Gastrointestinal Surgery — MCQs
On this page
Aseptic peritonitis is seen in which of the following conditions?
Which of the following are premalignant conditions of the gastrointestinal tract?
What are the commonest sites of intra-abdominal abscess?
An elderly male presents to the Emergency Department following a bout of prolonged vomiting with excessive haematemesis after alcohol ingestion. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Which of the following fistulous conditions gives rise to maximum fluid and electrolyte imbalance?
Sigmoid volvulus rotation occurs in which direction?
What is the most common cause of acute intestinal obstruction?
Which of the following are predisposing factors for Esophageal Carcinoma?
Which is the best method for supplementing nutrition in patients who have undergone massive resection of the small intestine?
What is the surgical treatment for a fissure in ano?
Gastrointestinal Surgery Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 381: Aseptic peritonitis is seen in which of the following conditions?
- A. Iatrogenic or postoperative causes
- B. Gastric perforation
- C. Irritation due to abnormal physiological fluid in the peritoneum (Correct Answer)
- D. Anastomosis leak
Explanation: ### Explanation **Concept Overview:** Peritonitis is classified into two main types based on the initial insult: **Chemical (Aseptic)** and **Infective (Bacterial)**. Aseptic peritonitis occurs when the peritoneum is irritated by sterile but caustic physiological fluids. If left untreated, these cases almost invariably progress to secondary bacterial peritonitis due to transmural migration of gut flora. **Why Option C is Correct:** Aseptic peritonitis is caused by the presence of sterile physiological fluids in the peritoneal cavity that act as chemical irritants. Examples include: * **Bile:** (e.g., ruptured gallbladder or bile duct injury). * **Gastric Juice:** (e.g., early stages of a perforated peptic ulcer). * **Pancreatic Juice:** (e.g., acute pancreatitis). * **Blood:** (e.g., ruptured ectopic pregnancy). * **Urine:** (e.g., intraperitoneal bladder rupture). **Why Other Options are Incorrect:** * **Option A & D:** Iatrogenic causes, postoperative infections, and anastomotic leaks involve the direct introduction of bacteria or the leakage of fecal/enteric contents (which are rich in bacteria) into the peritoneum. These are primary examples of **Infective Peritonitis**. * **Option B:** While a gastric perforation *starts* as chemical peritonitis (due to sterile HCl), it is a clinical "trap." In the context of NEET-PG, "Irritation due to abnormal physiological fluid" is the broader, more accurate definition of aseptic peritonitis, whereas gastric perforation quickly becomes bacterial within 6–12 hours. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Biliary Peritonitis:** Can be "silent" initially but leads to severe dehydration due to the osmotic effect of bile drawing fluid into the peritoneum. * **Starch Peritonitis:** A rare form of aseptic peritonitis caused by talc/starch from surgical gloves (historical but high-yield). * **Most common cause of secondary peritonitis:** Perforation of a hollow viscus (e.g., Appendix > Duodenum). * **Management:** Aseptic peritonitis is a surgical emergency because chemical inflammation destroys the peritoneal basement membrane, facilitating rapid bacterial invasion.
Question 382: Which of the following are premalignant conditions of the gastrointestinal tract?
- A. Ileocecal tuberculosis
- B. Familial polyposis
- C. Villous adenomas
- D. Ulcerative colitis (Correct Answer)
Explanation: **Explanation:** The correct answer is **Ulcerative Colitis (D)**. Chronic inflammation in Ulcerative Colitis (UC) leads to a "dysplasia-carcinoma sequence." The risk of developing Colorectal Cancer (CRC) increases significantly with the duration of the disease (usually after 8–10 years) and the extent of involvement (pancolitis carries a higher risk than left-sided colitis). Unlike sporadic CRC, UC-associated cancers often arise from flat, non-polypoid dysplastic lesions. **Analysis of Options:** * **A. Ileocecal Tuberculosis:** This is a chronic granulomatous infection caused by *Mycobacterium tuberculosis*. While it can cause strictures and malabsorption, it is **not** considered a premalignant condition. * **B. Familial Polyposis (FAP):** While FAP is a hereditary syndrome that inevitably leads to cancer, the question asks for the *condition* itself. In many competitive exams, if "Ulcerative Colitis" is an option, it is highlighted due to the specific inflammatory-mediated malignant transformation. (Note: In some contexts, FAP and Villous adenomas are also premalignant; however, UC is a classic "inflammatory" premalignant condition frequently tested in this format). * **C. Villous Adenomas:** These are types of colonic polyps. While they have the highest malignant potential among adenomatous polyps (up to 40%), they are considered "precursor lesions" rather than systemic "premalignant conditions" of the tract. **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Surveillance in UC:** Colonoscopy surveillance should begin 8 years after the onset of symptoms for pancolitis. * **Risk Factors for Malignancy in UC:** Duration >10 years, early age of onset, presence of Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis (PSC), and backwash ileitis. * **Protective Factors:** 5-ASA (Mesalamine) and folic acid supplementation are thought to reduce the risk of CRC in UC patients.
