Pediatric Surgery — MCQs

Pediatric Surgery Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 201: At what age in years should the operation for undescended testis be performed?

A. 1 year
B. 1 to 2 years (Correct Answer)
C. 2 to 3 years
D. 5 years

Explanation: **Explanation:** The primary goal of treating an undescended testis (cryptorchidism) is to preserve fertility and facilitate early screening for malignancy. **Why 1 to 2 years is the correct answer:** Spontaneous descent of the testis rarely occurs after the age of 6 months. Current clinical guidelines (including AAP and BAPS) recommend that surgical intervention, known as **Orchidopexy**, should be performed between **6 to 12 months of age**, and certainly completed by **18 months**. This timing is critical because histological changes, such as the loss of germ cells and Leydig cell atrophy, begin as early as 1 year of age. Performing the surgery in the 1-2 year window (specifically closer to 1 year) optimizes the environment for spermatogenesis and reduces the risk of future testicular torsion. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **A. 1 year:** While surgery is often performed at 1 year, the standard textbook and exam-based range for completion is "1 to 2 years." * **C & D. 2 to 3 years / 5 years:** Waiting until this age is considered delayed. Prolonged exposure to the higher core body temperature outside the scrotum leads to irreversible damage to the seminiferous tubules and significantly increases the risk of infertility. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Most common site:** The superficial inguinal pouch. * **Malignancy Risk:** Orchidopexy does *not* eliminate the risk of testicular cancer (most commonly **Seminoma**), but it makes the testis accessible for physical examination and early detection. * **Associated Condition:** A patent processus vaginalis (indirect inguinal hernia) is present in approximately 90% of cases. * **Hormonal Therapy:** HCG or GnRH analogues are generally ineffective for true anatomical undescended testes and are rarely used today.

Question 202: What fluid is used for rectal washouts in Hirschsprung's disease?

A. 5% dextrose
B. Normal saline (Correct Answer)
C. Soap solution
D. Tap water

Explanation: **Explanation:** In Hirschsprung’s disease, the primary goal of rectal washouts is to decompress the dilated proximal colon and prevent enterocolitis. **Normal Saline (0.9% NaCl)** is the fluid of choice because it is **isotonic** to human plasma. Since the aganglionic segment often requires large volumes of fluid for effective evacuation, using an isotonic solution prevents significant fluid and electrolyte shifts across the colonic mucosa. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Tap water (D) and 5% Dextrose (A):** These are **hypotonic** solutions. In a dilated colon (megacolon), there is a large surface area for absorption. Using hypotonic fluids leads to rapid water absorption into the bloodstream, which can cause **dilutional hyponatremia** and potentially fatal **water intoxication** (cerebral edema and seizures). * **Soap solution (C):** This is highly irritating to the colonic mucosa. It can cause chemical colitis and mucosal injury, making it contraindicated in pediatric patients, especially those already at risk for Hirschsprung-associated enterocolitis (HAEC). **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Gold Standard Diagnosis:** Full-thickness rectal biopsy (showing absence of ganglion cells in Meissner’s and Auerbach’s plexuses and presence of hypertrophied nerve bundles). * **Initial Management:** Rectal washouts are the "bridge" to definitive surgery, performed 2–3 times daily. * **Technique:** A large-bore catheter (16–22 Fr) is used; the volume should not exceed 20 ml/kg per cycle. * **Definitive Procedures:** Duhamel, Soave, and Swenson procedures are the classic surgical repairs.

Question 203: Chromosomal anomalies and cardiac anomalies are more frequently associated with which of the following congenital disorders?

A. Gastroschisis
B. Omphalocele (Correct Answer)
C. Spina Bifida
D. Cleft Palate

Explanation: **Explanation:** **Omphalocele** is a midline abdominal wall defect where the bowel and/or solid viscera herniate through the umbilical ring, covered by a sac consisting of peritoneum and amnion. It is the correct answer because it is highly associated with extra-abdominal anomalies in **50–70% of cases**. * **Chromosomal Anomalies:** Approximately 30–50% of infants with omphalocele have chromosomal defects, most commonly **Trisomy 18 (Edwards syndrome)**, followed by Trisomy 13 and 21. * **Cardiac Anomalies:** Congenital heart disease (e.g., ASD, VSD, Tetralogy of Fallot) occurs in nearly 30–50% of these patients. It is also a key component of **Beckwith-Wiedemann Syndrome** (macroglossia, gigantism, hypoglycemia). **Why the other options are incorrect:** * **Gastroschisis:** This is a full-thickness paraumbilical defect (usually to the right) with no covering sac. Unlike omphalocele, it is typically an **isolated finding** and is rarely associated with chromosomal or cardiac anomalies. * **Spina Bifida:** While associated with neurological and orthopedic issues (and sometimes hydrocephalus), it is not primarily characterized by the high frequency of chromosomal/cardiac clusters seen in omphalocele. * **Cleft Palate:** While it can be part of syndromes (like Patau), isolated cleft palate has a much lower association with major systemic chromosomal/cardiac defects compared to omphalocele. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Maternal Age:** Gastroschisis is associated with *young* maternal age; Omphalocele is associated with *advanced* maternal age. * **AFP Levels:** Maternal Serum Alpha-Fetoprotein (MSAFP) is significantly higher in Gastroschisis than in Omphalocele (due to the exposed bowel). * **Management Rule:** In Omphalocele, always perform an **Echocardiogram** and **Karyotyping** before surgical repair.

