Pediatric Surgery — MCQs

A 5-day-old infant presents with vomiting of stomach contents and bile that has persisted for 2 days. Radiographic examination reveals stenosis of the fourth part of the duodenum. The infant cries incessantly, appears constantly hungry, and is not gaining weight. Which of the following developmental conditions will most likely explain the infant's symptoms?

Q88Medium

The diagnosis of congenital megacolon is confirmed by?

Q89Easy

If pre-surgical movement of maxillary segments is indicated in a cleft infant, at what age is it typically initiated?

Q90Medium

Which of the following statements is not true about cystic hygroma?

Pediatric Surgery Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 81: Which of the following statements is true about lymphangioma?

A. It is a malignant tumor.
B. It is a congenital sequestration of lymphatics. (Correct Answer)
C. Cystic hygroma is a lymphangioma.
D. Sclerotherapy is commonly done.

Explanation: ### Explanation **1. Why Option B is Correct:** Lymphangiomas are not true neoplasms but rather **congenital malformations** of the lymphatic system. They arise due to the **sequestration of lymphatic tissue** that fails to communicate with the normal lymphatic channels during embryonic development. These sequestered "islands" of lymphatic tissue continue to produce lymph, which accumulates and leads to the formation of cystic or cavernous spaces. **2. Analysis of Other Options:** * **Option A:** Lymphangiomas are **benign** lesions. While they can be locally infiltrative and compress adjacent structures (like the airway), they do not metastasize. * **Option C:** This is a tricky distractor. While a cystic hygroma *is* a type of lymphangioma (specifically the macrocystic variety), the question asks for the most fundamental definition. In many standardized exams, the developmental etiology (sequestration) is considered the "more" correct or definitive statement regarding its nature. * **Option D:** While sclerotherapy (using agents like OK-432, Bleomycin, or Doxycycline) is an evolving treatment modality, **surgical excision** remains the traditional gold standard, especially for localized lesions. Sclerotherapy is primarily preferred for macrocystic lesions rather than microcystic ones. **3. NEET-PG High-Yield Clinical Pearls:** * **Most Common Site:** The posterior triangle of the neck (Cystic Hygroma). * **Clinical Feature:** They are soft, painless, and characteristically **transilluminate** brilliantly. * **Classification:** 1. *Simple (Capillary):* Small, thin-walled channels. 2. *Cavernous:* Larger vascular channels with adventitia. 3. *Cystic (Cystic Hygroma):* Large macroscopic cysts. * **Complications:** Sudden increase in size usually indicates **intracystic hemorrhage** or infection. * **Association:** Often associated with chromosomal abnormalities like **Turner Syndrome** and Down Syndrome.

Question 82: A child presents with recurrent abdominal pain, intestinal obstruction, and a palpable mass that can be felt per rectum. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Internal herniation
B. Stricture
C. Strangulated hernia
D. Intussusception (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ### Explanation **Correct Answer: D. Intussusception** **Why it is correct:** Intussusception is the most common cause of intestinal obstruction in children aged 6 months to 2 years. It occurs when a proximal segment of the bowel (intussusceptum) telescopes into a distal segment (intussuscipiens). The classic clinical triad includes **intermittent colicky abdominal pain**, a **sausage-shaped mass** (usually in the right upper quadrant), and **"red currant jelly" stools**. A unique diagnostic feature is that in ileocolic intussusception, the mass may migrate along the colon and become **palpable on digital rectal examination (DRE)**, or even prolapse through the anus. **Why the other options are incorrect:** * **A. Internal herniation:** While it causes obstruction, it rarely presents with a palpable mass per rectum and is much less common in the pediatric age group unless there is a congenital mesenteric defect. * **B. Stricture:** Usually a late complication of Necrotizing Enterocolitis (NEC) or Crohn’s disease. It presents with chronic obstructive symptoms but does not typically present as a palpable mass reachable by DRE. * **C. Strangulated hernia:** This presents as a tense, tender, irreducible swelling at a hernial site (inguinal or umbilical). While it causes obstruction, the mass is external, not palpable per rectum. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Dance’s Sign:** An empty right iliac fossa due to the migration of the cecum. * **Target/Donut Sign:** The classic appearance on Ultrasonography (Investigation of Choice). * **Pseudokidney Sign:** Seen on longitudinal USG scans. * **Treatment:** Non-operative reduction using **Hydrostatic (saline/barium)** or **Pneumatic (air)** enema is the first-line treatment if there are no signs of peritonitis or perforation. * **Lead Point:** In children >2 years, look for a pathological lead point like **Meckel’s diverticulum** or lymphoma.

