General Surgery Principles Practice Questions

Q: Risk of Clostridium difficile infection increases with the use of which of the following medications?

Ciprofloxacin. **Explanation:** **Clostridium difficile Infection (CDI)** is a leading cause of healthcare-associated diarrhea, typically occurring when the normal colonic flora is disrupted, allowing *C. difficile* to proliferate and release toxins (Toxin A and B). **1. Why Ciprofloxacin is correct:** Fluoroquinolones, such as **Ciprofloxacin**, are among the highest-risk antibiotics for inducing CDI. They have a broad spectrum of activity that significantly alters the gut microbiome. In recent years, the emergence of the hypervirulent **NAP1/BI/027 strain** of *C. difficile* has been specifically linked to fluoroquinolone use, as this strain is highly resistant to these drugs. Other high-risk antibiotics include Clindamycin, Cephalosporins (2nd/3rd gen), and broad-spectrum Penicillins. **2. Why the other options are incorrect:** * **Metronidazole (B):** Historically the first-line treatment for mild-to-moderate CDI. While any antibiotic can theoretically predispose a patient to CDI, Metronidazole is used to treat it, not typically cited as a primary risk factor. * **Vancomycin (C):** Oral Vancomycin is the current first-line treatment for CDI (all severities). It is not absorbed systemically and acts locally in the gut to eliminate *C. difficile*. * **Teicoplanin (D):** A glycopeptide similar to Vancomycin, sometimes used as an alternative treatment for CDI in specific guidelines. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Most common cause of CDI:** Historically Clindamycin; currently, Cephalosporins and Fluoroquinolones are more frequent triggers due to higher prescription rates. * **Diagnosis:** Stool assay for **GDH (Glutamate Dehydrogenase)** antigen (screening) and **Toxin A/B PCR** (confirmatory). * **Characteristic finding:** **Pseudomembranes** (yellow-white plaques) on colonoscopy. * **Treatment of choice:** Oral Vancomycin or Fidaxomicin. For fulminant cases, use IV Metronidazole plus high-dose oral/rectal Vancomycin.

Q: What is the tensile strength of a wound at different stages?

All of the above. The tensile strength of a wound represents its ability to resist rupture and is primarily determined by the synthesis, cross-linking, and remodeling of **Type I collagen**. Understanding the timeline of wound healing is a high-yield topic for NEET-PG. ### **Explanation of Options:** * **Option A:** At the end of the first week (when sutures are typically removed), the wound is in the early proliferative phase. At this stage, the tensile strength is only about **10%** of that of unwounded skin. This explains why wounds are prone to dehiscence if subjected to excessive tension immediately after suture removal. * **Option B:** There is a rapid increase in strength between weeks 3 and 6. By the **3rd month (90 days)**, the tensile strength reaches approximately **70–80%** of normal skin. * **Option C:** The remodeling phase involves the replacement of Type III collagen with Type I. The rate of strength gain slows down significantly after 3 months, achieving a **plateau**. It is important to note that a scar **never** regains 100% of the original strength of unwounded skin; it maxes out at roughly 80%. ### **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** 1. **Collagen Shift:** During early healing (Day 3-7), Type III collagen predominates. In the remodeling phase, **Type I collagen** becomes dominant. 2. **Maximum Strength:** A healed wound reaches its maximum strength at **1 year**, but it remains 20% weaker than original tissue. 3. **Critical Period:** The first 21 days are the most critical for wound support, as collagen synthesis is at its peak. 4. **Vitamin C & Zinc:** Deficiencies in these impair collagen cross-linking, leading to poor tensile strength.

Q: What is this instrument used for?

Ventilation. ***Ventilation*** - This is a **cuffed endotracheal tube** used for maintaining **airway patency** and providing ventilation. - It secures the airway and permits **positive-pressure ventilation** support. *Feeding* - **Feeding tubes** like **Ryle's tube** or **PEG tubes** are flexible, smaller caliber instruments designed for **enteral nutrition**. - This instrument is unsuitable for feeding as it would cause **airway obstruction** and **trauma**. *TURP* - **Transurethral resection of prostate** uses a **resectoscope** with an **electrocautery loop** for tissue removal. - TURP instruments are designed for **urological procedures** through the **urethra**, not for airway management. *Colostomy* - **Colostomy creation** is a surgical procedure involving **bowel anastomosis** and **stoma formation**, not requiring a specific single instrument. - This cuffed endotracheal tube has no role in **gastrointestinal surgery** or **stoma management**.

Q: "Eve's edge" seen in an ulcer is typically associated with which of the following conditions?