Question 204: What is the treatment of choice for inguinal hernia in infants?

A. Herniotomy (Correct Answer)
B. Herniorrhaphy
C. Truss
D. Hernioplasty

Explanation: **Explanation:** The treatment of choice for inguinal hernia in infants is **Herniotomy**. **Why Herniotomy is the Correct Answer:** In infants and children, the underlying cause of an inguinal hernia is a **patent processus vaginalis (PPV)**, which is a congenital failure of the peritoneal sac to close. Unlike adults, there is no inherent weakness in the posterior wall of the inguinal canal (transversalis fascia). Therefore, the surgery focuses solely on the high ligation and excision of the patent sac. This procedure is called a **Herniotomy**. **Why Other Options are Incorrect:** * **Herniorrhaphy:** This involves repairing the posterior wall of the inguinal canal by suturing muscles/fascia (e.g., Bassini’s repair). This is unnecessary in children and can interfere with the development of the inguinal canal. * **Truss:** A truss is a mechanical appliance used to provide external pressure. It is contraindicated in infants as it can cause pressure necrosis of the testis and does not cure the anatomical defect. * **Hernioplasty:** This involves the use of a prosthetic mesh to reinforce the inguinal floor. It is contraindicated in children because the mesh does not grow with the child and can cause significant scarring and damage to the vas deferens. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Timing:** Pediatric inguinal hernias have a high risk of **incarceration** (especially in the first year of life); therefore, they should be operated on soon after diagnosis. * **Silk Glove Sign:** A clinical sensation of two layers of silk rubbing together when palpating the spermatic cord, pathognomonic for a patent sac. * **Side Predominance:** More common on the **right side** (due to later descent of the right testis). * **Incarceration:** If a hernia is irreducible, an emergency herniotomy is required after attempted manual reduction (unless strangulation is suspected).

Question 205: Which of the following is true regarding rectal atresia?

A. The anus appears normal. (Correct Answer)
B. A rectovesical fistula is present.
C. It is a low type of anorectal malformation.
D. Rectovesical fistula is most common in males.

Explanation: **Explanation:** **Rectal Atresia** is a rare and unique variant of anorectal malformations (ARMs). The hallmark of this condition is that the **anal canal is developed normally**, but there is a complete obstruction (atresia) in the rectum, usually 2–3 cm above the anal verge. 1. **Why Option A is correct:** In rectal atresia, the proctodeum (the part that forms the anus) develops normally. Therefore, on external inspection, the **anus appears normal** with a well-formed anal pit and a present anal wink reflex. The diagnosis is often delayed until the first attempt to take a rectal temperature or when the infant fails to pass meconium despite a normal-looking anus. 2. **Why the other options are incorrect:** * **Option B & D:** Rectal atresia is characterized by the **absence of a fistula** connecting to the urinary tract or perineum. Rectovesical fistulas are associated with "High" anorectal malformations (anorectal agenesis), not rectal atresia. * **Option C:** According to the Wingspread and Krickenbeck classifications, rectal atresia is classified as a **High/Intermediate type** of malformation, not a low type. **High-Yield Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Clinical Presentation:** Failure to pass meconium + Normal looking anus + Resistance felt on inserting a catheter (usually at 2–3 cm). * **Radiology:** The "Invertogram" (Wangensteen-Rice view) is used to determine the level of the lesion in ARMs, but clinical examination is paramount. * **Management:** Unlike low ARMs (which require anoplasty), rectal atresia usually requires a **divided sigmoid colostomy** followed by a definitive pull-through procedure (like PSARP). * **Association:** It accounts for only 1–2% of all anorectal malformations.

Question 206: A newborn male is brought by parents with imperforate anus. After ruling out associated abnormalities, an inverseogram was performed, and rectal gas was found to be below the coccyx. What is the preferred treatment for this child?