Question 83: A newborn baby had normal APGAR score at birth and developed excessive frothing and choking on attempted feeds. What is the investigation of choice?

A. Esophagoscopy
B. Bronchoscopy
C. MRI chest
D. X-ray chest and abdomen with a red rubber catheter passed per orally into the esophagus (Correct Answer)

Explanation: **Explanation:** The clinical presentation of excessive frothing (salivation) and choking during the first feed in a newborn is a classic triad for **Esophageal Atresia (EA) with or without Tracheoesophageal Fistula (TEF)**. **Why Option D is Correct:** The initial and most definitive investigation of choice is the **insertion of a stiff, large-bore (8F or 10F) red rubber catheter** through the mouth into the esophagus. In cases of EA, the catheter will meet resistance and "coil" in the blind upper esophageal pouch. An **X-ray of the chest and abdomen** is then performed to: 1. Confirm the level of atresia (coiled catheter). 2. Check for the presence of **gas in the stomach/intestines**, which confirms the presence of a **distal TEF** (the most common type, Type C). **Why Other Options are Incorrect:** * **A & B (Esophagoscopy/Bronchoscopy):** These are invasive and unnecessary for the primary diagnosis. Bronchoscopy may be used pre-operatively to locate a fistula, but it is not the initial investigation of choice. * **C (MRI Chest):** MRI is time-consuming, expensive, and provides no immediate diagnostic advantage over a simple X-ray in a neonate. **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Most Common Type:** Type C (Esophageal atresia with distal TEF) – ~85% of cases. * **Pure Atresia (Type A):** Presents with a "gasless abdomen" on X-ray. * **VACTERL Association:** Always screen for other anomalies (Vertebral, Anal, Cardiac, TEF, Renal, Limb). The most common associated anomaly is **Cardiac**. * **Contraindication:** Never perform a barium swallow/contrast study due to the high risk of aspiration pneumonitis.

Question 84: What is the most common site of lymphangioima?

A. Kidney
B. Head and Neck (Correct Answer)
C. Groin
D. Heart

Explanation: **Explanation:** **Lymphangiomas** (also known as lymphatic malformations) are benign, congenital malformations of the lymphatic system. They result from the failure of lymphatic channels to communicate with the main lymphatic vessels, leading to the sequestration of lymph and subsequent cystic dilatation. **Why Head and Neck is correct:** The **Head and Neck** is the most common site, accounting for approximately **75% to 80%** of all cases. Within this region, the posterior triangle of the neck is the most frequent location. When these lesions occur in the neck, they are often referred to as **Cystic Hygromas**. The second most common site is the axilla (approx. 20%). **Why other options are incorrect:** * **Kidney:** Renal lymphangioma is an extremely rare condition. While lymphatic malformations can occur in the retroperitoneum, they are far less common than cervical presentations. * **Groin:** While lymphangiomas can occur in the inguinal region, it is a much rarer site compared to the neck and axilla. * **Heart:** Cardiac lymphangiomas are exceptionally rare primary tumors of the heart and are not a standard site for these malformations. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Presentation:** Usually present at birth (50%) or by age 2 (90%) as a soft, painless, compressible, and **transilluminant** mass. * **Classification:** Divided into Capillary (simple), Cavernous, and Cystic (Cystic Hygroma) based on the size of the lymphatic spaces. * **Complications:** Sudden increase in size may occur due to intralesional hemorrhage or infection. * **Treatment:** Surgical excision is the gold standard, though **Sclerotherapy** (using agents like OK-432, Bleomycin, or Doxycycline) is a preferred initial treatment for macrocystic lesions.

Question 85: Which of the following statements regarding Hirschsprung's disease is true?

A. Giant ganglia are present.
B. The mucosa is involved and shows foldings.
C. Manometry excludes the disease. (Correct Answer)
D. Rectal biopsy is contraindicated in infants.

