Head and Neck Surgery — MCQs

Head and Neck Surgery Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 61: Neurofibromatosis is associated with which of the following tumors?

A. Papillary carcinoma
B. Islet cell tumor
C. Pheochromocytoma (Correct Answer)
D. Glucagonoma

Explanation: **Explanation:** **Neurofibromatosis Type 1 (NF1)**, also known as von Recklinghausen disease, is an autosomal dominant neuroectodermal disorder caused by a mutation in the *NF1* gene on chromosome 17. The correct answer is **Pheochromocytoma** because NF1 is part of the classic "neurocutaneous syndromes" that predispose patients to catecholamine-secreting tumors of the adrenal medulla. While the incidence of pheochromocytoma in NF1 patients is relatively low (approx. 1–5%), it is a well-established clinical association that must be screened for if a patient presents with hypertension. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **A. Papillary Carcinoma:** This is the most common thyroid malignancy. It is associated with *FAP (Gardner Syndrome)* or *Cowden Syndrome*, but not typically with Neurofibromatosis. * **B. Islet Cell Tumor & D. Glucagonoma:** These are pancreatic neuroendocrine tumors (NETs). They are classically associated with **Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia Type 1 (MEN1)**, not NF1. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **NF1 Associations:** Lisch nodules (iris hamartomas), Café-au-lait spots, Axillary freckling (Crowe sign), Optic gliomas, and Sphenoid wing dysplasia. * **Pheochromocytoma Rule of 10s:** 10% bilateral, 10% malignant, 10% extra-adrenal (Paraganglioma), and 10% pediatric. * **Other Syndromes with Pheochromocytoma:** MEN 2A, MEN 2B, von Hippel-Lindau (VHL) disease, and Sturge-Weber syndrome. * **Mnemonic for NF1:** "CAFE SPOT" (Café-au-lait, Axillary freckling, Fibromas, Eye [Lisch nodules], Skeletal [Sphenoid dysplasia], Pheochromocytoma, Optic Tumor).

Question 62: In modified neck dissection, surgeons must be careful to avoid shoulder syndrome. All of the following are parts of shoulder syndrome, EXCEPT:

A. Restricted range of movement
B. Pain
C. Shoulder drooping
D. Normal electromyographic finding (Correct Answer)

Explanation: **Explanation:** **Shoulder Syndrome** is a classic complication following neck dissection, primarily caused by injury or sacrifice of the **Spinal Accessory Nerve (CN XI)**. This nerve provides motor innervation to the trapezius muscle, which is essential for stabilizing the scapula and elevating the shoulder. 1. **Why Option D is the Correct Answer:** Since the syndrome is fundamentally a result of denervation of the trapezius muscle, an **Electromyography (EMG)** will show **abnormal findings**, such as denervation potentials (fibrillations) or decreased motor unit recruitment. A "normal" EMG finding is inconsistent with the pathophysiology of nerve injury; hence, it is the "Except" option. 2. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Pain (B):** This is often the most distressing symptom, resulting from the strain on the shoulder joint capsule and rhomboid muscles as they try to compensate for the paralyzed trapezius. * **Shoulder Drooping (C):** Loss of trapezius tone leads to an inferior displacement of the scapula and a visible "drop" of the shoulder on the affected side. * **Restricted Range of Movement (A):** Patients typically struggle with abduction of the arm above 90 degrees because the scapula cannot be rotated upward to support the humeral head. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Modified Radical Neck Dissection (MRND):** Type I preserves the Spinal Accessory Nerve; therefore, Shoulder Syndrome is less common compared to Radical Neck Dissection (RND). * **Nerve Anatomy:** The Spinal Accessory Nerve is most vulnerable at **Erb’s Point** (posterior border of the sternocleidomastoid). * **Clinical Sign:** Look for a "winged scapula" that is displaced laterally and downward (unlike Long Thoracic Nerve palsy, where the scapula moves medially and upward).

Question 63: Trismus in oral cancer patients is most severe in those treated with which of the following modalities?

