Pediatric Surgery — MCQs

Pediatric Surgery Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 151: Which of the following is true about duplication of the intestine?

A. Spherical type is most common. (Correct Answer)
B. Tubular type is attached longitudinally with the bowel.
C. Spherical cyst communicates with the lumen.
D. All of the above

Explanation: **Explanation:** Alimentary Tract Duplications (ATDs) are rare congenital malformations that can occur anywhere from the mouth to the anus. They are characterized by three features: they are attached to the alimentary tract, possess a smooth muscle coat, and are lined by gastrointestinal mucosa. 1. **Why Option A is correct:** ATDs are morphologically classified into two types: **Spherical** and **Tubular**. The **Spherical type is the most common**, accounting for approximately **80%** of all duplications. These are typically non-communicating cysts found along the mesenteric border. 2. **Why Option B is incorrect:** While tubular duplications are indeed attached to the bowel, the defining characteristic of the tubular type is that it usually **communicates with the intestinal lumen** at one or both ends. The description in the option is incomplete compared to the definitive nature of Option A. 3. **Why Option C is incorrect:** Spherical duplications are typically **non-communicating** cysts. Because they do not communicate with the lumen, they often present as a palpable mass or cause intestinal obstruction due to extrinsic compression. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Most common site:** The **Ileum** is the most frequent site for duplication (30-40%). * **Location:** Duplications are almost always found on the **mesenteric side** of the bowel (sharing a common blood supply), unlike Meckel’s diverticulum, which is on the anti-mesenteric side. * **Ectopic Tissue:** Gastric mucosa is found in about 20-30% of cases, which can lead to peptic ulceration and GI bleeding. * **Management:** The treatment of choice is **total excision**. If a common wall/blood supply makes excision difficult, a formal bowel resection with end-to-end anastomosis is performed.

Question 152: What is the optimal age for primary bone grafting in a cleft palate patient?

A. 6 months to 1 year
B. Less than 2 years (Correct Answer)
C. 2-4 years
D. 4-5 years

Explanation: **Explanation:** The timing of bone grafting in cleft patients is categorized based on the stage of dental development. **Primary bone grafting** is performed concurrently with the initial repair of the lip or palate, typically **before the age of 2 years**. The underlying medical concept for primary bone grafting is to provide early structural integrity to the alveolar ridge and stabilize the maxillary segments before significant speech development begins. While secondary bone grafting (performed during mixed dentition) is more common globally to avoid growth retardation, primary bone grafting (Option B) specifically refers to this early intervention aimed at preventing the collapse of the maxillary arch. **Analysis of Options:** * **Option A (6 months to 1 year):** While lip repair occurs at 3–6 months and palate repair at 6–12 months, primary bone grafting is usually extended up to 2 years to ensure the child is physiologically stable enough for the additional surgical time. * **Options C & D (2–5 years):** These ages fall into a "latent period" where surgery is generally avoided to prevent interference with the transverse and anteroposterior growth of the maxilla. **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Secondary Bone Grafting (Most Common):** Performed between **9–11 years** (during mixed dentition), specifically when the root of the permanent canine is 1/2 to 2/3 formed. * **Rule of 10s (for Cleft Lip repair):** 10 weeks of age, 10 lbs weight, and 10 g/dL Hemoglobin. * **Sequence of Repair:** Lip repair (3–6 months) → Palate repair (6–12 months) → Bone grafting (Primary <2 yrs; Secondary 9–11 yrs). * **Main Goal of Palatoplasty:** To achieve normal speech by preventing velopharyngeal insufficiency.

Question 153: What is the treatment for congenital hydrocele?