Explanation: **Hirschsprung’s Disease (Congenital Aganglionic Megacolon)** is characterized by the absence of ganglion cells in the Meissner’s and Auerbach’s plexuses, typically starting from the internal anal sphincter and extending proximally. ### **Explanation of the Correct Option** **C. Manometry excludes the disease:** Anorectal manometry is a highly sensitive screening tool. In a healthy individual, distension of the rectum causes the internal anal sphincter to relax—this is the **Rectoanal Inhibitory Reflex (RAIR)**. In Hirschsprung’s disease, this reflex is **absent** (the sphincter fails to relax or shows paradoxical contraction). Therefore, if the RAIR is present (normal manometry), the diagnosis of Hirschsprung’s can be confidently **excluded**. ### **Analysis of Incorrect Options** * **A. Giant ganglia:** This is incorrect. Hirschsprung’s is defined by the **absence** of ganglia. Giant ganglia are a hallmark of **Intestinal Neuronal Dysplasia (IND)**, not Hirschsprung’s. * **B. Mucosal involvement:** Hirschsprung’s is primarily a disease of the **submucosal (Meissner’s)** and **myenteric (Auerbach’s)** nerve plexuses. While the bowel may appear dilated or thickened proximally, the primary pathology is neuromuscular, not mucosal folding. * **D. Rectal biopsy in infants:** This is incorrect. **Full-thickness or suction rectal biopsy** is the **Gold Standard** for diagnosis and is routinely performed in infants to confirm the absence of ganglion cells and the presence of hypertrophied nerve bundles (acetylcholinesterase staining). ### **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG** * **Most common site:** Rectosigmoid (80% of cases). * **Clinical Presentation:** Failure to pass meconium within the first 48 hours, abdominal distension, and "blast sign" (explosive passage of stool on digital rectal exam). * **Radiology:** Barium enema shows a **"Transition Zone"** (dilated proximal normal bowel vs. narrow distal aganglionic segment). * **Gold Standard Diagnosis:** Rectal Suction Biopsy (shows absent ganglia and increased Acetylcholinesterase). * **Definitive Management:** Surgical pull-through procedures (e.g., Duhamel, Soave, or Swenson).

Question 86: Which of the following statements about Wilms' tumor is false?

A. Presents before the age of 5 years.
B. Mostly presents as an abdominal mass.
C. Spreads mostly by lymphatics. (Correct Answer)
D. Responds well to treatment.

Explanation: **Explanation:** Wilms’ tumor (Nephroblastoma) is the most common primary renal malignancy in children. Understanding its mode of spread and clinical presentation is crucial for NEET-PG. **Why Option C is False (The Correct Answer):** Wilms’ tumor primarily spreads via **hematogenous** routes, not lymphatics. The most common site of distant metastasis is the **lungs**, followed by the liver. While regional lymph node involvement can occur (seen in about 15% of cases), it is not the primary or most common mode of spread. **Analysis of Other Options:** * **Option A (Age):** True. Approximately 90% of cases present before the age of 5, with a peak incidence between **2 to 3 years**. It is rare in neonates and older children. * **Option B (Presentation):** True. The most common clinical presentation is a **painless, smooth, firm abdominal mass** that typically does not cross the midline (unlike Neuroblastoma). * **Option D (Prognosis):** True. Wilms’ tumor is a success story in pediatric oncology. With a multimodal approach (surgery, chemotherapy, and sometimes radiotherapy), the overall cure rate exceeds **90%**. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **WAGR Syndrome:** Wilms’ tumor, Aniridia, Genitourinary anomalies, and intellectual disability (formerly Retardation). Associated with **WT1 gene** deletion on Chromosome 11p13. * **Beckwith-Wiedemann Syndrome:** Macroglossia, organomegaly, and hemihypertrophy. Associated with **WT2 gene** on Chromosome 11p15. * **Staging:** Unlike many tumors, Wilms’ tumor staging is often determined **after** nephrectomy (NWTS criteria), except in cases where preoperative chemotherapy is used (SIOP criteria). * **Classic Triad on Histology:** Blastemal, stromal, and epithelial cells.

