General Surgery Principles — MCQs

General Surgery Principles Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 941: What is Cock's peculiar tumor?

A. Ulceration of a sebaceous cyst (Correct Answer)
B. Calcifying epithelioma (Pilomatrixoma)
C. Mesothelioma of the pleura
D. Osteomyelitis of the skull

Explanation: ***Ulceration of a sebaceous cyst*** - **Cock's peculiar tumor** is an older term used to describe a **neglected**, **infected**, and **ulcerating sebaceous cyst** that has eroded through the skin. - Over time, these cysts can become secondarily infected and inflamed, leading to rupture and the formation of a chronic ulcer. *Calcifying epithelioma (Pilomatrixoma)* - This is a **benign tumor** of the hair matrix, presenting as a firm, solitary nodule, most common in the head and neck. - It is characterized by **calcification** and is not typically associated with ulceration as a primary feature, nor does it originate from a sebaceous cyst. *Mesothelioma of the pleura* - This is a **malignant tumor** arising from the mesothelial cells lining the pleura, often associated with **asbestos exposure**. - It is an internal malignancy affecting the lungs and pleura, completely unrelated to skin lesions or sebaceous cysts. *Osteomyelitis of the skull* - This is an **infection of the bone** in the skull, usually caused by bacteria, leading to bone destruction and inflammation. - While it can present with swelling and pain, it is a primary bone infection and not related to sebaceous cysts or skin lesions.

Question 942: Closure for clean wounds within 6 hours of injury is called.

A. Primary closure (Correct Answer)
B. Delayed primary closure
C. Secondary closure
D. Tertiary closure

Explanation: ***Primary closure*** - **Primary closure** is the immediate closure of a wound, typically within **6 hours** of injury, for **clean wounds** at low risk of infection. - This method promotes direct apposition of wound edges, leading to **faster healing** and **minimal scarring**. *Delayed primary closure* - This involves leaving a wound open for **4-6 days** to monitor for infection or edema, then closing it if conditions are favorable. - It is often used for **contaminated wounds** or those with a higher risk of infection, where immediate closure is not safe. - Also known as **tertiary closure**. *Secondary closure* - **Secondary closure**, or healing by secondary intention, occurs when a wound is left open and allowed to **heal naturally by granulation, contraction, and epithelialization**. - This method is used for **heavily contaminated** or **infected wounds** and results in a larger scar and a longer healing time. *Tertiary closure* - **Tertiary closure** is another term for **delayed primary closure**. - It involves leaving a wound open initially, then closing it after several days (typically 4-6 days) once the risk of infection has decreased. - This option is incorrect because the question asks about closure **within 6 hours**, not delayed closure.

Question 943: Wound strength is 70% after how many weeks?

A. 1 week
B. 4 weeks
C. 24 weeks
D. 12 weeks (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***3 months*** - Wound strength typically reaches **70%** of its maximum after approximately **3 months** post-surgery or injury [1]. - After this period, collagen formation and remodeling lead to significant strength improvement in the healing tissue [1]. *6 months* - By **6 months**, wound strength may exceed **70%**, but **70%** is achieved around **3 months**. - This option suggests a longer timeframe than necessary for initial strength recovery. *1 week* - At **1 week**, wound strength is quite low, usually around **10%** [1], with ongoing processes of healing and inflammation. - Insufficient time has elapsed for substantial collagen synthesis or remodeling, making this option inaccurate. *1 month* - While some improvement occurs by **1 month**, wound strength is still below **70%** at this stage, often around **30-50%** [1]. - Wound healing progresses significantly in the subsequent weeks, emphasizing the need for a longer recovery period to achieve 70% strength [1]. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Inflammation and Repair, pp. 119-121.

Question 944: Rapid polymerization with high intensity light will:

A. No effect on bond strength
B. Initial increase followed by a decrease in bond strength
C. Decrease bond strength by increasing stresses (Correct Answer)
D. Increase bond strength by decreasing stresses

Explanation: ***Decrease bond strength by increasing stresses*** - Rapid polymerization with **high-intensity light** leads to a **faster gel point conversion** and a rapid increase in viscosity. - This rapid setting traps internal stresses within the **polymerized material** due to **volumetric shrinkage**, preventing proper stress relief and leading to higher internal stresses, which ultimately **reduces bond strength**. *Increase bond strength by decreasing stresses* - This statement is incorrect because rapid polymerization during high-intensity light curing causes a rapid increase in **polymerization shrinkage stress**. - **Increased stresses** within the material will tend to **reduce bond strength**, not increase it, as the material is less able to relax these stresses. *No effect on bond strength* - This is incorrect as the **rate of polymerization** directly influences the development of **stress** within the composite material. - **High-intensity light curing** affects the **kinetics of polymerization**, leading to significant changes in **mechanical properties** like bond strength. *Initial increase followed by a decrease in bond strength* - While there is an initial increase in **mechanical properties** as the material polymerizes, the **high stress levels** generated by rapid polymerization with high intensity light cause a net decrease in the **ultimate bond strength**. - The rapid formation of a **cross-linked network** under high intensity light creates a stiff material that cannot effectively relieve internal stresses, leading to **weakened bonds**.