A. Eversion of sac
B. No treatment before 5 years
C. Herniorraphy
D. Herniotomy (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ### Explanation **Correct Answer: D. Herniotomy** **Medical Concept:** Congenital hydrocele is caused by a **patent processus vaginalis (PPV)**, which allows peritoneal fluid to track down into the scrotum. In the pediatric population, this is considered a "communicating hydrocele." Because the underlying pathology is a persistent communication with the peritoneal cavity—the same mechanism as an indirect inguinal hernia—the definitive treatment is **high ligation of the sac**, known as **herniotomy**. **Analysis of Options:** * **A. Eversion of sac (Jaboulay’s procedure):** This is the treatment for **primary vaginal hydrocele in adults**. In children, the problem is the patent communication, not the sac's inability to absorb fluid; therefore, eversion is inappropriate and ineffective. * **B. No treatment before 5 years:** While many congenital hydroceles resolve spontaneously as the PPV closes, surgical intervention is typically indicated if it persists beyond **1–2 years of age**. Waiting until 5 years is clinically inappropriate. * **C. Herniorraphy:** This involves the repair of the posterior wall of the inguinal canal. It is unnecessary in children as their inguinal canal is healthy; they only require the removal of the sac (herniotomy). **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Timing of Surgery:** Most pediatric surgeons recommend waiting until **12–24 months** of age for spontaneous closure before operating. * **The "Silk Glove" Sign:** A classic clinical finding on palpation of the spermatic cord in children with PPV. * **Association:** Congenital hydrocele is frequently associated with an indirect inguinal hernia. * **Key Difference:** In adults, hydrocele surgery is usually **scrotal**; in children, it is always an **inguinal** approach to reach the internal ring for high ligation.

Question 154: A rectal biopsy is taken in Hirschsprung's disease. From which part is it ideally taken?

A. Dilated part
B. Transitional part
C. Constricted part (Correct Answer)
D. Any of the above

Explanation: **Explanation:** **1. Why the Correct Answer is Right:** Hirschsprung’s disease (Congenital Megacolon) is characterized by the **absence of ganglion cells** in the Meissner’s and Auerbach’s plexuses. This aganglionosis results in a failure of the affected segment to relax, leading to a functional obstruction. The **constricted (narrow) segment** is the actual diseased portion where the ganglion cells are missing. Therefore, to confirm the diagnosis histologically (showing absent ganglion cells and hypertrophied nerve bundles), the biopsy must be taken from this constricted part. **2. Why the Other Options are Wrong:** * **Dilated part:** This is the proximal, healthy segment of the colon. It becomes dilated (megacolon) because it is working against the distal obstruction. A biopsy here would show normal ganglion cells, leading to a false-negative result. * **Transitional part:** This is the zone between the aganglionic and ganglionic segments. While it may show a reduced number of ganglion cells (hypoganglionosis), it does not provide the definitive diagnostic evidence of complete aganglionosis required for a gold-standard diagnosis. **3. Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Gold Standard Diagnosis:** Rectal Suction Biopsy (RSB). * **Biopsy Site:** Ideally taken **at least 2 cm above the dentate line** to avoid the "physiologic hypocellular zone" normally present in the distal rectum. * **Histopathology Findings:** Absence of ganglion cells + **Increased Acetylcholinesterase (AChE) staining** (due to hypertrophied nerve fibers). * **Initial Screening:** Contrast enema showing a "transition zone" and a "rectosigmoid index" < 1. * **Management:** Surgical procedures like Duhamel, Soave, or Swenson pull-through.

Question 155: What is the first-line treatment for meconium ileus?

