Plastic and Reconstructive Surgery — MCQs

Plastic and Reconstructive Surgery Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 61: All of the following statements about skin grafting are true, except:

A. A partial thickness graft involves the epidermis and part of the dermis.
B. A full thickness graft includes the epidermis and dermis, without subcutaneous tissue.
C. Full thickness grafts are typically used for large areas. (Correct Answer)
D. Full thickness grafts offer significant cosmetic value.

Explanation: ### Explanation **1. Why Option C is the correct answer (The False Statement):** Full-thickness skin grafts (FTSG) consist of the entire epidermis and the complete dermis. Because the donor site of an FTSG cannot regenerate on its own (as no dermal elements remain), it must be closed primarily with sutures or covered with a split-thickness graft. This anatomical limitation makes FTSGs **unsuitable for large areas**. In contrast, Split-Thickness Skin Grafts (STSG) leave behind adnexal structures (hair follicles, sweat glands) in the donor site, allowing for spontaneous re-epithelialization and the coverage of extensive wounds. **2. Analysis of other options:** * **Option A:** True. A partial (split) thickness graft includes the epidermis and a variable portion of the superficial dermis. * **Option B:** True. By definition, an FTSG includes the epidermis and the entire dermis. Subcutaneous fat must be meticulously trimmed off to ensure graft "take," as fat acts as a barrier to revascularization. * **Option D:** True. FTSGs undergo less secondary contraction, maintain better color match, and preserve texture compared to STSGs, making them cosmetically superior for areas like the face and eyelids. **3. High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Stages of Graft Take:** 1. **Plasmatic Imbibition** (first 24–48 hours; nutrients via diffusion). 2. **Inosculation** (alignment of capillaries). 3. **Revascularization/Neovascularization** (day 4–7). * **Primary vs. Secondary Contraction:** * **Primary:** Immediate recoil after harvesting (Greater in **FTSG** due to more elastin). * **Secondary:** Shrinkage during healing (Greater in **STSG**). * **Most common cause of graft failure:** Hematoma (prevents contact between graft and bed). * **Ideal donor site for FTSG (Face):** Post-auricular or Supraclavicular area (best color match).

Question 62: Unilateral clefts are most common on which side?

A. Left side (Correct Answer)
B. Right side
C. Median
D. None of the above

Explanation: **Explanation:** **1. Why the Left Side is Correct:** The occurrence of unilateral cleft lip and palate follows a distinct epidemiological pattern. Statistically, unilateral clefts are significantly more common on the **left side** (ratio of approximately 2:1 compared to the right side). While the exact embryological reason for this lateralization remains a subject of research, it is a well-documented clinical observation in craniofacial surgery. The cleft occurs due to the failure of fusion between the **maxillary process** and the **medial nasal process** during the 6th to 7th week of intrauterine life. **2. Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Right side:** While unilateral clefts can occur on the right, they are statistically less frequent than left-sided presentations. * **Median:** Median clefts are extremely rare and are typically associated with holoprosencephaly or other severe midline craniofacial defects. They result from the failure of the two medial nasal processes to merge. * **None of the above:** This is incorrect as the left-sided predominance is a recognized medical fact. **3. Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Incidence:** Cleft lip (with or without palate) is more common in **males**, whereas isolated cleft palate is more common in **females**. * **Side Distribution:** Unilateral clefts are more common than bilateral clefts. Among unilateral cases, the **Left side** is the most frequent site. * **Rule of 10s (Millard’s Criteria for Surgery):** To undergo cleft lip repair, the infant should ideally be: 10 weeks old, 10 pounds in weight, and have a hemoglobin of 10 g/dL. * **Surgical Timing:** Cleft lip repair (Cheiloplasty) is usually done at **3–6 months**, while Cleft palate repair (Palatoplasty) is done at **6–12 months** (before the child develops speech).

Question 63: All of the following are used for reconstruction of breast except?

