Preoperative and Postoperative Care — MCQs

Preoperative and Postoperative Care Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 241: A female patient who underwent surgery for abdominal intestinal perforation presents on the 5th postoperative day with serous discharge and a gap in the wound. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Wound dehiscence (Correct Answer)
B. Enterocutaneous fistula
C. Peritonitis
D. Seroma

Explanation: ***Wound dehiscence*** - This is the most likely diagnosis given the presentation of **serous discharge** and a **gap in the wound** on the 5th postoperative day. - **Abdominal intestinal perforation** surgery is a risk factor, and the timing is consistent with **fascial dehiscence**, which can lead to evisceration if left untreated. *Enterocutaneous fistula* - This involves a connection between the **bowel lumen** and the **skin surface**, typically discharging enteric contents (e.g., bile, stool), not just serous fluid. - While a possibility in complicated abdominal surgeries, the description of a "gap in the wound" and serous discharge is more indicative of a **structural failure** of the wound. *Seroma* - A seroma is a collection of **serous fluid** under the skin flap or surgical incision, presenting as a **fluctuant swelling**, but it typically does not involve a "gap in the wound." - It would not usually present with a wound **disruption** that exposes underlying tissue; instead, it's an intact pocket of fluid. *Peritonitis* - This is an **inflammation of the peritoneum**, usually caused by infection, and presents with **severe abdominal pain**, fever, and diffuse tenderness, which are not mentioned here. - While an intestinal perforation would initially cause peritonitis, the current presentation focuses on the **wound site** rather than systemic or diffuse abdominal symptoms.

Question 242: What is the purpose of pneumatic compression stockings?

A. Prevention of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) (Correct Answer)
B. Prevention of hypothermia
C. Management of varicose veins
D. Treatment of cellulitis

Explanation: ***Prevention of deep vein thrombosis (DVT)*** - Pneumatic compression stockings work by **mechanically compressing** the legs, promoting venous return and preventing blood stasis in the deep veins. - This increased blood flow reduces the risk of **clot formation**, which is crucial in DVT prevention, especially in immobile patients. *Prevention of hypothermia* - While stockings might offer a minimal amount of insulation, their primary design and mechanism of action are **not aimed at regulating body temperature**. - **Other methods** like warming blankets or forced-air warmers are used for the effective prevention of hypothermia. *Management of varicose veins* - **Graduated compression stockings** (not pneumatic) are used for the management of varicose veins by providing constant external pressure. - Pneumatic compression stockings apply **intermittent pressure**, which is not ideal for the continuous support required for varicose vein management. *Treatment of cellulitis* - Cellulitis is a **bacterial infection** of the skin and subcutaneous tissue, requiring antibiotic treatment. - Compression stockings are generally **contraindicated** in acute cellulitis as they can worsen inflammation and impede circulation.

Question 243: On which postoperative day is burst abdomen most commonly observed?

A. 2nd postoperative day
B. 7th postoperative day (Correct Answer)
C. 9th postoperative day
D. 3rd postoperative day

Explanation: ***7th postoperative day*** - **Burst abdomen**, also known as **dehiscence**, typically occurs when the wound healing process is disrupted, predominantly around the **7th to 10th postoperative day**. - This timing correlates with the period when tissue strength relies on **collagen synthesis**, which can be compromised by various factors like infection or poor nutrition before new collagen sufficiently remodels the wound. *2nd postoperative day* - This is generally too early for a **burst abdomen** to manifest as the initial inflammatory phase of wound healing is still ongoing, and significant collagen weakening has not yet occurred. - Complications this early are more often related to immediate surgical technique or severe **hematoma** formation. *9th postoperative day* - While possible, the **9th postoperative day** is slightly less common than the 7th, which is widely recognized as the peak incidence due to the specific timeline of collagen synthesis and degradation. - However, the underlying factors leading to dehiscence persist, so it could still occur around this time. *3rd postoperative day* - Similar to the 2nd postoperative day, the **3rd postoperative day** is too premature for a typical **burst abdomen** to develop. - At this stage, surgical wounds are primarily held together by sutures and initial fibrin plugs, with minimal contribution from newly synthesized collagen.