Question 383: What are the commonest sites of intra-abdominal abscess?
- A. Subphrenic
- B. Paracolic
- C. Pelvis (Correct Answer)
- D. Retroperitoneal
Explanation: **Explanation:** The correct answer is **C. Pelvis**. **Why Pelvis is the correct answer:** Intra-abdominal abscesses are typically the result of localized peritonitis following hollow viscus perforation or post-operative complications. The site of abscess formation is governed by the **gravity-dependent flow of peritoneal fluid**. In both the supine and upright positions, the **pelvis (Rectovesical pouch in males and Pouch of Douglas in females)** is the most dependent part of the peritoneal cavity. Consequently, infected inflammatory exudate naturally tracks down and collects here, making it the most common site for intra-abdominal abscesses. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **A. Subphrenic:** While the subphrenic space is a common site for abscesses (especially after upper GI surgery or gallbladder disease), it is less common than the pelvis because fluid must move against gravity or be directed by the paracolic gutters to reach this area. * **B. Paracolic:** The paracolic gutters serve as "conduits" or pathways for the migration of fluid between the upper and lower abdomen. While fluid passes through them, it rarely stays localized there long enough to form an abscess compared to the terminal reservoirs like the pelvis. * **C. Retroperitoneal:** These are much rarer and usually secondary to specific organ pathology (e.g., pancreatitis, perinephric abscess, or posterior duodenal perforation) rather than general peritoneal contamination. **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Clinical Presentation:** Pelvic abscesses often present with "spurious diarrhea" (mucus discharge) and urinary frequency due to irritation of the rectum and bladder. * **Diagnosis:** Digital Rectal Examination (DRE) is the most important bedside clinical tool; it reveals a boggy, tender mass in the rectovesical/rectouterine pouch. * **Management:** The classic teaching for a pelvic abscess that is "pointing" towards the rectum is **extraperitoneal drainage** via the rectal wall (proctotomy) or vaginal wall (posterior colpotomy).
Question 384: An elderly male presents to the Emergency Department following a bout of prolonged vomiting with excessive haematemesis after alcohol ingestion. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Mallory-Weiss syndrome (Correct Answer)
- B. Oesophageal varices
- C. Gastric cancer
- D. Bleeding disorder
Explanation: **Explanation:** The clinical presentation of hematemesis following repeated episodes of forceful vomiting or retching, particularly after alcohol consumption, is the classic hallmark of **Mallory-Weiss Syndrome (MWS)**. **1. Why Mallory-Weiss Syndrome is correct:** MWS involves a longitudinal mucosal laceration (tear) at the gastroesophageal junction or distal esophagus. The underlying mechanism is a sudden increase in intra-abdominal pressure (due to vomiting, retching, or coughing) against a closed glottis. In this case, the alcohol ingestion led to vomiting, which subsequently caused the tear and the "excessive hematemesis." **2. Why other options are incorrect:** * **Oesophageal Varices:** While common in alcoholics with cirrhosis, variceal bleeding usually presents as sudden, massive, painless hematemesis *without* the preceding history of non-bloody vomiting. * **Gastric Cancer:** This typically presents with chronic symptoms like weight loss, anorexia, and coffee-ground emesis or melena, rather than acute post-emetic hematemesis. * **Bleeding Disorder:** While it can exacerbate bleeding, it would not explain the specific sequence of vomiting followed by hematemesis. **3. NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Location:** Most tears (75%) occur in the gastric mucosa just below the GE junction. * **Diagnosis:** The gold standard is **Upper GI Endoscopy**, which reveals linear mucosal tears. * **Management:** Most cases (approx. 90%) stop bleeding spontaneously with supportive care (IV fluids, PPIs). If persistent, endoscopic therapy (clipping or epinephrine injection) is used. * **Boerhaave Syndrome vs. MWS:** Boerhaave is a *transmural* perforation (full thickness) presenting with severe chest pain and pneumomediastinum (Mackler’s triad), whereas MWS is a *mucosal* tear presenting with bleeding.
