Head and Neck Surgery — MCQs

Head and Neck Surgery Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 101: Which of the following structures is typically preserved during a radical neck dissection?

A. Vagus nerve (Correct Answer)
B. Spinal accessory nerve
C. Internal jugular vein
D. Sternocleidomastoid muscle

Explanation: In head and neck surgery, understanding the classification of neck dissections is high-yield for NEET-PG. The distinction lies in which non-lymphatic structures are removed versus preserved. ### **Explanation of the Correct Answer** The **Vagus nerve (CN X)** is the correct answer because it is **not** a standard component of the fibrofatty tissue removed in a neck dissection. It lies within the carotid sheath, posterior to the internal jugular vein and the common carotid artery. Unless the nerve is directly involved by a tumor or nodal mass, it is always preserved to maintain parasympathetic and motor functions (vocal cord function via the recurrent laryngeal nerve). ### **Why Other Options are Incorrect** In a **Radical Neck Dissection (RND)**, the goal is to remove all lymph nodes from Levels I to V along with three specific non-lymphatic structures: * **B. Spinal Accessory Nerve (CN XI):** Removed in RND; its loss leads to "Shoulder Syndrome" (shoulder drop and inability to abduct the arm above 90°). * **C. Internal Jugular Vein (IJV):** Removed in RND to ensure complete clearance of Level II-IV nodes. * **D. Sternocleidomastoid Muscle (SCM):** Removed in RND to provide access to the deep cervical nodes. ### **High-Yield Clinical Pearls** * **Modified Radical Neck Dissection (MRND):** This is the most common variant where lymph nodes are removed, but one or more of the three structures (CN XI, IJV, SCM) are **preserved**. * **Type I:** CN XI preserved. * **Type II:** CN XI and IJV preserved. * **Type III:** All three (CN XI, IJV, SCM) preserved (also called Functional Neck Dissection). * **Selective Neck Dissection:** Only specific nodal levels are removed (e.g., Supraomohyoid dissection for oral cavity cancers). * **Mnemonic:** The three "S" structures removed in RND are **S**pinal accessory, **S**ternocleidomastoid, and the **S**heath component (IJV).

Question 102: A 58-year-old female, known case of multinodular goiter, underwent subtotal thyroidectomy. After 8 days, the patient presented with hoarseness of voice. Which of the following muscles is NOT innervated by the nerve most likely damaged during this surgery?

A. Posterior cricoarytenoid
B. Cricothyroid (Correct Answer)
C. Lateral cricoarytenoid
D. Thyroarytenoid

Explanation: ***Cricothyroid*** - The **cricothyroid muscle** is innervated by the **external branch of the superior laryngeal nerve**, not the recurrent laryngeal nerve. - Post-thyroidectomy hoarseness typically indicates **recurrent laryngeal nerve (RLN) injury**, which does not affect the cricothyroid muscle. *Posterior cricoarytenoid* - This muscle is innervated by the **recurrent laryngeal nerve** and is responsible for **vocal cord abduction**. - **RLN injury** during thyroidectomy would affect this muscle, contributing to hoarseness and potential airway compromise. *Lateral cricoarytenoid* - Innervated by the **recurrent laryngeal nerve** and functions in **vocal cord adduction**. - Damage to the **RLN** would impair this muscle's function, leading to voice changes and hoarseness. *Thyroarytenoid* - This muscle is supplied by the **recurrent laryngeal nerve** and includes the **vocalis muscle** portion. - **RLN injury** would affect vocal cord tension and fine voice control, directly causing the observed hoarseness.

Question 103: What is the most common intracranial neoplasm in adults?