Epithelioma. ### Explanation The correct answer is **Epithelioma** (specifically Squamous Cell Carcinoma). **1. Understanding the Concept:** The "edge" of an ulcer refers to the boundary between the ulcer base and the surrounding skin. In **Epithelioma (Squamous Cell Carcinoma)**, the rapid and uncontrolled proliferation of malignant cells at the periphery causes the margin to become thickened and raised. As the growth continues, it spills over the normal skin, creating an **everted (turned outwards) edge**. This characteristic everted appearance is classically referred to as **"Eve's edge."** **2. Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Tuberculosis (Option A):** Characteristically presents with an **undermined edge**. This occurs because the subcutaneous fat is destroyed faster than the overlying skin, leaving a "shelf" of skin hanging over the ulcer base. * **Syphilis (Option B):** A tertiary syphilitic gumma typically produces a **punched-out edge** with a "wash-leather" slough base. The edges are vertical and sharp, as if cut with a punch tool. * **Basal Cell Carcinoma (Option D):** This is characterized by a **rolled-out (pearly/beaded) edge**. Unlike the everted edge of SCC, the BCC edge is firm, translucent, and often has telangiectasia. **3. Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Everted edge:** Squamous Cell Carcinoma (Epithelioma). * **Undermined edge:** Tuberculosis, Pressure sores. * **Punched-out edge:** Syphilis, Trophic ulcers (e.g., Leprosy, Diabetes). * **Rolled-out edge:** Basal Cell Carcinoma (Rodent ulcer). * **Sloping edge:** Healing traumatic or venous ulcer (indicates healthy granulation tissue).

Q: What is the most common site for hypertrophic keloid scars?

Pre-sternal area. **Explanation:** The correct answer is **D. Pre-sternal area.** **Medical Concept:** Keloids are benign overgrowths of fibrous tissue (collagen) that extend beyond the boundaries of the original wound [1]. Their formation is linked to high skin tension and a prolonged inflammatory phase during healing. The **pre-sternal area** is the most common site for keloid formation because the skin in this region is under constant **high tension** due to the underlying bony prominence and the continuous movement of the chest wall during respiration. Other high-risk areas include the deltoid region and the earlobes. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **A. Face:** While keloids can occur on the face (especially the jawline), it is less common than the pre-sternal area. Hypertrophic scars are more frequent here, but they typically remain within the wound margins. * **B. Arm:** The deltoid region of the arm is a common site (often due to vaccinations), but statistically, the pre-sternal area remains the most frequent site reported in clinical literature. * **C. Legs:** The skin on the legs is generally under less constant tension compared to the chest, making keloid formation less frequent in this region. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Histology:** Keloids are characterized by thick, disorganized, "glassy" **Type I and Type III collagen bundles**. * **Demographics:** They are more common in individuals with darker skin pigmentation (African, Asian, and Hispanic populations) [1]. * **Keloid vs. Hypertrophic Scar:** A keloid extends **beyond** the original wound boundaries and rarely regresses, whereas a hypertrophic scar stays **within** the wound boundaries and may regress over time [1]. * **Treatment:** Intralesional corticosteroid injections (Triamcinolone) are the first-line treatment [1]. Surgical excision alone has a high recurrence rate.

Question 1

Risk of Clostridium difficile infection increases with the use of which of the following medications?

Accepted Answer

Ciprofloxacin

Answer

Metronidazole

Answer

Vancomycin

Answer

Teicoplanin

Question 2

When the development of a wound seroma is a potential problem after an appendectomy in an obese patient, what is the best effective method of wound management?

Accepted Answer

Closing the wound with a closed suction drain

Answer

Closing the wound with multiple sutures in the subcutaneous tissue

Answer

Leaving the subcutaneous tissue and skin open to heal by secondary intention

Answer

Closing the wound over a rubber drain

Question 3

What is the tensile strength of a wound at different stages?

Accepted Answer

All of the above

Answer

Is 10% at the time of suture removal (typically 1 week)

Answer

Is 70-80% in the 3rd month

Answer

Achieves plateau in the 3rd month

Question 4

A 49-year-old man suffering from depression attempts suicide by jumping out of the window of his third-floor apartment. He requires multiple operations during a prolonged, complicated hospital stay. Endotracheal intubation is attempted in the ICU but is unsuccessful because of tracheal stenosis, which is attributed to which of the following?

Accepted Answer

Prolonged nasotracheal intubation

Answer

Orotracheal intubation

Answer

Tracheostomy tubes

Answer

High oxygen delivery

Question 5

What is true about abdominal compartment syndrome?

Accepted Answer

Cardiac output is decreased.

Answer

Urine output is increased.

Answer

Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure is decreased.

Answer

Venous return is increased.

Question 6

What is this instrument used for?

Accepted Answer

Ventilation

Answer

Colostomy

Answer

Feeding

Answer

TURP

Question 7

During splenectomy for ITP, at what point is platelet infusion typically given?

Accepted Answer

Immediately after ligating the splenic vein

Answer

Immediately after removal of the spleen

Answer

After the incision is made

Answer

The day after surgery

Question 8

A patient underwent surgery two months ago using a midline incision. Now, the patient requires a second operation. What is the ideal incision to be used for this subsequent procedure?

Accepted Answer

Excising the scar of the previous incision and using the same incision

Answer

A fresh transverse incision

Answer

Using the same incision without excising the old scar

Answer

A paramedian incision

Question 9

"Eve's edge" seen in an ulcer is typically associated with which of the following conditions?

Accepted Answer

Epithelioma

Answer

Tuberculosis

Answer

Syphilis

Answer

Basal cell carcinoma

Question 10

What is the most common site for hypertrophic keloid scars?

Accepted Answer

Pre-sternal area

Answer

Face

Answer

Arm

Answer

Legs

General Surgery Principles — MCQs

General Surgery Principles — MCQs

On this page

Practice by Chapter

Want unlimited practice?