Question 87: A 5-day-old infant presents with vomiting of stomach contents and bile that has persisted for 2 days. Radiographic examination reveals stenosis of the fourth part of the duodenum. The infant cries incessantly, appears constantly hungry, and is not gaining weight. Which of the following developmental conditions will most likely explain the infant's symptoms?

A. Patent bile duct
B. Duodenal stenosis (Correct Answer)
C. Hypertrophied pyloric sphincter
D. Atrophied gastric antrum

Explanation: **Explanation:** The clinical presentation of **bilious vomiting** in a 5-day-old infant, combined with radiographic evidence of stenosis in the **fourth part of the duodenum**, points directly to **Duodenal Stenosis**. 1. **Why Duodenal Stenosis is correct:** During the 5th–6th week of gestation, the duodenal lumen is obliterated by proliferating epithelial cells. It normally undergoes **recanalization** by the 8th–10th week. Failure of complete recanalization leads to stenosis or atresia. Since the fourth part of the duodenum is distal to the **Ampulla of Vater** (where the common bile duct enters the second part), the obstruction results in **bilious vomiting** (vomitus containing bile). The infant remains hungry because nutrients cannot pass the obstruction, leading to weight loss and irritability. 2. **Why other options are incorrect:** * **Patent bile duct:** This is a normal anatomical state; it does not cause intestinal obstruction or vomiting. * **Hypertrophied Pyloric Sphincter (IHPS):** This typically presents at 3–6 weeks of age (not 5 days) with **non-bilious**, projectile vomiting, as the obstruction is proximal to the Ampulla of Vater. * **Atrophied gastric antrum:** This is not a standard developmental cause of neonatal intestinal obstruction and would typically present with non-bilious vomiting. **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Double Bubble Sign:** The classic radiographic finding for duodenal atresia/stenosis (gas in the stomach and proximal duodenum). * **Association:** Approximately 30% of infants with duodenal atresia/stenosis have **Down Syndrome (Trisomy 21)**. * **Bilious vs. Non-bilious:** Always check the level of obstruction relative to the Ampulla of Vater. Proximal = Non-bilious; Distal = Bilious. * **Annular Pancreas:** Another common cause of extrinsic duodenal obstruction due to failure of the ventral pancreatic bud to rotate correctly.

Question 88: The diagnosis of congenital megacolon is confirmed by?

A. Clinical features
B. Barium enema
C. Rectal biopsy (Correct Answer)
D. Recto-sigmoidoscopy

Explanation: **Explanation:** **Congenital Megacolon (Hirschsprung Disease)** is characterized by the absence of ganglion cells in the myenteric (Auerbach’s) and submucosal (Meissner’s) plexuses, resulting from a failure of neural crest cell migration. 1. **Why Rectal Biopsy is the Correct Answer:** Full-thickness or suction rectal biopsy is the **gold standard** and definitive diagnostic test. The diagnosis is confirmed by the **histological absence of ganglion cells** and the presence of **hypertrophied nerve bundles**. Acetylcholinesterase (AChE) staining often shows increased activity in the lamina propria, further supporting the diagnosis. 2. **Why Other Options are Incorrect:** * **Clinical Features:** While symptoms like delayed passage of meconium (>24–48 hours), abdominal distension, and "blast sign" on digital rectal exam are highly suggestive, they are not confirmatory as they overlap with other causes of neonatal intestinal obstruction. * **Barium Enema:** This is the initial screening tool. It typically shows a **"transition zone"** (dilated proximal colon and narrow distal segment). However, it can be false-negative in "total colonic aganglionosis" or in neonates where the transition zone hasn't developed yet. * **Recto-sigmoidoscopy:** This has no diagnostic role in Hirschsprung disease as it cannot visualize microscopic ganglion cells and may risk perforation in a distended bowel. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Most common site:** Rectosigmoid region (Short-segment disease). * **Anorectal Manometry:** Shows **absence of the Recto-Anal Inhibitory Reflex (RAIR)**; it is a sensitive screening test in older children. * **Associated Condition:** Strongly associated with **Down Syndrome** (Trisomy 21). * **Gold Standard:** Rectal biopsy (taken at least 1.5–2 cm above the pectinate line to avoid the physiological hypocellular zone).

Question 89: If pre-surgical movement of maxillary segments is indicated in a cleft infant, at what age is it typically initiated?