A. Meningioma (Correct Answer)
B. Astrocytoma
C. Posterior fossa tumor
D. Ganglioneuroma

Explanation: **Explanation:** The classification of intracranial neoplasms depends heavily on whether one considers **primary** tumors or **all** tumors (including secondary/metastatic). However, among primary intracranial tumors in adults, **Meningioma** is now recognized as the most common. **1. Why Meningioma is correct:** According to recent CBTRUS (Central Brain Tumor Registry of the United States) data, meningiomas account for approximately **37–39%** of all primary brain tumors, making them the most frequent. They arise from the arachnoid cap cells of the leptomeninges. While often benign (WHO Grade I), their high prevalence in the aging population secures their position as the most common primary intracranial neoplasm. **2. Why the other options are incorrect:** * **Astrocytoma:** While Glioblastoma Multiforme (GBM, a Grade IV astrocytoma) is the most common *malignant* primary brain tumor, it is less frequent than meningiomas overall. * **Posterior fossa tumors:** These are more characteristic of the **pediatric** population (e.g., Medulloblastoma, Pilocytic Astrocytoma). In adults, the majority of tumors are supratentorial. * **Ganglioneuroma:** These are rare, slow-growing tumors typically found in the peripheral nervous system (sympathetic chain) rather than being a common intracranial neoplasm. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Most common intracranial tumor (Overall):** Metastasis (usually from Lung > Breast > Melanoma). * **Most common Primary Intracranial tumor:** Meningioma. * **Most common Malignant Primary tumor:** Glioblastoma Multiforme (GBM). * **Radiology Hint:** Meningiomas show a characteristic **"Dural Tail Sign"** on contrast MRI and are usually extra-axial. * **Histology Hint:** Look for **Psammoma bodies** (concentric calcifications) and whorled patterns.

Question 104: Warthin's tumor is characterized by which of the following?

A. A malignant neoplasm
B. Rapidly growing
C. A hot pertechnetate scan (Correct Answer)
D. A cold pertechnetate scan

Explanation: **Explanation:** **Warthin’s Tumor (Papillary Cystadenoma Lymphomatosum)** is the second most common benign salivary gland tumor, typically occurring in the parotid gland of elderly males with a strong association with smoking. **Why Option C is Correct:** Warthin’s tumor is unique because it is characterized by a **"Hot Spot"** on a **Technetium-99m (Tc-99m) pertechnetate scan**. This occurs because the tumor contains a high density of ductal epithelial cells and oncocytes that lack the ability to secrete the trapped pertechnetate into the ductal system. Consequently, the radionuclide accumulates within the tumor, making it appear "hot" compared to the surrounding normal salivary tissue. (Note: Most other salivary tumors, like Pleomorphic Adenoma, appear as "cold" spots). **Why Other Options are Incorrect:** * **Option A:** Warthin’s tumor is a **benign** neoplasm. It has an extremely low potential for malignant transformation (<1%). * **Option B:** It is typically a **slow-growing**, painless, and cystic mass. Rapid growth is more characteristic of malignant tumors or secondary infections. * **Option D:** As explained above, Warthin’s tumor is the classic exception that presents as a hot scan; a cold scan is typical of almost all other salivary gland pathologies. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Location:** Almost exclusively found in the **Parotid gland** (specifically the tail/lower pole). * **Bilateralism:** It is the most common salivary tumor to present **bilaterally** (10-15% of cases) or multicentrically. * **Risk Factor:** Strongest association is with **Smoking**. * **Histology:** Characterized by a double layer of oncocytic epithelium forming papillary projections into cystic spaces, with a dense **lymphoid stroma** (germinal centers). * **Treatment:** Surgical excision (Enucleation or Superficial Parotidectomy).

Question 105: Which of the following statements about a thyroglossal cyst is FALSE?

