the maxillary or ethmoid sinus. - Symptoms like **diplopia** (due to muscle entrapment), **restricted gaze** (especially upward gaze if the inferior rectus is trapped), and **enophthalmos** (due to increased orbital volume) are classic signs. *Zygoma fracture* - A zygoma fracture primarily affects the cheekbone and can cause facial flattening, trismus (difficulty opening the mouth), and numbness in the distribution of the infraorbital nerve. - While it can indirectly affect orbital integrity, the specific combination of restricted gaze and enophthalmos points more directly to an orbital blow-out. *Maxillary fracture* - Maxillary fractures often present with midfacial pain, swelling, malocclusion, and sometimes epistaxis. - While some maxillary fractures can involve the orbital floor, the isolated presentation of restricted gaze, diplopia, and enophthalmos without other prominent midfacial signs makes a specific blow-out fracture diagnosis more probable. *Injury to lateral rectus* - Isolated injury to the lateral rectus muscle would primarily cause **restricted lateral gaze** and horizontal diplopia due to impaired abduction of the eye. - It would not typically explain **restricted upward gaze** or **enophthalmos**, which are more indicative of structural damage and entrapment within the orbit.

Question 1187: Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a deep burn?

A. Loss of pain sensation
B. Black charred skin
C. White leathery skin
D. Blisters (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Blisters*** - The presence of **blisters** is a characteristic feature of **second-degree (partial-thickness) burns**, where the epidermis and part of the dermis are damaged. - In **deep (full-thickness) burns**, the skin layers are completely destroyed, and blisters typically do not form. *Black charred skin* - **Black charred skin** is indicative of a **full-thickness burn**, often resulting from prolonged exposure to intense heat. - This appearance signifies the complete destruction of skin tissue. *White leathery skin* - **White, leathery, and dry skin** is typical of **full-thickness or deep partial-thickness burns**, where the dermis is severely damaged. - This indicates **coagulation** and destruction of dermal components. *Loss of pain sensation* - **Loss of pain sensation** in the affected area is a hallmark of a **deep (full-thickness) burn** because nerve endings in the dermis are completely destroyed. - In contrast, shallower burns are typically very painful due to exposed and irritated nerve endings.

Question 1188: Polytrauma patients with massive open bleeding wounds of the right thigh with active hemorrhage should be managed first of all by?

A. Tourniquet application (Correct Answer)
B. Tight bandage application
C. Blood transfusion
D. Airway maintenance

Explanation: ***Tourniquet application*** - For **massive open bleeding wounds** with active hemorrhage in an extremity, a tourniquet is the most immediate and effective way to control life-threatening bleeding. - Rapid application of a **tourniquet proximal to the wound** significantly reduces blood loss, improving patient survival in trauma. *Tight bandage application* - While useful for less severe bleeding, a **tight bandage** is often insufficient to control massive, active arterial or venous hemorrhage. - It might temporarily slow bleeding but can easily be overwhelmed, leading to continued significant blood loss. *Blood transfusion* - **Blood transfusion** is a critical intervention for replacing lost blood volume due to hemorrhage but is not the *first* step in managing active bleeding. - Controlling the source of bleeding (e.g., with a tourniquet) must precede or occur simultaneously with fluid and blood resuscitation. *Airway maintenance* - **Airway maintenance** is a fundamental principle in trauma management (ABCs: Airway, Breathing, Circulation), but in the presence of massive, uncontrolled external bleeding, hemorrhage control takes immediate priority. - The patient will die from exsanguination before an airway becomes the primary fatal problem if massive bleeding is not addressed.

Question 1189: Which of the following is a primary aim of damage control laparotomy?

A. Arrest hemorrhage and control contamination. (Correct Answer)
B. Control contamination
C. Prevent coagulopathy
D. Arrest hemorrhage

Explanation: ***Arrest hemorrhage and control contamination.*** * The overarching goal of a **damage control laparotomy** is to rapidly address immediate life threats, primarily **hemorrhage** and **bowel contamination**, in severely injured, unstable patients. * This approach prioritizes patient survival by performing essential steps quickly, deferring definitive repairs until the patient is physiologically stable. *Control contamination* * While **controlling contamination** is a critical component of damage control laparotomy, it is not the sole primary aim. * Uncontrolled bleeding, even without contamination, can rapidly lead to death in a trauma patient. *Prevent coagulopathy* * Preventing **coagulopathy** is an important consideration during damage control, but it is a consequence of uncontrolled hemorrhage and hypothermia, rather than a primary surgical aim in the initial damage control phase. * The surgical steps in damage control directly address the sources of bleeding and contamination. *Arrest hemorrhage* * **Arresting hemorrhage** is indeed a primary aim, but it is often accompanied by the need to control contamination from injured hollow organs. * Many abdominal trauma cases involve both significant bleeding and potential contamination.

Question 1190: In frostbite, the skin becomes hard and black in about:

A. 3 days
B. 7 days
C. 2 weeks (Correct Answer)
D. 4-6 weeks

Explanation: ***2 weeks*** - In cases of severe frostbite, the affected **skin and underlying tissue** typically become **hard, black, and mummified** within approximately 2 weeks after the injury. - This progression indicates **full-thickness tissue necrosis** and often leads to the need for **amputation or debridement**. *3 days* - While initial signs of **tissue damage**, such as blistering and swelling, may appear within 24-48 hours, the full extent of **mummification or eschar formation** usually takes longer. - **Hardening and blackening** within 3 days would be an unusually rapid progression, typically associated with very severe and immediate tissue death, which is not the common timeline for such extensive changes. *7 days* - By 7 days, there can be significant **blistering and tissue discoloration**, but the complete **mummification and blackening** characteristic of full-thickness necrosis generally takes longer to develop. - Necrotic tissue may start to become firm and discolored, but may not fully achieve the typical **hard, black appearance** indicative of complete demarcation. *4-6 weeks* - By 4-6 weeks, the **demarcation line** between viable and non-viable tissue is usually well-established, and spontaneous **auto-amputation** or surgical intervention may have already occurred. - The initial **hardening and blackening** of the skin would have developed much earlier, typically by 2 weeks.

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