Question 244: Patient can safely undergo major lung resection without an increased risk of postoperative complications if:

A. FEV1 > 2L, Normal DLCO (Correct Answer)
B. FEV1 > 1L, Decreased DLCO
C. FEV1 > 1L, Normal DLCO
D. FEV1 > 2L, Decreased DLCO

Explanation: ***FEV1 > 2L, Normal DLCO*** - A **forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1)** greater than 2 liters indicates **good baseline pulmonary function**, suggesting the patient can tolerate a significant reduction in lung tissue. - A **normal diffusing capacity of the lung for carbon monoxide (DLCO)** implies preserved alveolar-capillary membrane function and adequate gas exchange, which are crucial for maintaining oxygenation post-resection. *FEV1 > 1L, Normal DLCO* - While a normal DLCO is favorable, an **FEV1 only marginally above 1 liter** may still indicate some degree of airflow obstruction or reduced lung capacity. - This level of FEV1, although acceptable for some procedures, may not be sufficient to consider a major lung resection **safely without increased risk** due to the potential for significant postoperative respiratory compromise. *FEV1 > 1L, Decreased DLCO* - A **decreased DLCO** indicates impaired gas exchange, even if the FEV1 is somewhat preserved, suggesting underlying parenchymal lung disease or pulmonary vascular issues. - This combination significantly **increases the risk of postoperative complications** such as hypoxemia and pulmonary hypertension, making major lung resection unsafe. *FEV1 > 2L, Decreased DLCO* - Although an **FEV1 greater than 2 liters** is generally a good indicator of ventilatory capacity, a **decreased DLCO** still points to impaired gas exchange. - The presence of **impaired DLCO** suggests a higher risk of postoperative pulmonary complications, particularly respiratory failure and hypoxemia, even with good FEV1.

Question 245: Which of the following is the preferred cannulation site for total parenteral nutrition?

A. Subclavian vein (Correct Answer)
B. Great Saphenous vein
C. Median cubital vein
D. External jugular vein

Explanation: ***Subclavian vein*** - The **subclavian vein** is the preferred site for total parenteral nutrition (TPN) due to its **high blood flow**, which helps to rapidly dilute the hyperosmolar TPN solution, reducing the risk of thrombophlebitis. - Its relatively stable anatomical position also allows for long-term catheter placement with a **lower risk of dislodgement and infection**. *Great Saphenous vein* - The **great saphenous vein** is a peripheral vein with a **smaller diameter** and **lower blood flow** compared to central veins. - It is unsuitable for TPN due to the high risk of **thrombophlebitis** and **catheter-related infections** from the hyperosmolar solution. *Median cubital vein* - The **median cubital vein** is a peripheral vein commonly used for routine intravenous access but is not suitable for TPN. - Its **smaller caliber** and **peripheral location** would lead to a high incidence of phlebitis and pain with the continuous infusion of highly concentrated TPN solutions. *External jugular vein* - While the **external jugular vein** is a central vein, it is generally considered **less desirable** for long-term TPN compared to the subclavian vein. - Catheter placement in the external jugular vein can be associated with a **higher risk of patient discomfort** and potential for **catheter dislodgement** due to neck movement.

Question 246: Most common type of shock in surgical practice:

A. Cardiogenic
B. Septic shock
C. Hypovolemic (Correct Answer)
D. Neurogenic

Explanation: ***Hypovolemic*** - **Blood loss** during surgery (hemorrhage) is a common occurrence, leading to a significant reduction in circulating blood volume. - Furthermore, **fluid shifts** and **third-spacing** in scenarios like bowel obstruction, burns, or peritonitis also contribute to decreased effective circulating volume. *Cardiogenic* - This type of shock is due to the heart's inability to pump enough blood, often from a **myocardial infarction** or **severe heart failure**. - While it can occur in surgical patients, it's less frequent as the primary cause compared to blood or fluid loss. *Septic shock* - Occurs due to a **severe systemic infection** leading to widespread inflammation and vasodilation. - Although surgical patients are at risk for infection, particularly post-operatively, it is not the most common initial type of shock encountered during or immediately after surgery. *Neurogenic* - Results from **spinal cord injury** or other damage to the central nervous system, leading to a loss of sympathetic tone and profound vasodilation. - This is a less common cause of shock in general surgical practice compared to hypovolemia unless specific neurological trauma is involved.

Question 247: Which pre-operative investigation is recommended before surgical procedures in a patient on warfarin therapy?

A. International Normalized Ratio (INR) (Correct Answer)
B. Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT)
C. Clotting Time
D. Differential Count

Explanation: ***International Normalized Ratio (INR)*** - The **INR** is specifically used to monitor the effectiveness of **warfarin** therapy, as it standardizes the prothrombin time (PT) for variations in thromboplastin reagents. - Before surgery, an INR measurement helps assess the patient's **coagulation status** and guides decisions on temporary cessation or bridging therapy to minimize bleeding risk. *Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT)* - **PTT** primarily measures the **intrinsic and common pathways** of coagulation and is used to monitor **heparin** therapy, not warfarin. - While prolonged in some bleeding disorders, it is not the standard test for assessing warfarin's anticoagulant effect. *Clotting Time* - **Clotting time** is a very general and less precise measure of overall coagulation that is **rarely used** in modern clinical practice due to its low sensitivity and specificity. - It does not offer sufficient detail or standardization to guide pre-operative management for patients on warfarin. *Differential Count* - A **differential count** measures the different types of **white blood cells** within a blood sample and is used to diagnose infections, inflammatory conditions, or hematologic disorders. - It provides no information about a patient's coagulation status or the effects of anticoagulant medications like warfarin.