A. Transverse rectus abdominis myocutaneous flap
B. Latissimus dorsi myocutaneous flap
C. Pectoralis major myocutaneous flap (Correct Answer)
D. Transversus rectus abdominis free flap

Explanation: **Explanation:** Breast reconstruction aims to restore volume and contour following a mastectomy. The choice of flap depends on the availability of donor tissue and the required volume. **Why Option C is the correct answer:** The **Pectoralis major myocutaneous flap** is generally **not used** for breast reconstruction. In most mastectomy cases, the pectoralis major muscle is either preserved (modified radical mastectomy) or partially resected. Using it as a flap would involve rotating it, which does not provide sufficient bulk or skin to reconstruct a breast mound. Its primary use in reconstructive surgery is for **head and neck defects** or covering sternal wound dehiscence. **Analysis of other options:** * **TRAM Flap (Options A & D):** The Transverse Rectus Abdominis Myocutaneous flap is the **"Gold Standard"** for autologous breast reconstruction. It uses the skin and fat of the lower abdomen. It can be performed as a **pedicled flap** (Option A) or a **free flap** (Option D), with the free flap offering better vascularity and less donor site morbidity (muscle sparing). * **Latissimus Dorsi Flap (Option B):** This is a reliable pedicled flap. Since the LD muscle is relatively thin, it is often used in combination with a **prosthetic implant** to achieve adequate breast volume. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **DIEP Flap (Deep Inferior Epigastric Perforator):** Currently the preferred free flap as it spares the rectus muscle entirely, reducing the risk of abdominal hernias. * **Internal Mammary Artery:** The most common recipient vessel for free flaps in breast reconstruction. * **Timing:** Reconstruction can be **immediate** (at the time of mastectomy) or **delayed** (after completion of radiotherapy).

Question 64: A 55-year-old lady presents with third-degree burns affecting both upper limbs, both lower limbs, and the perineum. How much fluid should be administered in the first 8 hours?

A. 6710 mL (Correct Answer)
B. 8120 mL
C. 9120 mL
D. 10,120 mL

Explanation: ### Explanation The calculation of fluid resuscitation in burn patients is a high-yield topic for NEET-PG, primarily utilizing the **Parkland Formula** and the **Wallace Rule of Nines**. **1. Calculating Total Body Surface Area (TBSA) involved:** Using the Rule of Nines for an adult: * Both upper limbs: 9% + 9% = 18% * Both lower limbs: 18% + 18% = 36% * Perineum: 1% * **Total TBSA = 18 + 36 + 1 = 55%** **2. Applying the Parkland Formula:** Total fluid (Ringer’s Lactate) in 24 hours = **4 mL × Body Weight (kg) × % TBSA.** *Note: If weight is not provided in a NEET-PG question, the standard adult weight is assumed to be 60–70 kg. Using 61 kg (derived from the options):* * Total Fluid = 4 mL × 61 kg × 55 = **13,420 mL** **3. Timing of Administration:** * First 8 hours: Give **half** of the total volume. * Next 16 hours: Give the remaining half. * **Fluid in first 8 hours = 13,420 / 2 = 6,710 mL.** #### Why other options are wrong: * **Options B, C, and D** represent incorrect TBSA calculations (e.g., miscounting the limbs or including the trunk) or failing to divide the total 24-hour volume by two for the initial 8-hour requirement. #### Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG: * **Fluid of Choice:** Ringer’s Lactate (Isotonic crystalloid). * **Monitoring:** The most sensitive indicator of adequate resuscitation is **Urine Output** (Target: 0.5–1 mL/kg/hr in adults; 1 mL/kg/hr in children). * **Modified Brooke Formula:** Uses 2 mL/kg/% TBSA (often used to avoid fluid overload). * **Galveston Formula:** Used for pediatric burns (based on body surface area in $m^2$).

Question 65: Cleft lip repair is usually performed at what age?