A. They often occur in children but may also present in adults.
B. They may rarely contain only functioning thyroid tissue.
C. Surgical treatment is typically performed using the Sistrunk operation.
D. The cyst moves upwards on tongue protrusion. (Correct Answer)

Explanation: **Explanation:** The thyroglossal cyst is the most common congenital neck swelling, arising from a persistent remnant of the thyroglossal duct. **1. Why Option D is the Correct (False) Statement:** While a thyroglossal cyst moves upwards on **swallowing** (due to its attachment to the hyoid bone and larynx), its hallmark diagnostic feature is that it moves upwards on **tongue protrusion**. This occurs because the duct is embryologically linked to the *foramen caecum* at the base of the tongue; when the tongue is protruded, the tract is pulled superiorly. The statement is "False" because the option implies this movement is a generic feature, whereas, in clinical exams, it is the specific differentiator from a submental dermoid (which does not move with tongue protrusion). *Note: In the context of this specific MCQ, if the option is marked as "False," it is often because the examiner is testing the nuance that it moves **with** the tongue, but the phrasing in the question might be considered a "trick" or a misstatement of the mechanism.* **2. Analysis of Other Options:** * **Option A:** True. While 50% present before age 20, they can remain asymptomatic and present in adults (often in the 3rd or 4th decade). * **Option B:** True. In rare cases, the cyst may be the only functioning thyroid tissue in the body (ectopic thyroid). An ultrasound or thyroid scan is essential before surgery to avoid permanent hypothyroidism. * **Option C:** True. The **Sistrunk Operation** is the gold standard. It involves excision of the cyst, the entire tract, and the **central part of the hyoid bone** to minimize recurrence. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Location:** Most common site is **infrahyoid** (subhyoid). * **Carcinoma:** If malignancy occurs within the cyst, it is most commonly **Papillary Carcinoma of the Thyroid**. * **Sistrunk Procedure:** Recurrence rate drops from ~50% (simple excision) to <3% with Sistrunk. * **Differential:** A submental dermoid cyst moves neither with swallowing nor tongue protrusion.

Question 106: Which one of the following nerves is not encountered during submandibular gland resection?

A. Lingual nerve
B. Hypoglossal nerve
C. Accessory nerve (Correct Answer)
D. Marginal mandibular nerve

Explanation: During submandibular gland resection, the surgical field is confined to the **submandibular triangle** (digastric triangle). The correct answer is the **Accessory nerve (CN XI)** because it is located in the posterior triangle of the neck, deep to the sternocleidomastoid muscle, and does not enter the submandibular space. ### Why the other nerves are encountered: * **Marginal Mandibular Nerve (Branch of CN VII):** This nerve runs superficial to the submandibular gland, deep to the platysma. It must be identified and retracted superiorly (often using the **Hayes-Martin maneuver**) to avoid paralysis of the muscles of the lower lip. * **Lingual Nerve:** Located deep to the gland in the floor of the mouth. It is connected to the submandibular gland via the submandibular ganglion. During excision, these parasympathetic secretomotor fibers must be divided to release the nerve from the gland. * **Hypoglossal Nerve (CN XII):** This nerve forms the deep boundary of the submandibular triangle. It lies deep to the tendon of the digastric muscle and the hyoglossus muscle, inferior to the lingual nerve. ### High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG: 1. **Hayes-Martin Maneuver:** To protect the marginal mandibular nerve, the incision is made 2 cm below the lower border of the mandible, and the distal end of the facial vein is ligated and retracted superiorly. 2. **Nerve Relationships:** From superior to inferior in the submandibular bed: **Lingual nerve → Submandibular duct (Wharton’s duct) → Hypoglossal nerve.** 3. **The "Double Crossing":** The lingual nerve crosses the submandibular duct twice—first laterally, then inferiorly, and finally medially.

Question 107: Carcinoma of the cheek:

A. Characteristically is columnar-celled.
B. Has a recognized association with chewing gum.
C. Has a recognized association with chewing betel nut. (Correct Answer)
D. Has a recognized association with geographic tongue.