A. Observation
B. Anoplasty
C. Posterior Sagittal Anorectal Plasty (PSARP) (Correct Answer)
D. Colostomy

Explanation: **Explanation:** The management of Anorectal Malformations (ARM) is determined by the level of the rectal pouch relative to the pelvic floor muscles. **1. Why PSARP is correct:** The **Invertogram** (Wangensteen-Rice view) is used to classify the defect. When the rectal gas shadow is **below the coccyx** (or <1 cm from the perineal skin), it indicates a **"Low" Anorectal Malformation**. In males, low defects typically present as a cutaneous fistula or a covered anus. The definitive treatment for a low ARM is a primary **Posterior Sagittal Anorectal Plasty (PSARP)** or a simple perineal repair, performed without a diverting colostomy. **2. Why other options are incorrect:** * **Observation (A):** Imperforate anus is a surgical emergency (potential for intestinal obstruction); observation is never appropriate. * **Anoplasty (B):** While often used for very simple perineal fistulas, PSARP is the standardized, preferred surgical approach to ensure the rectum is correctly positioned within the muscle complex. * **Colostomy (D):** A staged approach (Colostomy → PSARP → Closure) is reserved for **"High" or "Intermediate" defects** (gas shadow above the coccyx or >1 cm from the skin) to prevent fecal contamination of the urinary tract or when associated with complex fistulas. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Timing:** Invertograms should only be performed **after 18–24 hours** of life to allow bowel gas to reach the distal rectum. * **VACTERL Association:** Always screen for Vertebral, Anal, Cardiac, Tracheo-Esophageal, Renal, and Limb anomalies. * **Initial Investigation:** The first step in a newborn with ARM is a thorough **perineal examination** and a **cross-table lateral film** in the prone position. * **Gold Standard:** Alberto Peña’s PSARP is the gold standard for most ARMs.

Question 207: In which of the following conditions are fluid levels NOT seen?

A. Meconium ileus (Correct Answer)
B. Intussusception
C. Colon pouch
D. Duodenal obstruction

Explanation: **Explanation:** In pediatric surgery, the presence or absence of air-fluid levels on an abdominal X-ray is a critical diagnostic clue for intestinal obstruction. **Why Meconium Ileus is the Correct Answer:** Meconium ileus is a distal small bowel obstruction caused by thick, inspissated meconium (commonly associated with Cystic Fibrosis). Because the meconium is extremely **viscid and "sticky,"** it does not separate into liquid and gas phases. Consequently, air-fluid levels are typically **absent**. Instead, the characteristic radiological finding is a **"Ground-glass" or "Soap-bubble" appearance (Neuhauser’s sign)**, caused by air bubbles mixing with the thick meconium. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Intussusception:** This is a mechanical obstruction where one segment of the bowel telescopes into another. As the obstruction progresses, proximal bowel loops dilate and develop classic air-fluid levels. * **Pouch Colon:** Often associated with Anorectal Malformations (ARM), the massive dilation of the colonic pouch leads to significant stasis of fecal matter and gas, resulting in a large, prominent air-fluid level. * **Duodenal Obstruction:** Whether due to atresia or stenosis, this presents with the "Double Bubble" sign. If there is a partial obstruction or if the film is taken in an erect posture, fluid levels are clearly visible within the two bubbles (stomach and duodenum). **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Neuhauser’s Sign:** Pathognomonic for Meconium Ileus. * **Microcolon:** A common finding on contrast enema in Meconium Ileus due to disuse. * **Sweat Chloride Test:** The gold standard investigation to perform after stabilizing a neonate with meconium ileus to rule out Cystic Fibrosis. * **Gastrografin Enema:** Used for both diagnosis and non-surgical management (therapeutic) of uncomplicated meconium ileus.

Question 208: All of the following are true about cystic hygroma except?

A. These are multiloculated cysts lined with endothelium.
B. Transillumination is positive.
C. The posterior neck region is more commonly involved.
D. Sistrunk incision is used for surgical excision. (Correct Answer)

Explanation: **Explanation:** **Cystic Hygroma** is a congenital malformation of the lymphatic system (lymphangioma) resulting from the failure of lymphatics to connect with the venous system. **Why Option D is the Correct Answer (The "Except" statement):** A **Sistrunk incision** (and the Sistrunk procedure) is specifically used for the surgical excision of a **Thyroglossal Cyst**, not a cystic hygroma. The procedure involves removing the cyst along with the mid-portion of the hyoid bone and the tract leading to the foramen caecum. For cystic hygroma, the treatment of choice is surgical excision via a skin-crease incision or the use of sclerotherapy (e.g., OK-432, Bleomycin). **Analysis of Other Options:** * **Option A:** True. Pathologically, these are multiloculated, fluid-filled spaces lined by a single layer of **endothelium**. * **Option B:** True. Because they contain clear, serous fluid and have thin walls, they are brilliantly **transilluminant**. This is a classic bedside diagnostic feature. * **Option C:** True. Approximately 75-80% of cystic hygromas occur in the **neck**, specifically in the **posterior triangle**. Other sites include the axilla, mediastinum, and groin. **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Association:** Frequently associated with chromosomal abnormalities like **Turner Syndrome** (45, XO) and Down Syndrome. * **Complications:** Sudden increase in size usually indicates **intracystic hemorrhage** or infection. * **Clinical Presentation:** Usually presents at birth or by age 2 as a soft, painless, compressible, and fluctuant mass. * **Management:** Complete surgical excision is preferred, but preservation of vital structures (facial nerve, etc.) is paramount, even if it means leaving some cyst wall behind.

