Single Incision Laparoscopic Surgery — MCQs

10 questions

Which of the following surgical incisions is associated with the highest risk of postoperative pulmonary complications ?

Wound contraction can be most effectively minimized by:

Which anatomical structure is most commonly the target of incisions during major gynecological surgical procedures?

Among the following conditions, laparoscopy carries the highest risk in patients with:

Longitudinal incision with Z-plasty closure is used in which of the following?

Using a small fine probe, a single lactiferous duct is excised. What is the name of the procedure:

The technique of laparoscopic cholecystectomy was first performed by whom?

Which of the following is NOT a CONTRAINDICATION for laparoscopic surgery:

Structure not forming boundaries of the "Triangle of doom" seen during laparoscopic inguinal hernia surgery dissection is:

Q10

The Chief of laparoscopic surgery asked his assistant to give him a laparoscopic port which has absolutely no chance of "capacitance coupling" during laparoscopic surgery. Which port should the assistant give to the Chief?

Single Incision Laparoscopic Surgery Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 1: Which of the following surgical incisions is associated with the highest risk of postoperative pulmonary complications ?

A. Median sternotomy
B. Horizontal laparotomy
C. Vertical laparotomy
D. Lateral thoracotomy (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Lateral thoracotomy*** - **Lateral thoracotomy** is associated with the **highest risk of postoperative pulmonary complications** among common surgical incisions, with complication rates ranging from **15-70%** depending on the procedure. - This incision **directly violates the chest wall** with rib resection or spreading, causing severe postoperative pain that significantly impairs respiratory mechanics. - The procedure disrupts **intercostal muscles**, damages **intercostal nerves**, and violates the **pleura**, leading to immediate risks like **pneumothorax**, **hemothorax**, and **pleural effusion**. - Severe pain leads to **splinting**, **shallow breathing**, **impaired cough**, and **reduced lung expansion**, markedly increasing the risk of **atelectasis**, **pneumonia**, and **respiratory failure**. - The **ipsilateral lung** is particularly affected with reduced functional residual capacity and impaired secretion clearance. *Vertical laparotomy* - **Upper abdominal vertical incisions** are indeed associated with high pulmonary complication rates (**30-50%**), second only to thoracotomy. - Pain leads to **diaphragmatic splinting** and impaired respiratory mechanics, increasing risk of **atelectasis** and **pneumonia**. - However, the chest wall itself remains intact, making complications generally less severe than with thoracotomy. *Median sternotomy* - While a major thoracic procedure, **median sternotomy** has relatively **lower pulmonary complication rates** compared to lateral thoracotomy. - The sternal split preserves **intercostal muscles** and **nerve integrity**, resulting in less severe pain and better preserved respiratory mechanics. - Postoperative pain management is generally more effective than with lateral thoracotomy. *Horizontal laparotomy* - **Transverse abdominal incisions** (e.g., Pfannenstiel, transverse supraumbilical) cause significantly less pain than vertical incisions. - These incisions follow **natural tissue planes**, cause less muscle disruption, and allow better respiratory mechanics. - Lower pain levels facilitate **effective coughing**, **deep breathing**, and **early mobilization**, reducing pulmonary complication risk.

Question 2: Wound contraction can be most effectively minimized by:

A. Allowing secondary granulation
B. Full thickness grafting (Correct Answer)
C. Split skin graft
D. Dressing with placenta

Explanation: ***Full thickness grafting*** - **Full-thickness skin grafts** include the epidermis and full dermis, which contains **fewer myofibroblasts** than split-thickness grafts, thus minimizing contraction. - The greater amount of dermal tissue acts as a **mechanical barrier** to prevent excessive wound contraction, providing a more stable and aesthetically pleasing result. *Allowing secondary granulation* - Healing by **secondary intention** involves substantial granulation tissue formation, which is rich in **myofibroblasts** and leads to significant wound contraction. - This method of healing is often used for infected or contaminated wounds but results in the **most contraction**. *Split skin graft* - **Split-thickness skin grafts** contain only a portion of the dermis, making them prone to **moderate to significant wound contraction**. - While better than secondary intention, the thin dermal layer provides less resistance to the contractile forces of the **myofibroblasts**. *Dressing with placenta* - **Placental tissue dressings** can promote wound healing by providing growth factors and a scaffold for regeneration. - However, they do not inherently prevent or minimize **wound contraction** in the same way that a full-thickness graft mechanically does, as they do not replace the entire dermal layer.