Question 248: Post-operative pulmonary thromboembolism is seen in all, except:

A. Obese male
B. Pregnant female
C. Estrogen therapy
D. Tall and thin man (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Tall and thin man*** - A **tall and thin man** is generally at a lower risk for developing post-operative pulmonary thromboembolism compared to the other options. - While prolonged immobility post-surgery can increase risk for anyone, factors like **obesity**, **pregnancy**, and **estrogen therapy** significantly elevate the risk. *Obese male* - **Obesity** is a major risk factor for venous thromboembolism (VTE) due to factors like increased venous stasis and chronic inflammation. - Adipose tissue also produces prothrombotic factors, further increasing the risk of **pulmonary embolism (PE)**. *Pregnant female* - **Pregnancy** induces a hypercoagulable state to prevent excessive bleeding during childbirth, increasing the risk of VTE. - This risk is further elevated in the post-partum period and with surgical procedures like a **Cesarean section**. *Estrogen therapy* - **Estrogen therapy**, such as in oral contraceptives or hormone replacement therapy, can increase the synthesis of clotting factors and decrease natural anticoagulant proteins. - This prothrombotic effect significantly raises the risk of **deep vein thrombosis (DVT)** and subsequent **PE**.

Question 249: In a post-operative patient, 21 years old with a weight of 70 kg, what is the expected increase in hematocrit after transfusion of 1 unit of packed RBC?

A. 1%
B. 3-5% (Correct Answer)
C. 10%
D. 15%

Explanation: ***3-5%*** - A general rule of thumb is that one unit of **packed red blood cells (PRBCs)** will typically raise the **hematocrit** by 3-5% (or the hemoglobin by 1 g/dL) in a 70 kg adult. - This patient, being 21 years old and 70 kg, fits the standard adult profile for which this estimation holds true. *1%* - An increase of only 1% in hematocrit after one unit of PRBCs is typically too low and would suggest either **ongoing hemorrhage**, a technical error, or rapid destruction of transfused red blood cells. - This magnitude of increase is not the expected therapeutic effect for a single unit in a stable adult. *10%* - A 10% increase in hematocrit after one unit of PRBCs is generally higher than expected, indicating a more significant response. - While possible in some specific clinical scenarios, it is not the standard or average expected increase. *15%* - A 15% increase in hematocrit is a very substantial rise, far exceeding the typical response to a single unit of PRBCs. - Such an increase would usually require multiple units of blood or be indicative of an erroneous measurement.

Question 250: Which of the following is the best way of preventing the development of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in the postoperative period?

A. Early ambulation
B. Physiotherapy
C. Prophylactic heparin (Correct Answer)
D. Low dose aspirin

Explanation: ***Prophylactic heparin*** - **Prophylactic heparin** (either unfractionated or low molecular weight heparin) is a highly effective pharmacological intervention that directly prevents thrombus formation by inhibiting clotting factors. - It is particularly crucial for patients undergoing surgery, as the **hypercoagulable state** induced by surgery significantly increases DVT risk. *Early ambulation* - **Early ambulation** helps prevent DVT by promoting blood flow and reducing venous stasis, but it is often insufficient on its own for high-risk surgical patients. - It may be difficult or contraindicated immediately post-surgery depending on the type of procedure and patient's condition. *Physiotherapy* - **Physiotherapy**, including leg exercises and mobilization, can improve circulation and muscle pump function, which helps reduce venous stasis. - However, similar to early ambulation, it is generally considered an adjunct and not the primary method for preventing DVT in high-risk postoperative settings. *Low dose aspirin* - **Low-dose aspirin** has antiplatelet effects, which can reduce the risk of arterial thrombosis and, to a lesser extent, venous thrombosis, particularly in prolonged risk scenarios. - For acute high-risk postoperative DVT prevention, its efficacy is generally considered inferior to that of anticoagulants like heparin.

Practice by Chapter

Preoperative Risk Assessment

Practice Questions

Perioperative Management of Comorbidities

Practice Questions

Preparation of Patient for Surgery

Practice Questions

Informed Consent Process

Practice Questions

Post-Anesthesia Care

Practice Questions

Pain Management

Practice Questions

Wound Care and Dressings

Practice Questions

Drain Management

Practice Questions

Postoperative Complications Detection

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Early Ambulation and Rehabilitation

Practice Questions

Enhanced Recovery After Surgery (ERAS) Protocols

Practice Questions

Discharge Planning and Follow-up

Practice Questions

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