Question 945: Tracheostomy is typically performed between which tracheal rings?

A. 7th-8th tracheal rings
B. 2nd-3rd tracheal rings (Correct Answer)
C. 5th-6th tracheal rings
D. 1st tracheal ring

Explanation: ***2nd-3rd tracheal rings*** - The space between the **2nd and 3rd tracheal rings** is the **most common and preferred site** for performing a tracheostomy. - This location provides optimal balance between ease of access and safety, minimizing risk of damage to the **cricoid cartilage** superiorly while avoiding larger vascular structures inferiorly. - This standard placement reduces complications including subglottic stenosis and major vessel injury. - Most surgical textbooks and guidelines recommend this as the **ideal anatomical site** for elective tracheostomy. *1st tracheal ring* - Performing a tracheostomy at the level of the **first tracheal ring** is generally avoided as it is too high and carries significant risk of damaging the **cricoid cartilage** and affecting the **larynx**. - This high placement can lead to **subglottic stenosis** and voice complications. *5th-6th tracheal rings* - A tracheostomy performed between the **5th and 6th tracheal rings** is considered too low and increases the risk of complications. - This deep approach may encounter surrounding vascular structures and is generally not recommended for standard tracheostomy procedures. *7th-8th tracheal rings* - Performing a tracheostomy between the **7th and 8th tracheal rings** is too low and increases the risk of entering the **mediastinum** or damaging the **innominate artery** or other major vessels. - This deeper dissection can lead to significant bleeding and other serious complications.

Question 946: Which hernia repair technique emphasizes tension-free repair with mesh reinforcement?

A. Bassini's repair
B. Darning repair
C. Stoppa's preperitoneal repair
D. Lichtenstein mesh repair (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Lichtenstein mesh repair*** - This technique is considered the gold standard for **inguinal hernia repair** due to its emphasis on a **tension-free approach** using a synthetic mesh. - The mesh reinforces the posterior wall of the inguinal canal without putting tension on the surrounding tissues, significantly reducing recurrence rates. *Stoppa's preperitoneal repair* - This is a **preperitoneal repair** technique that uses a large piece of mesh placed in the preperitoneal space to cover bilateral hernias or recurrent hernias, but it's not the primary technique for emphasizing tension-free repair *with mesh* for standard inguinal hernias in the same way Lichtenstein is. - It involves a larger dissection and is typically reserved for more complex cases. *Bassini's repair* - This is a **tension repair** technique where the conjoined tendon is sutured to the inguinal ligament. - It does not involve mesh and is associated with higher recurrence rates and postsurgical pain due to the tension on the tissues. *Darning repair* - This is another **tension repair** technique that involves suturing various muscular and aponeurotic layers together to reinforce the hernia defect. - Like Bassini's repair, it does not use mesh and relies on suturing native tissues under tension, leading to increased recurrence rates and patient discomfort.

Question 947: Which type of amputation is depicted in the provided image?

A. Krukenberg's (Correct Answer)
B. Chopart's
C. Syme's amputation
D. Lisfranc amputation

Explanation: ***Krukenberg's*** - The image clearly depicts an upper limb with the **radius and ulna separated**, creating a pincer-like grasp, which is the hallmark of a Krukenberg's amputation. - This type of amputation is a unique surgical procedure that converts a forearm stump into a **functional forceps-like grip**, allowing for prehension and tactile sensation. *Chopart's* - This is a **partial foot amputation** that involves disarticulation through the midtarsal joint (talonavicular and calcaneocuboid joints). - It would not result in the distinct forearm morphology seen in the image. *Syme's amputation* - A Syme's amputation is an **ankle disarticulation** where the foot is removed at the ankle joint, but the heel pad is preserved and used to cover the distal tibia. - This procedure is performed on the lower limb, not the upper limb as shown. *Lisfranc amputation* - A Lisfranc amputation is a **disarticulation of the foot** through the tarsometatarsal joints, removing the toes and metatarsals while preserving the tarsal bones. - Like Chopart's and Syme's, this is a lower limb amputation and does not match the image.