Question 209: What is the optimal age for surgical correction of cryptorchidism when one testis is undescended and the other is normally descended?

A. Immediately
B. At 2 years of age
C. At 4 years of age, before starting school
D. None of the above (Correct Answer)

Explanation: **Explanation:** The optimal timing for surgical correction of cryptorchidism (undescended testis) has evolved significantly. Current clinical guidelines (AUA/AAP) recommend that orchidopexy should be performed **between 6 and 12 months of age**, and certainly by 18 months. **1. Why "None of the above" is correct:** Spontaneous descent of the testis is common in the first few months of life but rarely occurs after 6 months. To prevent irreversible histological changes (such as loss of germ cells and Leydig cell depletion), surgery is recommended shortly after the 6-month mark. None of the provided options (Immediately, 2 years, or 4 years) align with this 6–12 month window. **2. Why the other options are incorrect:** * **Option A (Immediately):** Surgery is not performed at birth because there is a high probability of spontaneous descent during the first 3–4 months of life due to the postnatal "mini-puberty" (testosterone surge). * **Option B (At 2 years):** This was the historical recommendation. However, we now know that by age 2, significant germ cell loss and peritubular fibrosis have already begun, increasing the risk of future infertility. * **Option C (At 4 years):** Waiting until school age significantly increases the risk of testicular malignancy and provides no benefit for fertility preservation. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Most common site:** Inguinal canal (specifically just outside the external ring). * **Complications:** Infertility (highest risk in bilateral cases), Testicular Torsion, Inguinal Hernia (associated in 90% of cases due to patent processus vaginalis), and Malignancy (Seminoma is the most common). * **Surgery Goal:** Orchidopexy reduces the risk of torsion and allows for easier screening for malignancy, though it does not completely eliminate the baseline risk of cancer.

Question 210: Which statement is true about intussusception?

A. It is common in neonates.
B. Fever is always present.
C. It is not associated with tumors of the intestine.
D. It is usually relieved by barium enema. (Correct Answer)

Explanation: **Explanation:** **Intussusception** is the telescoping of one segment of the intestine into another, most commonly the ileum into the colon (ileocolic). It is the most common cause of intestinal obstruction in infants. **1. Why Option D is Correct:** Non-operative reduction is the first-line treatment for stable patients. **Hydrostatic reduction** (using barium or saline) or **pneumatic reduction** (using air) under fluoroscopic or ultrasound guidance is successful in 80–90% of cases. The pressure exerted by the enema pushes the intussusceptum back into its original position, relieving the obstruction. **2. Why the Other Options are Incorrect:** * **Option A:** It is **rare in neonates**. The peak incidence is between **5 and 10 months** of age. In neonates, intestinal obstruction is more likely due to atresia, malrotation, or Hirschsprung disease. * **Option B:** Fever is **not a constant feature**. The classic triad consists of intermittent colicky abdominal pain, a palpable sausage-shaped mass, and "red currant jelly" stools. Fever usually indicates late-stage complications like ischemia or perforation. * **Option C:** While 90% of cases in children are idiopathic (often linked to lymphoid hyperplasia/Peyer's patches), **pathological lead points** such as Meckel’s diverticulum, polyps, or **lymphoma** can cause intussusception, especially in children older than 2 years. **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Target/Donut Sign:** Seen on transverse USG (Investigation of Choice). * **Pseudokidney Sign:** Seen on longitudinal USG. * **Claw Sign:** Seen on Barium enema. * **Dance’s Sign:** Emptiness in the Right Iliac Fossa (RIF) on palpation. * **Contraindications to Enema:** Peritonitis, perforation, or shock. These cases require immediate laparotomy (Hutchinson’s maneuver).

Practice by Chapter

Neonatal Physiology

Practice Questions

Congenital Anomalies Overview

Practice Questions

Neonatal Intestinal Obstruction

Practice Questions

Necrotizing Enterocolitis

Practice Questions

Hirschsprung's Disease

Practice Questions

Anorectal Malformations

Practice Questions

Pediatric Hernias

Practice Questions

Pyloric Stenosis

Practice Questions

Biliary Atresia

Practice Questions

Pediatric Tumors

Practice Questions

Congenital Diaphragmatic Hernia

Practice Questions

Pediatric Trauma

Practice Questions

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