A. Surgery and Radiotherapy (Correct Answer)
B. Chemotherapy alone
C. Surgery alone
D. Treatment is not related to the severity of trismus

Explanation: ### Explanation **1. Why Surgery and Radiotherapy is Correct:** Trismus (restricted mouth opening) in oral cancer is a multifactorial complication. When **Surgery** is combined with **Radiotherapy (RT)**, the risk and severity of trismus increase significantly due to synergistic tissue damage. * **Surgery** causes mechanical trauma, scarring, and fibrosis of the masticatory muscles (especially the medial pterygoid and masseter) or the temporomandibular joint (TMJ). * **Radiotherapy** induces "Radiation-induced Fibrosis" (RIF). It causes microvascular damage, hypoxia, and the proliferation of myofibroblasts, leading to the progressive shortening and hardening of muscle fibers. The combination leads to extensive **combined fibrosis** of the surgical bed and the surrounding musculature, making it the most severe form. **2. Why Other Options are Incorrect:** * **Chemotherapy alone:** While chemotherapy can cause mucositis and pain (leading to temporary "false trismus"), it does not typically cause the permanent structural fibrosis seen with RT or surgery. * **Surgery alone:** While surgery can cause trismus due to scarring or flap contraction, the absence of radiation means the surrounding healthy tissues retain better elasticity and vascularity, leading to less severe restriction compared to dual therapy. * **Treatment is not related:** This is incorrect as trismus is a well-documented, treatment-dependent side effect in head and neck oncology. **3. Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Definition:** Trismus is generally defined as a mouth opening of **<35 mm**. * **Most common muscle involved:** The **Medial Pterygoid** is the muscle most frequently implicated in radiation-induced trismus. * **TNM Staging:** Trismus in a patient with buccal mucosa cancer often indicates involvement of the masticator space, upgrading the tumor to **T4a**. * **Management:** Prophylactic jaw-stretching exercises (e.g., using Heister’s maneuver or TheraBite) are essential during and after treatment.

Question 64: Delphian lymph nodes act as sentinel lymph nodes in which of the following?

A. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
B. Laryngeal cancer (Correct Answer)
C. Parotid cancer
D. All of the above

Explanation: **Explanation:** The **Delphian lymph nodes** (pre-laryngeal nodes) are located in the midline, sitting on the cricothyroid membrane. They are named after the "Oracle of Delphi" because their enlargement often "prophesies" or predicts the presence of underlying malignancy or significant pathology. **Why Laryngeal Cancer is Correct:** The Delphian nodes receive primary lymphatic drainage from the **subglottic region of the larynx**, the pyriform sinus, and the thyroid gland (specifically the isthmus and upper lobes). In clinical practice, they act as sentinel nodes for laryngeal cancer; their involvement often indicates a higher risk of recurrence and signifies a poor prognosis, frequently necessitating a total laryngectomy and neck dissection. **Why Other Options are Incorrect:** * **Nasopharyngeal Carcinoma:** The primary drainage for the nasopharynx is to the **Retro-pharyngeal nodes** (Nodes of Rouviere) and the upper deep cervical nodes (Level II). * **Parotid Cancer:** The parotid gland drains primarily into the **intra-parotid** and **periparotid nodes**, and subsequently to Level II of the neck. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Location:** Level VI of the cervical lymph nodes (Anterior compartment). * **Drainage:** Larynx (subglottis), Thyroid (isthmus), and Piriform sinus. * **Clinical Significance:** If palpable, they are highly suggestive of **metastatic laryngeal/hypopharyngeal carcinoma** or **papillary thyroid carcinoma**. * **Surgical Note:** Their involvement in thyroid cancer often dictates the need for a central compartment neck dissection.

Question 65: Which of the following statements about salivary gland tumors are true?

A. Pleomorphic adenoma is the most common tumor of the submandibular gland, Acinic cell carcinoma is the most malignant, and Frey's syndrome is due to injury of the auriculotemporal nerve.
B. Pleomorphic adenoma can arise in the submandibular gland, Acinic cell carcinoma is the most malignant, and Frey's tumor arises from the submandibular gland.
C. Pleomorphic adenoma can arise in the submandibular gland, Acinic cell carcinoma is the most malignant, and Frey's syndrome is due to injury of the auriculotemporal nerve. (Correct Answer)
D. Pleomorphic adenoma can arise in the submandibular gland, Acinic cell carcinoma is the most malignant, and Frey's tumor arises from the submandibular gland.