Question 3: Which anatomical structure is most commonly the target of incisions during major gynecological surgical procedures?

A. Ovary
B. Cervix
C. Fallopian tube
D. Uterus (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Uterus*** - The **uterus** is the primary anatomical target for many major gynecological procedures, such as **hysterectomy** (removal of the uterus) and **myomectomy** (removal of fibroids from the uterus). - These are among the most commonly performed major gynecological surgeries, making the uterus the most frequent target for incisions in gynecological practice. - In obstetric procedures, the uterus is also incised during **cesarean sections**, highlighting its central role in both obstetric and gynecologic surgery. *Ovary* - While ovaries are involved in gynecological surgery (e.g., **oophorectomy**, cystectomy), they are not as frequently the *primary* target for incisions as the uterus in the context of major procedures. - Ovarian surgeries are often performed for **cysts**, **tumors**, or in conjunction with hysterectomy, but are less common than uterine procedures. - Many ovarian procedures can be managed laparoscopically without major incisions. *Cervix* - The **cervix** is incised in procedures like **trachelectomy** for cervical cancer or during specific cervical cerclage procedures, but these are less frequent compared to surgeries involving the uterine body itself. - Many cervical procedures are considered minor (e.g., LEEP, cone biopsy) or are part of a larger uterine surgery. *Fallopian tube* - The **fallopian tubes** are primarily targeted for procedures like **salpingectomy** (removal of the tube, often for ectopic pregnancy or sterilization) or salpingostomy. - While significant, these procedures are generally less common than those involving the uterus and overall less frequently associated with major incisions compared to uterine procedures.

Question 4: Among the following conditions, laparoscopy carries the highest risk in patients with:

A. COPD (Correct Answer)
B. Diabetes
C. Hypertension
D. Obesity

Explanation: ***COPD*** - **COPD** patients have severely compromised respiratory function, and the **pneumoperitoneum** from CO2 insufflation causes **diaphragmatic splinting** and reduced lung compliance, leading to dangerous **CO2 retention** and respiratory failure. - The increased **intra-abdominal pressure** significantly impairs ventilation in patients who already have limited respiratory reserve, making laparoscopy extremely high-risk. *Diabetes* - While diabetes increases risks of **poor wound healing** and **infection**, these complications are not specifically worse with laparoscopy compared to open surgery. - **Perioperative glucose management** can effectively control diabetes-related risks, and laparoscopy may actually offer benefits like smaller incisions. *Hypertension* - **Hypertension** requires careful **blood pressure monitoring** during surgery but doesn't pose risks unique to laparoscopic procedures. - Well-controlled hypertension with appropriate **antihypertensive medications** allows for safe laparoscopic surgery. *Obesity* - **Obesity** makes laparoscopy technically challenging due to **thick abdominal walls** and need for higher insufflation pressures. - However, laparoscopy is often **preferred over open surgery** in obese patients due to reduced wound complications and faster recovery.

Question 5: Longitudinal incision with Z-plasty closure is used in which of the following?