Question 385: Which of the following fistulous conditions gives rise to maximum fluid and electrolyte imbalance?
- A. Distal ileal
- B. Gastric
- C. Duodenal (Correct Answer)
- D. Sigmoid
Explanation: **Explanation:** The severity of fluid and electrolyte imbalance in gastrointestinal fistulae is primarily determined by the **volume of output** and the **anatomical location** (High-output vs. Low-output). **Why Duodenal is Correct:** A duodenal fistula (specifically lateral duodenal) is a **high-output fistula** (>500 ml/24 hours). It is uniquely devastating because it involves the loss of a "cocktail" of secretions: gastric juice, bile, and pancreatic enzymes. These secretions are rich in sodium, potassium, and bicarbonate. Because the duodenum is proximal to the primary sites of intestinal reabsorption (the jejunum and ileum), these fluids are lost entirely before the body can reclaim them, leading to rapid dehydration, profound metabolic alkalosis or acidosis, and severe electrolyte depletion. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Gastric (B):** While gastric fistulae involve loss of HCL and can cause metabolic alkalosis, the total volume and electrolyte complexity are generally lower than the combined biliary-pancreatic-duodenal output. * **Distal Ileal (A):** By the time succus entericus reaches the distal ileum, most nutrients and significant amounts of water/electrolytes have already been absorbed. These are typically lower-output fistulae. * **Sigmoid (D):** Colonic fistulae are **low-output** and produce formed or semi-formed stool. The fluid loss is minimal, and the primary concern is usually sepsis or skin excoriation rather than electrolyte imbalance. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Definition:** High-output fistula = >500 ml/day; Low-output = <200 ml/day. * **Management Priority:** The initial priority is always **Fluid and Electrolyte resuscitation**, followed by skin protection and nutritional support (TNP). * **Spontaneous Closure:** High-output fistulae (like duodenal) have the *lowest* rate of spontaneous closure, whereas low-output distal fistulae have the *highest*. * **FRIEND Mnemonic:** Factors preventing fistula closure: **F**oreign body, **R**adiation, **I**nfection/IBD, **E**pithelialization, **N**eoplasia, **D**istal obstruction.
Question 386: Sigmoid volvulus rotation occurs in which direction?
- A. Clockwise
- B. Anticlockwise (Correct Answer)
- C. Both clockwise and anticlockwise
- D. Axial
Explanation: **Explanation:** **1. Why Anticlockwise is Correct:** Sigmoid volvulus occurs when the sigmoid colon twists on its mesenteric axis. In the vast majority of cases, this rotation occurs in an **anticlockwise (counter-clockwise)** direction. This is primarily due to the anatomical orientation of the sigmoid mesocolon. The sigmoid colon is a redundant loop of bowel with a narrow base of attachment at the parietal peritoneum. When it becomes overloaded with feces or gas, the weight causes the loop to fall forward and rotate, typically following an anticlockwise path around the narrow pedicle. **2. Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **A. Clockwise:** While clockwise rotation is theoretically possible, it is extremely rare in the sigmoid colon. Conversely, **Midgut Volvulus** (associated with malrotation) typically occurs in a **clockwise** direction. * **C. Both clockwise and anticlockwise:** This is incorrect because the anatomical constraints and the "Omega loop" configuration of the sigmoid colon favor a consistent anticlockwise torsion. * **D. Axial:** Axial rotation refers to twisting along the longitudinal axis of the bowel itself (common in cecal volvulus). Sigmoid volvulus is a **torsional** volvulus occurring around the mesenteric axis, not the axial axis. **3. Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Predisposing Factors:** A long, redundant sigmoid colon with a narrow mesenteric base (often seen in elderly patients or those with chronic constipation/high-fiber diets). * **Radiological Signs:** Look for the **"Coffee Bean Sign"** or **"Omega Sign"** on X-ray. On a Contrast Enema, it shows the **"Bird’s Beak"** or **"Ace of Spades"** appearance. * **Management:** The initial treatment of choice for a stable patient without gangrene is **Sigmoidoscopic Detorsion** (using a flatus tube). Definitive surgery (Sigmoid colectomy) is performed later to prevent recurrence.