A. 3-6 months of age (Correct Answer)
B. 6-9 months of age
C. 9-12 months of age
D. After one year of age

Explanation: **Explanation:** The timing of cleft lip repair is guided by the **"Rule of 10s,"** which ensures the infant is physiologically stable enough to undergo general anesthesia and surgery. According to this rule, the infant should be at least **10 weeks old**, weigh **10 pounds**, and have a hemoglobin level of **10 g/dL**. While the rule suggests 10 weeks (approx. 2.5 months), the standard clinical practice for elective repair is between **3 to 6 months of age**. This window allows for adequate facial growth and tissue development, facilitating a more precise anatomical reconstruction of the orbicularis oris muscle. **Analysis of Options:** * **Option A (3-6 months):** Correct. This aligns with the Rule of 10s and allows for optimal aesthetic and functional outcomes before the child develops complex social awareness. * **Option B & C (6-12 months):** These timeframes are typically reserved for **Cleft Palate repair** (usually performed between 6–12 months). Performing a lip repair this late may delay the molding effect the repaired lip has on the underlying alveolar segments. * **Option D (After one year):** Delaying repair beyond one year is unnecessary and can lead to significant psychological distress for the parents and potential feeding or speech development issues. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Millard’s Rotation-Advancement Flap:** The most common surgical technique used for unilateral cleft lip repair. * **Tennison-Randall Technique:** A triangular flap technique used for cleft lip. * **Sequence of Management:** Lip repair (3-6 months) → Palate repair (6-12 months) → Bone grafting (9-11 years) → Rhinoplasty (after puberty/16+ years). * **Primary Goal:** The primary goal of lip repair is to restore the continuity of the **orbicularis oris muscle**.

Question 66: What is the primary use of a dermatome?

A. To remove scar tissue
B. To harvest skin grafts (Correct Answer)
C. To abrade pigmented skin
D. For approximation of lacerated soft tissue

Explanation: **Explanation:** A **dermatome** is a specialized surgical instrument designed specifically to produce thin, uniform slices of skin from a donor area. The primary objective is to **harvest skin grafts** (split-thickness or full-thickness) for the reconstruction of skin defects caused by burns, trauma, or surgical excisions. * **Why Option B is correct:** Dermatomes allow the surgeon to precisely adjust the depth of the cut (usually measured in thousandths of an inch). This precision is essential for harvesting **Split-Thickness Skin Grafts (STSG)**, where only the epidermis and a portion of the dermis are taken, allowing the donor site to heal spontaneously. * **Why Option A is incorrect:** Scar tissue removal (revision) is typically performed using scalpels or lasers, not a dermatome, which is designed for harvesting healthy skin. * **Why Option C is incorrect:** Abrading pigmented skin or scars is known as **dermabrasion**, which uses a high-speed rotating brush or diamond fraise, not a dermatome. * **Why Option D is incorrect:** Approximation of tissue is achieved through suturing, stapling, or surgical adhesives. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** 1. **Types of Dermatomes:** * **Knife/Manual:** (e.g., Humby’s knife, Blair’s knife) – Requires manual skill to maintain thickness. * **Drum:** (e.g., Padgett’s) – Uses an adhesive to lift the skin; excellent for irregular donor sites. * **Electric/Air-powered:** (e.g., Brown’s) – The most commonly used in modern practice for rapid, uniform harvesting. 2. **Thickness:** A standard STSG is usually **0.012 to 0.018 inches** thick. 3. **Donor Site:** The most common donor site is the **thigh** due to its broad surface area and ease of concealment.

Question 67: In the reconstruction following excision of previously irradiated cheek cancer, which flap is most appropriate?