Question 948: Most important early postoperative complication of ileostomy:

A. Necrosis (Correct Answer)
B. Prolapse
C. Obstruction
D. Diarrhea

Explanation: ***Necrosis*** - Stomal **necrosis** can occur early postoperatively due to issues with **blood supply** to the ileum, often caused by excessive tension on the mesentery or improper creation of the stoma. - This complication can lead to severe issues like perforation and sepsis if not promptly identified and managed. *Obstruction* - While **obstruction** can occur after ileostomy, it is typically a **delayed complication** often caused by adhesions, internal herniation, or food bolus impaction. - Early postoperative obstruction is less common unless there's an immediate surgical issue like a twisted loop or stricture. *Prolapse* - **Stoma prolapse**, where the bowel telescopes out through the stoma, is usually a **late complication** that develops over time due to weakened abdominal wall muscles or increased intra-abdominal pressure. - It is rarely seen in the immediate postoperative period without predisposing factors. *Diarrhea* - **High-output stoma** (sometimes referred to as diarrhea in general terms) is a common early postoperative issue, but it is considered a **physiological response** rather than a complication. - This is due to the lack of colonic absorption, leading to unformed stools and potential electrolyte imbalances, but it's not a direct surgical complication in the same way necrosis is.

Question 949: The most common wavelength of a diode laser used in medical applications is:

A. 630 nm
B. 810 nm (Correct Answer)
C. 670 nm
D. 520 nm

Explanation: ***810 nm*** - **810 nm** is the **most common wavelength** for medical diode lasers used in clinical practice. - This wavelength provides **optimal melanin absorption** while maintaining good tissue penetration, making it ideal for **hair removal**, **vascular lesions**, and **soft tissue surgery**. - The 810 nm diode laser offers an excellent balance between **efficacy** and **safety**, with predictable tissue interaction and minimal collateral thermal damage. - It is widely used in **dermatology**, **ophthalmology**, and **general surgery** for various ablative and coagulative procedures. *670 nm* - 670 nm lasers are used primarily in **low-level laser therapy (LLLT)** or photobiomodulation for wound healing and pain management. - While therapeutically useful, this wavelength represents a **specialized application** rather than the most common general medical diode laser wavelength. - Its superficial penetration limits its use in deeper tissue procedures. *630 nm* - 630 nm lasers are specifically used for **photodynamic therapy (PDT)** where they activate photosensitizers for treating certain cancers and skin conditions. - This is a **highly specialized application** with disease-specific utility, not the most prevalent wavelength for general diode laser applications. - Its clinical use is restricted to light-activated drug therapies rather than direct tissue interaction. *520 nm* - 520 nm (green light) lasers are strongly absorbed by **hemoglobin**, making them useful for **vascular lesions** such as port-wine stains and telangiectasias. - However, this wavelength is **less commonly used** overall compared to near-infrared wavelengths like 810 nm. - Its limited penetration depth and specific target chromophore restrict its broader application in medical practice.

Question 950: A 70-year-old man presents with chest pain, diagnosed with coronary disease, and concurrently detected asymptomatic gallstones on ultrasonography. What is the most appropriate management strategy for gallstones in this patient?

A. Open cholecystectomy
B. Laparoscopic cholecystectomy
C. Oral dissolution agents
D. Conservative management with monitoring (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Conservative management with monitoring*** - Asymptomatic gallstones generally do not require surgical intervention due to the low risk of developing symptoms or complications and the potential risks of surgery in an elderly patient with **coronary artery disease**. - **Monitoring** for the development of symptoms such as biliary colic, cholecystitis, or pancreatitis is the recommended approach. *Open cholecystectomy* - This is a more invasive surgical procedure with a longer recovery time and higher risks compared to laparoscopic cholecystectomy. - It is typically reserved for complex cases or when laparoscopic surgery is contraindicated, neither of which applies to asymptomatic gallstones. *Laparoscopic cholecystectomy* - While this is the standard surgical treatment for **symptomatic gallstones**, it is not indicated for asymptomatic gallstones. - Performing elective surgery in an elderly patient with **coronary artery disease** for an asymptomatic condition would expose them to unnecessary surgical risks. *Oral dissolution agents* - These agents (e.g., **ursodeoxycholic acid**) are primarily effective for dissolving small, cholesterol-rich gallstones. - They have a low success rate, require prolonged treatment, and gallstones often recur after treatment cessation, making them unsuitable for routine management of asymptomatic gallstones.

Practice by Chapter

Wound Healing and Care

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Surgical Infections

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Fluid and Electrolyte Management

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Nutrition in Surgical Patients

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Hemostasis and Blood Transfusion

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Surgical Instruments and Equipment

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Sutures and Stapling Devices

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Minimal Access Surgery Principles

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Surgical Complications

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Anesthesia Principles for Surgeons

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Surgical Oncology Principles

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Evidence-Based Surgery

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