Question 387: What is the most common cause of acute intestinal obstruction?
- A. Small bowel adhesions (Correct Answer)
- B. Intussusception
- C. Tuberculosis
- D. Malignancy
Explanation: **Explanation:** **1. Why Small Bowel Adhesions is Correct:** Intestinal obstruction is a common surgical emergency, and **postoperative adhesions** are the leading cause worldwide, accounting for approximately **60-75%** of all cases of small bowel obstruction (SBO). Adhesions develop following abdominal or pelvic surgery due to peritoneal injury and subsequent fibrin deposition. While the small bowel is involved in the vast majority of these cases, adhesions are a rare cause of large bowel obstruction. **2. Why the Other Options are Incorrect:** * **Intussusception:** This is the most common cause of intestinal obstruction in **infants and children** (typically aged 6 months to 2 years), but it is rare in adults, where it is usually secondary to a lead point like a tumor. * **Tuberculosis:** While abdominal TB is a significant cause of strictures and obstruction in developing countries like India, it remains secondary to adhesions in overall frequency. * **Malignancy:** This is the **most common cause of Large Bowel Obstruction (LBO)**, specifically colorectal cancer. While it can cause SBO via extrinsic compression or peritoneal carcinomatosis, it is less frequent than adhesions. **3. NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Most common cause of SBO:** Adhesions (1st), Hernias (2nd worldwide; 1st in areas with low surgical rates). * **Most common cause of LBO:** Malignancy (1st), Volvulus (2nd). * **Most common site of Volvulus:** Sigmoid colon. * **Classic X-ray finding in SBO:** Multiple air-fluid levels (step-ladder pattern) and dilated small bowel loops (>3 cm). * **Gold standard investigation:** Contrast-Enhanced CT (CECT) of the abdomen.
Question 388: Which of the following are predisposing factors for Esophageal Carcinoma?
- A. Tylosis
- B. Achalasia
- C. Barrett's esophagus (Correct Answer)
- D. Scleroderma
Explanation: **Explanation:** Esophageal carcinoma is broadly categorized into two histological types: **Squamous Cell Carcinoma (SCC)** and **Adenocarcinoma**. **Barrett’s Esophagus (Option C)** is the strongest predisposing factor for **Adenocarcinoma**. It occurs due to chronic Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease (GERD), where the normal stratified squamous epithelium of the lower esophagus undergoes intestinal metaplasia to columnar epithelium. This metaplastic tissue is highly unstable and can progress through low-grade and high-grade dysplasia to invasive adenocarcinoma. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Tylosis (Option A):** This is an autosomal dominant condition characterized by hyperkeratosis of palms and soles. While it is a potent risk factor for **SCC** (nearly 90% lifetime risk), it is not the primary association for the general category of esophageal cancer in most clinical scenarios compared to the rising incidence of Barrett's-related adenocarcinoma. * **Achalasia (Option B):** Chronic stasis of food in the esophagus leads to chronic esophagitis, increasing the risk of **SCC** (usually after 15–20 years), but it is a less common precursor than Barrett's. * **Scleroderma (Option D):** While Scleroderma (Systemic Sclerosis) causes esophageal dysmotility and severe GERD—which can *eventually* lead to Barrett’s—it is considered a secondary cause rather than a direct predisposing factor itself. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Location:** SCC is most common in the **middle third**; Adenocarcinoma is most common in the **lower third**. * **Plummer-Vinson Syndrome:** Associated with SCC of the post-cricoid region. * **Dietary Factors:** Nitrosamines and betel nut chewing are linked to SCC; Obesity and GERD are linked to Adenocarcinoma. * **Investigation of Choice:** Endoscopy with biopsy. * **Staging:** EUS (Endoscopic Ultrasound) is the most accurate for 'T' and 'N' staging.
Question 389: Which is the best method for supplementing nutrition in patients who have undergone massive resection of the small intestine?