Explanation: This question tests your knowledge of salivary gland pathology and post-operative complications. ### **Analysis of the Correct Answer (Option C)** 1. **Pleomorphic Adenoma (Benign Mixed Tumor):** This is the most common tumor of **all** salivary glands (parotid, submandibular, and minor glands). While most frequent in the parotid, it frequently arises in the submandibular gland. 2. **Acinic Cell Carcinoma:** Among the malignant salivary tumors, Acinic cell carcinoma is historically classified as having the **most malignant potential** in terms of its unpredictable behavior and tendency for late recurrence, though Mucoepidermoid carcinoma is more common overall. 3. **Frey’s Syndrome (Gustatory Sweating):** This occurs due to injury to the **auriculotemporal nerve** (a branch of the mandibular nerve) during parotidectomy. During regeneration, parasympathetic fibers meant for the parotid gland mistakenly innervate the sweat glands of the overlying skin. ### **Why Other Options are Incorrect** * **Option A:** Claims Pleomorphic adenoma is the *most common tumor of the submandibular gland* (True), but the phrasing in Option C is more precise regarding the clinical triad presented. * **Options B & D:** Mention "**Frey’s tumor** arises from the submandibular gland." This is factually incorrect. There is no "Frey's tumor"; the term is **Warthin’s tumor** (Adenolymphoma), which occurs almost exclusively in the **parotid gland**, not the submandibular gland. ### **High-Yield NEET-PG Pearls** * **Most common salivary tumor overall:** Pleomorphic Adenoma. * **Most common malignant salivary tumor:** Mucoepidermoid Carcinoma. * **Most common tumor of the submandibular gland:** Pleomorphic Adenoma. * **Warthin’s Tumor:** Associated with smoking, usually occurs in the tail of the parotid, and is often bilateral/multicentric. * **Adenoid Cystic Carcinoma:** Known for **perineural invasion** and "Swiss-cheese" appearance on histology. * **Frey’s Syndrome Diagnosis:** Confirmed by the **Minor’s Starch-Iodine Test**.

Question 66: Which of the following statements regarding cystic hygroma is FALSE?

A. It is a brilliantly translucent lesion.
B. Surgical excision is the treatment of choice.
C. It is a cystic lesion containing blood-filled spaces. (Correct Answer)
D. Recurrence is common with percutaneous Picibanil therapy.

Explanation: ### Explanation **Cystic Hygroma** is a congenital malformation of the lymphatic system (lymphangioma) where sequestered lymphatic vessels fail to connect with the venous system. **1. Why Option C is the Correct (False) Statement:** Cystic hygroma is a **lymphatic malformation**, not a vascular one. It consists of large, dilated lymphatic spaces lined by endothelium. These spaces are filled with **clear, straw-colored serous fluid**, not blood. If blood is present, it usually indicates secondary hemorrhage or a combined hemangio-lymphangioma. **2. Analysis of Other Options:** * **Option A (True):** Because the lesion contains clear fluid and has very thin walls, it is **brilliantly translucent**. This is a classic clinical sign used to differentiate it from other neck swellings like hemangiomas or dermoid cysts. * **Option B (True):** Historically, **complete surgical excision** is the definitive treatment of choice, especially for localized lesions. However, care must be taken to preserve vital neurovascular structures as the cyst often infiltrates tissue planes. * **Option D (True):** Picibanil (OK-432) is a sclerosing agent. While effective for macrocystic lesions, **recurrence or incomplete resolution** is a known risk with percutaneous sclerotherapy, often requiring multiple sessions or rescue surgery. **3. High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Most Common Site:** Posterior triangle of the neck (left side > right side). * **Clinical Presentation:** Usually present at birth or by age 2; soft, painless, compressible, and brilliantly translucent. * **Association:** Frequently associated with chromosomal anomalies like **Turner syndrome** and **Down syndrome**. * **Complications:** Sudden increase in size due to infection or hemorrhage; respiratory distress if it compresses the airway. * **Management:** Sclerotherapy (e.g., Bleomycin, OK-432) is preferred for large, infiltrative lesions to avoid surgical morbidity.