A. Local tongue flap
B. Cervical flap
C. Forehead flap
D. Pectoralis major myocutaneous flap (Correct Answer)

Explanation: **Explanation:** The reconstruction of defects in a **previously irradiated field** presents a significant surgical challenge. Radiation causes endarteritis obliterans, leading to poor vascularity, tissue fibrosis, and impaired wound healing. **Why Pectoralis Major Myocutaneous (PMMC) Flap is the correct choice:** The PMMC flap is the "workhorse" of head and neck reconstruction. In an irradiated area, local tissues are compromised; therefore, bringing in **non-irradiated, highly vascularized tissue** from a distant site is essential. The PMMC flap provides a robust blood supply (via the thoracoacromial artery), significant bulk to fill the excision defect, and reliable skin coverage, which promotes healing and protects vital structures even in a hostile, post-radiation environment. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Local Tongue Flap:** These are useful for small intraoral defects but lack the size and external skin component required for a full-thickness cheek reconstruction. * **Cervical Flap:** Since the neck is usually included in the radiation field for cheek cancer, cervical skin will be fibrotic and poorly vascularized, leading to a high risk of flap necrosis. * **Forehead Flap:** While excellent for nasal reconstruction, it provides insufficient bulk for deep cheek defects and may have been affected by the periphery of the radiation field. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **PMMC Flap Blood Supply:** Pectoral branch of the **Thoracoacromial artery**. * **Gold Standard:** While PMMC is the traditional workhorse, **Free Flaps** (like Radial Forearm or Anterolateral Thigh) are now preferred in modern centers if microvascular expertise is available. However, in exam scenarios involving irradiated fields, the PMMC remains the classic answer for its reliability. * **Radiation Effect:** Always remember that "Radiation = Poor vascularity," necessitating a **pedicled or free flap** from outside the radiation zone.

Question 68: Which anatomical location is associated with the poorest scar healing and appearance?

A. Back
B. Shoulder
C. Sternum (Correct Answer)
D. Abdomen

Explanation: **Explanation:** The quality of scar healing is primarily determined by the **tension** across the wound edges and the local skin thickness. The **Presternal (Sternum)** area is notorious for the poorest scar outcomes because it is a high-tension zone with minimal underlying subcutaneous fat and constant movement from respiration. 1. **Why Sternum is Correct:** The presternal region is the most common site for the development of **Hypertrophic scars** and **Keloids**. The skin here is under constant multidirectional tension. Furthermore, the sternum has a high density of myofibroblasts, which contribute to excessive collagen deposition, leading to thick, raised, and often itchy or painful scars. 2. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Shoulder:** While also a high-tension area prone to hypertrophic scarring, the incidence and severity are statistically lower than the presternal region. * **Back:** The skin on the back is very thick, which can lead to "stretched" or wide scars, but it is less prone to keloid formation compared to the sternum. * **Abdomen:** Generally heals well, especially if incisions follow **Langer’s lines** (cleavage lines). It is a low-tension area compared to the bony prominences of the chest. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Best Scarring Site:** The **Eyelid** (thinnest skin, minimal tension). * **Keloids vs. Hypertrophic Scars:** Keloids extend *beyond* the boundaries of the original wound and rarely regress; hypertrophic scars stay *within* the wound boundaries and may regress over time. * **Langer’s Lines:** Incisions made parallel to these lines result in the finest scars due to minimum tension. * **Triad of Keloid Predisposition:** Darker skin pigmentation (Melanocytes), Presternal/Ear lobe location, and Genetic predisposition.

Question 69: What is the best treatment for a large capillary hemangioma (port wine stain)?