A. Hand surgery (Correct Answer)
B. Thyroid surgery
C. Breast reconstruction surgery
D. Hernia repair surgery

Explanation: ***Hand surgery*** - **Z-plasty** is frequently employed in hand surgery to **lengthen constricted scars** or to **reorient tension lines**, especially across joints or creases. - This technique helps to improve **range of motion** and prevent contractures that can severely impair hand function following injury or surgery. *Breast reconstruction surgery* - While various flap techniques are used in breast reconstruction, the primary incision or closure does not typically involve a **longitudinal incision with Z-plasty**. - Procedures often focus on re-shaping and volume replacement using **tissue flaps** or implants, or linear scar realignment for aesthetic purposes. *Thyroid surgery* - Thyroidectomy typically involves a **transverse incision** in the neck (a **Kocher collar incision**) to minimize visible scarring and follow natural skin folds. - **Z-plasty** is not a standard technique for closing the primary incision in thyroid surgery. *Hernia repair surgery* - Hernia repair usually involves a **linear or curvilinear incision** in the groin or abdominal wall, followed by direct closure or mesh placement. - The goal is strong tissue repair, and **Z-plasty** is not used as a closure method for the primary incision in hernia repair.

Question 6: Using a small fine probe, a single lactiferous duct is excised. What is the name of the procedure:

A. Microdochectomy (Correct Answer)
B. Hadfield operation
C. Webster operation
D. Macrodochectomy

Explanation: ***Microdochectomy*** - This procedure involves the **excision of a single, lactiferous duct** often identified using a fine probe or ductoscope. - It is typically performed to investigate or treat **pathological nipple discharge** originating from a specific duct. *Hadfield operation* - This is a more extensive procedure known as a **total duct excision** or **subareolar duct excision**. - It involves the removal of **all major lactiferous ducts** under the nipple, not just a single one. *Webster operation* - The Webster operation refers to an **inferior pedicle reduction mammoplasty** technique. - It is a type of **breast reduction surgery** and is not related to the excision of an isolated lactiferous duct. *Macrodochectomy* - This term is **not a recognized medical procedure** in the context of duct excision. - While "macro" implies large, it does not describe a specific surgical technique for duct removal.

Question 7: The technique of laparoscopic cholecystectomy was first performed by whom?

A. Erich Muhe (Correct Answer)
B. Eddie Joe Reddick
C. Philippe Mouret
D. Kurt Semm

Explanation: ***Erich Muhe*** - **Erich Muhe**, a German surgeon, performed the first laparoscopic cholecystectomy on September 12, 1985. - He is widely credited with pioneering this minimally invasive surgical technique for gallbladder removal. - This groundbreaking procedure marked the beginning of the laparoscopic revolution in surgery. *Philippe Mouret* - **Philippe Mouret** performed laparoscopic cholecystectomy in France in 1987, independently developing the technique. - While significant in advancing the procedure in Europe, his work followed Muhe's initial breakthrough. *Eddie Joe Reddick* - **Eddie Joe Reddick** was an American surgeon who, along with Douglas Olsen, was instrumental in popularizing and standardizing laparoscopic cholecystectomy in the United States in the late 1980s. - While not the first to perform the procedure, he played a crucial role in its widespread adoption and refinement. - His contributions were significant but came after Muhe's pioneering work. *Kurt Semm* - **Kurt Semm** was a German gynecologist who significantly advanced laparoscopic surgery in the 1980s, particularly in gynecology. - He developed many laparoscopic instruments and techniques, including the automatic insufflator. - Although a pioneer in laparoscopy, he did not perform the first laparoscopic cholecystectomy.

Question 8: Which of the following is NOT a CONTRAINDICATION for laparoscopic surgery:

A. Severe COPD
B. Bowel herniation
C. Endometriosis (Correct Answer)
D. Severe cardiac compromise

Explanation: ***Endometriosis*** - **Endometriosis** is a *common indication* for laparoscopic surgery, as laparoscopy allows for both diagnosis and treatment (e.g., excision or ablation of endometrial implants). - It is *not* a contraindication; in fact, laparoscopy is the **gold standard** for diagnosing and managing endometriosis due to its minimally invasive nature and excellent visualization. *Severe COPD* - **Severe COPD** is a significant *contraindication* because pneumoperitoneum increases intra-thoracic pressure and elevates the diaphragm, reducing functional residual capacity. - This can cause *hypercarbia*, *hypoxemia*, and respiratory compromise in patients with already limited pulmonary reserve, making general anesthesia and laparoscopy high-risk. *Bowel herniation* - **Incarcerated or strangulated bowel herniation** is generally a *relative contraindication* due to the risk of intestinal injury during trocar insertion or manipulation. - The presence of *adhesions* and compromised bowel can make laparoscopic access challenging, though experienced surgeons may still attempt laparoscopic repair in selected cases. *Severe cardiac compromise* - **Severe cardiac compromise** is a significant *contraindication* because pneumoperitoneum causes increased intra-thoracic pressure, reduced venous return, and increased systemic vascular resistance. - This can lead to decreased *cardiac output*, arrhythmias, and hemodynamic instability, posing substantial risk to patients with severe cardiovascular disease.

Question 9: Structure not forming boundaries of the "Triangle of doom" seen during laparoscopic inguinal hernia surgery dissection is:

A. Spermatic cord vessels
B. Vas deferens
C. Peritoneum
D. Inferior epigastric artery (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Inferior epigastric artery*** - The **inferior epigastric artery** does NOT form a boundary of the **"Triangle of Doom"** during laparoscopic inguinal hernia repair. - Instead, it forms the **lateral boundary of Hesselbach's triangle** and the **medial boundary of the "Triangle of Pain"** (another important anatomical landmark containing the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve and genitofemoral nerve). - The Triangle of Doom is bounded by the **vas deferens medially**, the **spermatic vessels (gonadal vessels) laterally**, and the **peritoneal reflection inferiorly**. *Spermatic cord vessels* - The **spermatic vessels (testicular artery and pampiniform plexus)** form the **lateral boundary** of the **"Triangle of Doom."** - This triangle contains the **external iliac artery and vein**, which pose significant risk of major hemorrhage if injured. - Careful identification of these vessels is crucial to avoid devastating vascular complications. *Vas deferens* - The **vas deferens** forms the **medial boundary** of the **"Triangle of Doom."** - This structure runs within the spermatic cord and must be carefully preserved to prevent male infertility. - Injury to the vas deferens during dissection can result in permanent reproductive consequences. *Peritoneum* - The **peritoneum (peritoneal reflection)** forms the **base/inferior boundary** of the **"Triangle of Doom."** - This serous membrane provides the anatomical floor of the triangle during laparoscopic visualization. - Understanding the peritoneal boundaries helps surgeons safely navigate this high-risk anatomical area.

Question 10: The Chief of laparoscopic surgery asked his assistant to give him a laparoscopic port which has absolutely no chance of "capacitance coupling" during laparoscopic surgery. Which port should the assistant give to the Chief?

A. Metal port with plastic cuff
B. Complete plastic port (Correct Answer)
C. Metal laparoscopic port
D. Partial plastic port

Explanation: **Complete plastic port** - A **complete plastic port** is an **electrical insulator** and thus completely prevents the phenomenon of **capacitance coupling** during laparoscopic surgery. - This is the safest option when electrosurgery is used, as it eliminates the risk of inadvertent energy transfer to surrounding tissues through the trocar. *Metal port with plastic cuff* - While a plastic cuff might offer some insulation, the presence of a **metal outer cannula** still allows for the possibility of charge accumulation and subsequent **capacitance coupling**. - The plastic cuff alone is insufficient to prevent the capacitance effect from the metal shaft, as the internal metal may still induce a charge on nearby conductive objects. *Metal laparoscopic port* - A **metal laparoscopic port** is a **conductor** and is highly susceptible to **capacitance coupling**, transferring stray electrical currents to unintended tissues. - The direct contact of conductive metal with the abdominal wall can create a pathway for current leakage, increasing the risk of **thermal injury**. *Partial plastic port* - Similar to a metal port with a plastic cuff, a **partial plastic port** would still have exposed metal components that can accumulate charge and lead to **capacitance coupling**. - Any exposed metal section can act as an electrode, enabling the unintentional delivery of electrical energy to non-target tissues.

Want unlimited practice?

Get full access to all questions, explanations, and performance tracking.

Start For Free