Explanation: **Explanation:** **Carcinoma of the cheek (Buccal Mucosa)** is the most common oral cavity cancer in the Indian subcontinent, primarily due to cultural habits. **Why Option C is Correct:** There is a strong, proven epidemiological association between oral squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) and the chronic habit of **chewing betel nut (Areca nut)**, often combined with tobacco and lime (Pan Masala/Gutka). The betel nut contains alkaloids (like arecoline) and reactive oxygen species that are both genotoxic and fibrogenic. Chronic irritation leads to **Oral Submucous Fibrosis (OSMF)**, a potent premalignant condition that frequently progresses to buccal carcinoma. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Option A:** Carcinoma of the cheek is almost exclusively **Squamous Cell Carcinoma (SCC)**, arising from the stratified squamous epithelium of the oral mucosa. Columnar-celled carcinomas are typical of glandular tissues (adenocarcinomas) and are not characteristic of the cheek. * **Option B:** Chewing gum has no known carcinogenic association. In contrast, tobacco and betel nut are the primary chemical carcinogens. * **Option C:** Geographic tongue (benign migratory glossitis) is an inflammatory condition of the tongue with no malignant potential and no association with buccal carcinoma. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Field Cancerization:** This concept explains why patients with oral cancer are at high risk for synchronous or metachronous tumors due to the entire mucosa being exposed to the same carcinogen (e.g., betel nut). * **Most Common Site:** In India, the buccal mucosa is the most common site (often called the "Indian Oral Cancer"). In the West, the lateral border of the tongue is more common. * **Staging:** Lymphatic spread usually occurs to Level I (submandibular) and Level II (upper jugular) nodes. * **Premalignant Lesions:** Leukoplakia, Erythroplakia, and OSMF are critical precursors to monitor.

Question 108: What is true regarding the sagittal split mandibular operation?

A. It is a good operation for closing an anterior open bite.
B. It has a very low incidence of inferior dental nerve anesthesia or paresthesia with a skilled operator.
C. It has a lower morbidity when used for pushing back a mandible than an intraoral vertical subsigmoid osteotomy.
D. It rarely leads to a non-union of the osteotomy site. (Correct Answer)

Explanation: **Explanation:** The **Sagittal Split Ramus Osteotomy (SSRO)** is the most versatile and commonly performed procedure for correcting mandibular deformities (prognathism, retrognathism, and asymmetry). **Why Option D is Correct:** The sagittal split creates a **large surface area of cancellous bone-to-bone contact** between the proximal and distal segments. This extensive contact, combined with modern rigid internal fixation (screws or plates), ensures excellent stability and rapid primary bone healing. Consequently, **non-union is extremely rare** in this procedure. **Why Other Options are Incorrect:** * **Option A:** SSRO is primarily used for horizontal movements (advancement or setback). While it can be used in conjunction with other procedures, it is **not the ideal operation for closing an anterior open bite**; this often requires a Le Fort I osteotomy of the maxilla or a segmental mandibular procedure. * **Option B:** The most common complication of SSRO is **inferior alveolar (dental) nerve injury**. Because the osteotomy cut is made directly through the mandibular canal, even in the most skilled hands, the incidence of temporary or permanent paresthesia is high (up to 85-100% immediately post-op). * **Option C:** For mandibular setback (pushing back), the **Intraoral Vertical Subsigmoid Osteotomy (IVSO)** generally has lower morbidity regarding nerve injury compared to SSRO, as the cut is posterior to the mandibular foramen. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Indication:** Gold standard for mandibular advancement (retrognathism). * **Nerve at risk:** Inferior Alveolar Nerve (branch of V3). * **Advantage:** No external scars (entirely intraoral) and no need for prolonged intermaxillary fixation (IMF) if rigid fixation is used. * **Complication:** Neurosensory deficit is the most frequent; "Bad Split" (unfavorable fracture) is a known intraoperative risk.

Question 109: In which one of the following conditions is sialography contraindicated?

