A 35 year old female had laparoscopic ventral hernia repair using polypropylene mesh in January 2015. In June 2015, she is again admitted with features of subacute intestinal obstruction and is managed conservatively. She continues to have recurrent colicky pain after that. Most probably she is suffering from:
All are rare types of lateral hernia of abdominal wall, EXCEPT:
During laparoscopic inguinal hernia repair, in the 'triangle of doom', the following are true EXCEPT:
A 40 year old man, with a history of a reducible left groin swelling of two years, comes with severe pain over left groin. The swelling is now non-reducible and is very tender to touch. The most probable treatment plan for this patient would be:
Heineke‐Mikulicz operation is done for:
Which of the following layers is most important in intestinal anastomosis?
Sengstaken-Blakemore tube is used to control bleeding in:
Mallory-Weiss tear causing haematemesis is seen over:
Paralytic ileus is a type of:
Which one of the following is NOT a surgical modality for management of femoral hernia?
Esophageal Disorders
Practice Questions
Gastric Disorders
Practice Questions
Small Intestine Pathology
Practice Questions
Appendicitis
Practice Questions
Inflammatory Bowel Disease
Practice Questions
Intestinal Obstruction
Practice Questions
Gastrointestinal Bleeding
Practice Questions
Diverticular Disease
Practice Questions
Anorectal Disorders
Practice Questions
Colorectal Neoplasms
Practice Questions
Gastrointestinal Stomas
Practice Questions
Bariatric Surgery Principles
Practice Questions
Get full access to all questions, explanations, and performance tracking.
Scan to download app
Enter your email to get your 85% OFF code and unlock the full NEET PG question bank on the app.