Question 67: What are the commonly involved lymph nodes during metastasis from carcinomas of the oral cavity?

A. Jugulo omohyoid and jugulo digastric
B. Submandibular and cervical lymph nodes (Correct Answer)
C. Submental and submandibular lymph nodes
D. None of the above

Explanation: **Explanation:** Carcinomas of the oral cavity (most commonly Squamous Cell Carcinoma) primarily spread via the lymphatic system in a predictable, stepwise fashion. The oral cavity is anatomically drained by the **Level I, II, and III** cervical lymph nodes. Specifically, the **submandibular (Level Ib)** and **deep cervical nodes** are the most frequent sites of initial metastasis because they receive direct drainage from the tongue, floor of the mouth, and buccal mucosa. * **Option B is correct** because it encompasses the most frequent primary landing zones. The submandibular nodes (Level Ib) collect lymph from the majority of the oral cavity, which then drains into the internal jugular (cervical) chain. * **Option A is incorrect** because while the Jugulodigastric (Level II) and Jugulo-omohyoid (Level IV) nodes are involved, this option is too specific and misses the crucial Level I (submandibular) nodes, which are usually the first involved in oral cancers. * **Option C is incorrect** because submental nodes (Level Ia) primarily drain only the central lower lip, tip of the tongue, and anterior floor of the mouth. While involved, they do not represent the "common" pathway for the entire oral cavity as broadly as the cervical chain does. **High-Yield NEET-PG Pearls:** * **Level I:** Submental (Ia) and Submandibular (Ib). * **Level II:** Upper Jugular (includes Jugulodigastric node). * **Level III:** Middle Jugular. * **Level IV:** Lower Jugular (includes Jugulo-omohyoid node). * **Skip Metastasis:** Occasionally seen in tongue cancer, where Level III or IV nodes are involved without Level I or II involvement. * **Most common site of distant metastasis:** Lungs.

Question 68: Which nerve lies in association with Wharton's duct?

A. Hypoglossal nerve
B. Facial nerve
C. Lingual nerve (Correct Answer)
D. Vagus nerve

Explanation: **Explanation:** The **Wharton’s duct** (submandibular duct) has a unique and high-yield anatomical relationship with the **Lingual nerve** as it traverses the floor of the mouth. The nerve exhibits a "triple relation" or a "looping" pattern around the duct: it starts lateral to the duct, passes beneath it, and finally ascends medially to reach the tongue. This is often described as the nerve "hooking" or "cradling" the duct. **Analysis of Options:** * **Lingual Nerve (Correct):** As a branch of the mandibular nerve (V3), it provides sensory innervation to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue. Its intimate looping around Wharton’s duct makes it highly susceptible to injury during duct excision or sialolithotomy (stone removal). * **Hypoglossal Nerve (Option A):** While the hypoglossal nerve (CN XII) also runs in the submandibular region, it lies **deep (inferior)** to the submandibular gland and the mylohyoid muscle, further away from the duct's course. * **Facial Nerve (Option B):** The marginal mandibular branch of the facial nerve is related to the superficial surface of the submandibular gland, not the duct itself. * **Vagus Nerve (Option D):** The vagus nerve (CN X) descends within the carotid sheath in the neck and does not have a direct anatomical relationship with the submandibular duct. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **The "Double Cross":** Remember that the lingual nerve crosses the duct twice (lateral to medial). * **Surgical Risk:** During submandibular gland excision, the lingual nerve must be identified and preserved to avoid loss of sensation and taste (via chorda tympani) in the anterior tongue. * **Duct Length:** Wharton’s duct is approximately 5 cm long and opens at the sublingual papilla beside the frenulum of the tongue.

Question 69: Which nerve is commonly injured during a radical neck dissection?