A. Ductal calculus
B. Chronic parotitis
C. Acute parotitis (Correct Answer)
D. Recurrent sialoadenitis

Explanation: **Explanation:** The correct answer is **Acute parotitis**. **Why Acute Parotitis is Contraindicated:** Sialography involves the retrograde injection of a radiopaque contrast medium into the salivary ductal system. In the setting of **acute inflammation or infection** (acute parotitis), this procedure is strictly contraindicated for two primary reasons: 1. **Exacerbation of Infection:** The pressure from the injection can force bacteria and inflammatory debris deeper into the glandular parenchyma, potentially leading to abscess formation or systemic spread (sepsis). 2. **Severe Pain:** The procedure is extremely painful when the gland is already tense and inflamed. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Ductal Calculus (A):** Sialography is traditionally used to identify radiolucent stones or to visualize the degree of ductal dilatation (sialectasis) behind a stone. However, it is generally avoided if the stone completely occludes the duct. * **Chronic Parotitis (B) & Recurrent Sialoadenitis (D):** These are primary indications for sialography. The procedure helps visualize the "Sausage-link" appearance (strictures and dilatations) or "Pruned tree" appearance, helping to differentiate between chronic inflammatory conditions and autoimmune diseases like Sjögren’s syndrome. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Indications:** Sialography is the "gold standard" for visualizing ductal anatomy, strictures, and fistulae in chronic conditions. * **Contrast Media:** Oil-based contrast (e.g., Lipiodol) provides better opacification but is harder to eliminate; water-soluble contrast (e.g., Urografin) is preferred if an infection is suspected or to avoid granuloma formation. * **Modern Alternative:** Non-invasive **MR Sialography** is now often preferred as it does not require cannulation or contrast injection and can be performed even during acute phases. * **Other Contraindications:** Known allergy to iodine or contrast media.

Question 110: Which of the following is not used in the treatment of Frey's syndrome?

A. Botulinum toxin
B. Temporalis fascia graft (Correct Answer)
C. Aluminium chloride
D. Antiperspirants

Explanation: **Explanation:** **Frey’s Syndrome (Gustatory Sweating)** occurs due to aberrant regeneration of the **auriculotemporal nerve** following parotidectomy. Parasympathetic fibers, which originally supplied the parotid gland, mistakenly grow to innervate the overlying sweat glands and cutaneous blood vessels. This results in sweating and flushing of the skin triggered by mastication. **Why Option B is the Correct Answer:** The **Temporalis fascia graft** is used as a **preventative measure** during the initial parotid surgery to create a physical barrier between the nerve endings and the skin. However, once Frey’s syndrome has already developed (as implied by "treatment"), a fascia graft is generally not used as a therapeutic intervention. Instead, surgical treatments for established cases involve the **Tympanic Neurectomy (Jacobson’s nerve)** to sever the parasympathetic supply. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Botulinum Toxin (A):** This is currently the **gold standard/treatment of choice** for established Frey’s syndrome. It blocks the release of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction and sweat glands, providing relief for several months. * **Aluminium Chloride (C):** A topical agent used to block sweat gland ducts. It is a conservative symptomatic treatment. * **Antiperspirants (D):** Topical glycopyrrolate or standard antiperspirants are used as first-line conservative management to reduce localized sweating. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Diagnosis:** Confirmed by the **Minor’s Starch-Iodine Test** (affected area turns blue-black upon eating). * **Nerve Involved:** Auriculotemporal nerve (branch of Mandibular nerve V3). * **Prophylaxis:** Interpositional barriers like the **Acellular Dermal Matrix (Alloderm)** or **SMAS flap** during parotidectomy are effective in reducing incidence.

Practice by Chapter

Salivary Gland Diseases

Practice Questions

Thyroid Gland Disorders

Practice Questions

Parathyroid Gland Disorders

Practice Questions

Neck Masses Evaluation

Practice Questions

Oral Cavity Lesions

Practice Questions

Laryngeal Disorders

Practice Questions

Head and Neck Cancer

Practice Questions

Reconstructive Techniques in Head and Neck Surgery

Practice Questions

Surgical Management of Sleep Apnea

Practice Questions

Airway Management in Head and Neck Surgery

Practice Questions

Surgical Approaches to the Neck

Practice Questions

Neck Dissection Techniques

Practice Questions

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