A. Mikulicz ileostomy
B. Bishop ileostomy
C. Contrast enema (Correct Answer)
D. Barium enema

Explanation: **Explanation:** **Meconium Ileus** is the earliest clinical manifestation of **Cystic Fibrosis**, occurring in approximately 15–20% of affected neonates. It is characterized by the impaction of thick, inspissated meconium in the terminal ileum, leading to distal small bowel obstruction. **Why Contrast Enema is the Correct Answer:** For **uncomplicated meconium ileus** (no signs of perforation, volvulus, or atresia), the first-line management is non-surgical. A **water-soluble, hypertonic contrast enema** (e.g., Gastrografin) is performed under fluoroscopic guidance. The hypertonic nature of the contrast draws fluid into the bowel lumen, softening the tenacious meconium and facilitating its evacuation. This procedure is both diagnostic (showing a "microcolon") and therapeutic. **Why Other Options are Incorrect:** * **Mikulicz and Bishop-Koop Ileostomies:** These are surgical procedures. Surgery is reserved for **complicated meconium ileus** or when contrast enemas fail. While historically popular, they are no longer first-line. * **Barium Enema:** Barium is an inert, non-osmotic substance. It does not help in liquefying the meconium and can cause severe barium peritonitis if an occult perforation exists. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Pathognomonic Sign:** "Neuhauser’s Sign" (Soap-bubble appearance/Ground-glass appearance) on X-ray due to air mixing with meconium. * **Associated Condition:** 90% of infants with meconium ileus have Cystic Fibrosis (CFTR gene mutation on Chromosome 7). * **Microcolon:** A characteristic finding on contrast enema, representing a "disuse" colon because meconium never reached it. * **Management Tip:** Ensure the neonate is well-hydrated before a Gastrografin enema to prevent dehydration from the hypertonic fluid shift.

Question 156: What is the first investigation to be performed in a neonate presenting with frothy mouth and dyspnea?

A. Bronchoscopy with injection of methylene blue
B. Nasogastric tube insertion and chest X-ray to check tube position (Correct Answer)
C. CT scan of the chest
D. Endoscopy

Explanation: ### Explanation **Clinical Diagnosis: Tracheoesophageal Fistula (TEF) with Esophageal Atresia (EA)** The classic triad of a neonate presenting with **frothy secretions (drooling)**, **choking episodes**, and **cyanosis/dyspnea** during feeding is highly suggestive of Esophageal Atresia. **1. Why Option B is Correct:** The initial step in management is to confirm the patency of the esophagus. A **firm, large-bore (8 or 10 Fr) radiopaque nasogastric (NG) or orogastric tube** is passed. In cases of EA, the tube will meet resistance and "coil" in the upper esophageal pouch. A **plain X-ray (Chest + Upper Abdomen)** is then performed to visualize the coiled tube. This single step confirms the diagnosis of EA and, by checking for abdominal gas, helps identify the presence of a distal TEF. **2. Why Other Options are Incorrect:** * **Option A (Bronchoscopy):** While bronchoscopy is the "Gold Standard" for identifying the exact location of a fistula (especially H-type), it is invasive and never the *first* investigation. * **Option C (CT Scan):** CT is unnecessary for the initial diagnosis and exposes the neonate to high radiation. * **Option D (Endoscopy):** Upper GI endoscopy is technically difficult in neonates and carries a high risk of perforation in a blind pouch; it is not indicated for initial screening. **3. NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Most Common Type:** Type C (85%) – Proximal Atresia with Distal Fistula. * **Gas Pattern:** Air in the stomach on X-ray indicates a distal fistula; a "gasless abdomen" indicates pure EA (Type A). * **Associated Anomalies:** Always look for **VACTERL** association (Vertebral, Anal, Cardiac, TEF, Renal, Limb). The most common associated anomaly is **Cardiac** (VSD). * **Management:** Keep the baby upright and use a **Replogle suction catheter** in the upper pouch to prevent aspiration pneumonia before surgery.

Question 157: What is the initial surgical treatment for Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF)?