A. Tattooing
B. Cryosurgery
C. Laser therapy (Correct Answer)
D. Excision with split-thickness grafting

Explanation: **Explanation:** **Port Wine Stains (PWS)** are congenital capillary malformations consisting of ectatic (dilated) dermal capillaries. Unlike infantile hemangiomas, they do not involute and grow proportionately with the child. **Why Laser Therapy is the Correct Answer:** The gold standard treatment for PWS is the **Flashlamp-pumped Pulsed Dye Laser (PDL)**. It operates on the principle of **selective photothermolysis**. The laser emits a wavelength (usually 585 or 595 nm) specifically absorbed by oxyhemoglobin within the dilated vessels. This generates heat that destroys the vessel walls while sparing the surrounding dermis, minimizing scarring and pigmentary changes. **Why Other Options are Incorrect:** * **Tattooing (A):** This involves injecting skin-colored pigments to mask the lesion. It is rarely used today because the pigment often looks unnatural, fades unevenly, and does not address the underlying vascular pathology. * **Cryosurgery (B):** Using liquid nitrogen causes non-specific tissue destruction. It carries a high risk of permanent scarring, hypopigmentation, and contour irregularities, making it unsuitable for large facial lesions. * **Excision with Grafting (D):** Surgical excision of a large PWS is overly aggressive. Split-thickness grafts often result in poor color match ("patchwork" appearance) and donor site morbidity. Surgery is reserved only for late-stage hypertrophic lesions or soft tissue overgrowth. **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Sturge-Weber Syndrome:** Always screen a patient with a facial PWS (V1/V2 distribution) for glaucoma and leptomeningeal angiomas (presents with seizures and "tram-track" calcifications on CT). * **Early Intervention:** Treatment with PDL should ideally begin in infancy, as the skin is thinner and the lesion area is smaller, leading to better clearance. * **Klippel-Trenaunay Syndrome:** Suspect this if a PWS is found on an extremity associated with venous varicosities and limb hypertrophy.

Question 70: What is considered the gold standard flap for breast reconstruction?

A. TRAM flap
B. LD flap
C. DIEP flap (Correct Answer)
D. Silicone gel implant

Explanation: **Explanation:** The **DIEP (Deep Inferior Epigastric Perforator) flap** is currently considered the **gold standard** for autologous breast reconstruction. The underlying medical concept is the preservation of the rectus abdominis muscle. Unlike the TRAM flap, the DIEP flap involves harvesting only skin and fat (angiosome of the deep inferior epigastric artery) while meticulously dissecting the perforators through the muscle. This results in significantly less donor-site morbidity, a lower risk of abdominal wall hernias, and faster recovery. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **TRAM (Transverse Rectus Abdominis Myocutaneous) flap:** Formerly the gold standard, it involves harvesting a portion of the rectus muscle. This leads to increased donor-site weakness and higher rates of postoperative bulge or hernia. * **LD (Latissimus Dorsi) flap:** This is a reliable musculocutaneous flap but often provides insufficient volume for a full breast, frequently requiring a supplementary implant. It also results in a scar on the back and potential shoulder weakness. * **Silicone gel implant:** This is a prosthetic reconstruction, not a flap. While common, it carries risks of capsular contracture, rupture, and lacks the natural feel and longevity of autologous tissue. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Vascular Basis:** The DIEP flap is based on the **Deep Inferior Epigastric Artery**. * **Free vs. Pedicled:** DIEP is always a **free flap** requiring microsurgical anastomosis (usually to internal mammary vessels). * **Hartrampf Zones:** Knowledge of abdominal wall perfusion zones (I-IV) is critical for TRAM/DIEP flap planning. * **SIEA Flap:** If the Superficial Inferior Epigastric Artery is used, it is called an SIEA flap, which avoids muscle incision entirely but has inconsistent vascular anatomy.

Practice by Chapter

Wound Healing

Practice Questions

Skin Grafts

Practice Questions

Flap Surgery Principles

Practice Questions

Local Flaps

Practice Questions

Regional Flaps

Practice Questions

Microsurgical Techniques

Practice Questions

Tissue Expansion

Practice Questions

Breast Reconstruction

Practice Questions

Hand Surgery Basics

Practice Questions

Craniofacial Surgery Principles

Practice Questions

Aesthetic Surgery Concepts

Practice Questions

Body Contouring

Practice Questions

Want unlimited practice?

Get full access to all questions, explanations, and performance tracking.

Start For Free