- A. Parenteral (Correct Answer)
- B. Enteral
- C. Gastrostomy
- D. All of the above
Explanation: **Explanation:** The question addresses the management of **Short Bowel Syndrome (SBS)**, which occurs following massive resection of the small intestine (typically leaving <200 cm of functional bowel). **Why Parenteral is Correct:** In the immediate postoperative period following massive resection, the remaining intestine lacks the surface area and enzymatic capacity to absorb sufficient macronutrients, micronutrients, and fluids. **Total Parenteral Nutrition (TPN)** is the "gold standard" and the best initial method because it bypasses the non-functional gastrointestinal tract, ensuring systemic delivery of nutrients, preventing malnutrition, and allowing the remaining bowel time to undergo **intestinal adaptation**. **Why Other Options are Incorrect:** * **B. Enteral:** While enteral nutrition is crucial for stimulating bowel adaptation in the long term, it is often insufficient or poorly tolerated in the acute phase due to malabsorption, high stoma output, and severe diarrhea. * **C. Gastrostomy:** This is merely a route for enteral feeding. It does not solve the underlying problem of inadequate absorptive surface area in the small intestine. * **D. All of the above:** Incorrect because Parenteral nutrition is specifically the "best" and most essential method for survival in the initial stages of massive resection. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Definition of SBS:** Functional small bowel length less than **200 cm** in adults. * **Adaptation Phase:** This process can take 1–2 years. The goal is to gradually transition from TPN to enteral/oral feeds. * **Most Critical Site:** Resection of the **Ileocecal valve** and **Ileum** (site for Vitamin B12 and bile salt absorption) leads to worse outcomes than jejunal resection. * **Drug of Choice:** **Teduglutide** (a GLP-2 analogue) is used to enhance intestinal adaptation.
Question 390: What is the surgical treatment for a fissure in ano?
- A. Lateral internal sphincterotomy (Correct Answer)
- B. Fissurectomy
- C. Seton placement
- D. None of the above
Explanation: **Explanation:** The primary pathophysiology of a chronic anal fissure is **internal anal sphincter hypertonicity**, which leads to high resting anal pressure and local ischemia, preventing the ulcer from healing. **1. Why Lateral Internal Sphincterotomy (LIS) is the Correct Answer:** LIS is the **gold standard** surgical treatment for chronic anal fissures that have failed medical management. By dividing the lower portion of the internal sphincter (usually up to the dentate line), the procedure reduces resting anal pressure, improves blood flow to the anoderm, and allows the fissure to heal. It has a high success rate (>95%) and low recurrence. **2. Why the Other Options are Incorrect:** * **Fissurectomy:** This involves excising the fissure track. While sometimes combined with LIS, it does not address the underlying cause (sphincter hypertonicity) and is rarely used as a standalone treatment due to slower healing and higher recurrence. * **Seton Placement:** This is the treatment of choice for **anal fistulae** (specifically high or complex fistulae) to prevent abscess formation and allow gradual tract fibrosis. It has no role in the management of simple anal fissures. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Location:** Most fissures are **posterior midline** (90%). If a fissure is lateral, suspect secondary causes like Crohn’s disease, TB, HIV, or malignancy. * **Clinical Triad (Chronic Fissure):** Deep ulcer, hypertrophied anal papilla (proximal), and sentinel pile/tag (distal). * **Medical Management:** First-line treatment involves high-fiber diet, sitz baths, and topical nitrates (Glyceryl trinitrate) or Calcium Channel Blockers (Diltiazem) to cause "chemical sphincterotomy." * **Complication of LIS:** The most feared long-term complication is **minor fecal or flatus incontinence**.
Practice by Chapter
Esophageal Disorders
Practice Questions
Gastric Disorders
Practice Questions
Small Intestine Pathology
Practice Questions
Appendicitis
Practice Questions
Inflammatory Bowel Disease
Practice Questions
Intestinal Obstruction
Practice Questions
Gastrointestinal Bleeding
Practice Questions
Diverticular Disease
Practice Questions
Anorectal Disorders
Practice Questions
Colorectal Neoplasms
Practice Questions
Gastrointestinal Stomas
Practice Questions
Bariatric Surgery Principles
Practice Questions
Want unlimited practice?
Get full access to all questions, explanations, and performance tracking.
Start For Free