A. Modified Blalock-Taussig shunt (Correct Answer)
B. Fontan procedure
C. Glenn shunt
D. Rastelli operation

Explanation: **Explanation:** **Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF)** is the most common cyanotic congenital heart disease. The primary pathophysiology involves decreased pulmonary blood flow due to right ventricular outflow tract obstruction (RVOT). **1. Why Modified Blalock-Taussig (mBT) Shunt is correct:** The definitive treatment for TOF is total surgical correction (VSD closure and relief of RVOT). However, in neonates with severe cyanosis, hypercyanotic spells, or hypoplastic pulmonary arteries, a **palliative procedure** is required first. The **mBT shunt** is the initial surgical intervention of choice. It involves placing a synthetic GORE-TEX graft between the **subclavian artery and the ipsilateral pulmonary artery**, thereby increasing pulmonary blood flow and allowing the pulmonary arteries to grow before definitive repair. **2. Why other options are incorrect:** * **Fontan Procedure:** Used for "single ventricle" physiology (e.g., Tricuspid Atresia). It connects the systemic venous return directly to the pulmonary arteries, bypassing the right ventricle. * **Glenn Shunt:** A bidirectional superior vena cava-to-pulmonary artery anastomosis. It is a second-stage palliative step for single ventricle patients, not TOF. * **Rastelli Operation:** Used for TOF with Pulmonary Atresia or Truncus Arteriosus. It involves using a valved conduit to connect the right ventricle to the pulmonary artery. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Components of TOF:** VSD, Overriding of Aorta, RVOT obstruction (Infundibular stenosis), and RV Hypertrophy. * **X-ray finding:** "Boot-shaped heart" (Coeur en sabot). * **Classic BT Shunt:** Direct anastomosis of the subclavian artery to the pulmonary artery (rarely done now due to limb ischemia risk; mBT is preferred). * **Squatting position:** Increases systemic vascular resistance (SVR), which decreases the right-to-left shunt and improves oxygenation.

Question 158: A female newborn presents with a large midline tumor in the lower sacral area, diagnosed as a sacrococcygeal tumor. Which of the following courses of treatment is recommended for this child?

A. Immediate chemotherapy and radiation treatment
B. Surgical removal by age 6 months (Correct Answer)
C. Surgical removal at age 4-5 years
D. Surgical removal at age 13-15 years

Explanation: **Explanation:** **Sacrococcygeal Teratoma (SCT)** is the most common newborn tumor. The primary goal of management is early surgical intervention to prevent malignant transformation and complications. **1. Why Option B is Correct:** The standard of care for SCT is **complete surgical excision** as soon as the patient is stabilized, typically within the first few months of life (ideally by age 6 months). The risk of malignancy in SCT is relatively low at birth (approx. 5-10%) but increases significantly with age. By 1 year of age, the risk of malignancy rises to over 50%. Therefore, early resection is curative for benign lesions and prevents the development of yolk sac tumors or other malignant components. **2. Why the Other Options are Incorrect:** * **Option A:** Chemotherapy and radiation are not primary treatments for neonatal SCT. They are reserved for malignant cases or recurrent disease following surgery. * **Options C & D:** Delaying surgery until age 4 or 15 years is contraindicated. The risk of malignant transformation increases exponentially after the neonatal period. Furthermore, large tumors can cause local complications like urinary obstruction or bowel dysfunction if left untreated. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Altman Classification:** Used to categorize SCT based on its external vs. internal (pelvic) extension. Type I is mostly external; Type IV is entirely internal (highest risk of delayed diagnosis). * **Surgical Key:** Complete excision must include the **removal of the coccyx**. Failure to remove the coccyx leads to a high recurrence rate (30-40%). * **Tumor Markers:** Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) and Beta-hCG are used for diagnosis and monitoring recurrence. * **Epidemiology:** More common in females (4:1 ratio), but malignancy is more common in males.

Question 159: What does the 'Signe de Dance' refer to?

A. Empty right iliac fossa in intussusception (Correct Answer)
B. Pincer shaped appearance in barium enema in intussusception
C. Tenderness at McBurney's Point
D. Passing of large quantities of urine in hydronephrosis