A. Long thoracic nerve
B. Thoracodorsal nerve
C. Dorsal scapular nerve
D. Accessory nerve (Correct Answer)

Explanation: **Explanation:** The **Spinal Accessory Nerve (CN XI)** is the most commonly injured nerve during neck dissections because of its superficial course in the **posterior triangle** of the neck. It emerges from the posterior border of the Sternocleidomastoid (SCM) muscle at Erb’s point and travels across the levator scapulae to supply the Trapezius. In a **Radical Neck Dissection (RND)**, while the SCM, Internal Jugular Vein, and Accessory nerve are intentionally removed, the nerve is also highly vulnerable to accidental injury in Modified Radical or Selective dissections. Injury leads to "Shoulder Syndrome," characterized by shoulder droop, winged scapula (lateral), and inability to abduct the arm above 90 degrees. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **A. Long Thoracic Nerve:** Supplies the Serratus Anterior. It is typically injured during **axillary lymph node dissection** or radical mastectomy, leading to medial winging of the scapula. * **B. Thoracodorsal Nerve:** Supplies the Latissimus Dorsi. Like the long thoracic nerve, it is at risk during **axillary surgery**, not neck surgery. * **C. Dorsal Scapular Nerve:** Supplies the Rhomboids and Levator Scapulae. It arises from the C5 root and lies deep to the prevertebral fascia, making it less susceptible to injury during routine neck dissections compared to CN XI. **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Modified Radical Neck Dissection (MRND):** Type I preserves CN XI; Type II preserves CN XI and IJV; Type III (Functional) preserves all three (CN XI, IJV, and SCM). * **Marginal Mandibular Nerve:** The most common nerve injured during **Submandibular gland excision** or Level IB clearance, causing drooping of the corner of the mouth. * **Cervical Sympathetic Chain:** Injury leads to **Horner’s Syndrome** (Ptosis, Miosis, Anhidrosis).

Question 70: What is the surgical treatment for a parotid tumor involving the deep lobe?

A. Total parotidectomy with facial nerve preservation (Correct Answer)
B. Total parotidectomy with facial nerve sacrifice
C. Subtotal parotidectomy
D. Subtotal parotidectomy with facial nerve sacrifice

Explanation: ### Explanation The parotid gland is anatomically divided into a superficial and deep lobe by the plane of the **facial nerve (CN VII)**. When a tumor involves the deep lobe, the standard surgical approach is a **Total Parotidectomy with Facial Nerve Preservation**. **Why the correct answer is right:** In a total parotidectomy, the surgeon first identifies the facial nerve and its branches. The superficial lobe is removed (superficial parotidectomy), followed by the careful dissection and mobilization of the facial nerve to allow access to the deep lobe. The deep lobe is then removed while keeping the nerve intact. This ensures complete oncological clearance of the tumor while maintaining the functional integrity of the facial muscles. **Why the incorrect options are wrong:** * **Option B & D:** Facial nerve sacrifice is only indicated if the nerve is directly involved by a malignancy (e.g., pre-operative facial palsy or intra-operative evidence of nerve encasement by a high-grade carcinoma). It is not the standard treatment for deep lobe tumors in general. * **Option C:** Subtotal parotidectomy (removing only a portion of the gland) is inadequate for deep lobe tumors as it risks incomplete excision and high recurrence rates. **High-Yield NEET-PG Pearls:** * **Most common parotid tumor:** Pleomorphic Adenoma (can involve the deep lobe, presenting as a parapharyngeal mass). * **Patey’s Operation:** Another name for Modified Radical Parotidectomy (total parotidectomy with preservation of the facial nerve). * **Frey’s Syndrome:** A common post-operative complication caused by aberrant regeneration of auriculotemporal nerve fibers; diagnosed by the **Minor’s Starch-Iodine test**. * **Landmark for Facial Nerve:** The **Tragal pointer** (the nerve is located approximately 1 cm deep and inferior to it).

Practice by Chapter

Salivary Gland Diseases

Practice Questions

Thyroid Gland Disorders

Practice Questions

Parathyroid Gland Disorders

Practice Questions

Neck Masses Evaluation

Practice Questions

Oral Cavity Lesions

Practice Questions

Laryngeal Disorders

Practice Questions

Head and Neck Cancer

Practice Questions

Reconstructive Techniques in Head and Neck Surgery

Practice Questions

Surgical Management of Sleep Apnea

Practice Questions

Airway Management in Head and Neck Surgery

Practice Questions

Surgical Approaches to the Neck

Practice Questions

Neck Dissection Techniques

Practice Questions

Want unlimited practice?

Get full access to all questions, explanations, and performance tracking.

Start For Free