A. 3 to 6 weeks of age (Correct Answer)
B. 10 to 12 weeks of age
C. 3 to 6 months of age
D. 10 to 12 months of age

Explanation: **Explanation:** The correct answer is **A. 3 to 6 weeks of age.** **Medical Concept:** Pre-surgical movement of maxillary segments, commonly known as **Presurgical Nasoalveolar Molding (PNAM)** or orthopedic appliance therapy, is designed to realign the displaced alveolar segments and improve nasal symmetry before the primary surgical repair. This process utilizes the high degree of **maternal estrogen-induced plasticity** present in the infant's cartilage and bone shortly after birth. Initiating treatment between 3 to 6 weeks allows the surgeon to take advantage of this flexibility to narrow the cleft gap, making the definitive cheiloplasty (lip repair) easier and reducing tension on the suture line. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **B (10 to 12 weeks):** This is typically the age for the **Rule of 10s** (10 weeks, 10 lbs, 10g Hb) used for primary lip repair. By this time, the maxillary segments are more rigid, making significant molding less effective. * **C & D (3 to 12 months):** These timeframes are too late for orthopedic molding. Palatoplasty (cleft palate repair) is generally performed between 6 to 12 months, but the molding must be completed *before* the initial lip surgery. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Rule of 10s (Millard’s Rule):** Criteria for Cleft Lip repair: 10 weeks old, 10 lbs weight, 10 g/dL Hemoglobin. * **Sequence of Surgery:** Cleft Lip repair (3 months) → Cleft Palate repair (6–12 months) → Alveolar bone grafting (9–11 years, during mixed dentition). * **Goal of PNAM:** To reduce the severity of the initial cleft deformity, improve the nasal tip projection, and minimize the need for secondary revisions.

Question 90: Which of the following statements is not true about cystic hygroma?

A. Aspiration is diagnostic. (Correct Answer)
B. About 50% of them are present at birth.
C. Presents as posterior cervical swelling.
D. Sequestration of lymphatic tissue.

Explanation: **Explanation:** Cystic hygroma is a congenital malformation of the lymphatic system, specifically a **cavernous lymphangioma**. **1. Why Option A is the Correct Answer (False Statement):** While aspiration of a cystic hygroma typically yields clear, straw-colored fluid (rich in lymphocytes), it is **not considered diagnostic**. Diagnosis is primarily **clinical** (soft, painless, brilliantly transilluminant swelling) and confirmed via **imaging** (Ultrasonography or MRI). Aspiration is generally avoided because it carries a high risk of **infection** and **hemorrhage** into the cyst, and the fluid often re-accumulates rapidly, providing no therapeutic benefit. **2. Analysis of Other Options:** * **Option B (True):** Approximately 50–60% of cases are present at birth, and nearly 90% manifest by the age of two. * **Option C (True):** The most common site (70–80%) is the **posterior triangle of the neck** (posterior cervical space). It can also occur in the axilla, mediastinum, or groin. * **Option D (True):** The embryological basis is the **sequestration of lymphatic tissue** from the primitive jugular lymph sacs, which fail to communicate with the main lymphatic system. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Transillumination:** It is "brilliantly transilluminant" because it contains clear fluid and thin walls. * **Association:** Often associated with chromosomal anomalies like **Turner Syndrome** (45, XO) and Down Syndrome. * **Complications:** Sudden increase in size usually indicates hemorrhage or infection. * **Treatment of Choice:** Surgical excision is the gold standard. For unresectable cases, sclerotherapy (e.g., **OK-432/Picibanil** or Bleomycin) is used.

Practice by Chapter

Neonatal Physiology

Practice Questions

Congenital Anomalies Overview

Practice Questions

Neonatal Intestinal Obstruction

Practice Questions

Necrotizing Enterocolitis

Practice Questions

Hirschsprung's Disease

Practice Questions

Anorectal Malformations

Practice Questions

Pediatric Hernias

Practice Questions

Pyloric Stenosis

Practice Questions

Biliary Atresia

Practice Questions

Pediatric Tumors

Practice Questions

Congenital Diaphragmatic Hernia

Practice Questions

Pediatric Trauma

Practice Questions

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