Explanation: **Explanation** **Signe de Dance** (Dance’s Sign) is a classic clinical finding in **intussusception**, most commonly seen in the ileocolic variety. It refers to a palpable **emptiness in the right iliac fossa (RIF)**. This occurs because the cecum and the ileum invaginate (telescope) into the ascending and transverse colon, physically migrating out of their normal anatomical position in the RIF. **Analysis of Options:** * **Option A (Correct):** As the intussusceptum moves distally along the colon, the RIF feels "empty" on palpation. This is often accompanied by a sausage-shaped mass felt in the right hypochondrium or epigastrium. * **Option B (Incorrect):** A "pincer-shaped" or "claw appearance" is a **radiological** finding seen on a barium enema, not a clinical sign. * **Option C (Incorrect):** Tenderness at McBurney’s point is the hallmark of **acute appendicitis**, caused by inflammation of the appendix. * **Option D (Incorrect):** Passing large quantities of urine after the relief of loin pain is known as **Dietl’s crisis**, seen in intermittent hydronephrosis (often due to PUJ obstruction). **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Triad of Intussusception:** Intermittent abdominal pain (screaming episodes), sausage-shaped mass, and **"red currant jelly" stools**. * **Target/Donut Sign:** The classic appearance on Ultrasonography (the investigation of choice). * **Treatment:** Non-operative reduction using **hydrostatic (saline) or pneumatic (air) enema** is the first-line treatment in stable patients. * **Lead Point:** In children, it is usually idiopathic (hypertrophied Peyer’s patches); in adults, it is usually a malignancy.

Question 160: What is the optimal management of bilateral undescended testicles in an infant?

A. Immediate surgical placement into the scrotum
B. Chorionic gonadotropin therapy for 1 month; operative placement into the scrotum before age 1 if descent has not occurred (Correct Answer)
C. Observation until the child is 2 years old because delayed descent is common
D. Observation until age 5; if no descent by then, plastic surgical scrotal prostheses before the child enters school

Explanation: ### Explanation **Correct Answer: B. Chorionic gonadotropin therapy for 1 month; operative placement into the scrotum before age 1 if descent has not occurred.** **Medical Concept:** The management of undescended testes (cryptorchidism) is governed by two principles: the potential for spontaneous descent and the prevention of germ cell degradation. Spontaneous descent is common in the first few months of life but rarely occurs after **6 months of age**. * **Hormonal Therapy:** Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (hCG) or GnRH analogues are often used initially, especially in bilateral cases. hCG stimulates Leydig cells to produce testosterone, which may trigger descent in roughly 10–20% of cases. * **Surgical Timing:** If hormones fail, **Orchidopexy** is indicated. Current guidelines recommend surgery between **6 and 12 months** of age. Early intervention (before age 1) is critical to preserve fertility potential and reduce the risk of testicular malignancy later in life. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Option A:** Immediate surgery is unnecessary as spontaneous descent can occur up to 6 months of age. * **Option C:** Waiting until age 2 is outdated. Histological changes (loss of spermatogonia) begin as early as 1 year; delaying surgery increases the risk of infertility. * **Option D:** Waiting until age 5 is contraindicated. By this age, irreversible damage to the germinal epithelium has usually occurred, and the risk of malignant transformation (seminoma) remains high. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Most common location:** Inguinal canal. * **Most common complication:** Inguinal hernia (due to patent processus vaginalis). * **Malignancy Risk:** Orchidopexy does *not* eliminate the risk of testicular cancer (most commonly **Seminoma**), but it makes the testis accessible for clinical screening. * **Bilateral Non-palpable Testes:** Always rule out Disorders of Sexual Development (DSD) like Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia (CAH) via karyotyping and ultrasound.

Practice by Chapter

Neonatal Physiology

Practice Questions

Congenital Anomalies Overview

Practice Questions

Neonatal Intestinal Obstruction

Practice Questions

Necrotizing Enterocolitis

Practice Questions

Hirschsprung's Disease

Practice Questions

Anorectal Malformations

Practice Questions

Pediatric Hernias

Practice Questions

Pyloric Stenosis

Practice Questions

Biliary Atresia

Practice Questions

Pediatric Tumors

Practice Questions

Congenital Diaphragmatic Hernia

Practice Questions

Pediatric Trauma

Practice Questions

Want unlimited practice?

Get full access to all questions, explanations, and performance tracking.

Start For Free