Gastrointestinal Surgery — MCQs

Gastrointestinal Surgery Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 1081: Which procedure is indicated for a patient with Barrett's esophagus and high-grade dysplasia?

A. Photodynamic therapy
B. Proton pump inhibitor therapy
C. Endoscopic mucosal resection (Correct Answer)
D. Esophagectomy

Explanation: ***Endoscopic mucosal resection*** - **Endoscopic mucosal resection (EMR)** is indicated for Barrett's esophagus with **high-grade dysplasia (HGD)** because it allows for the removal of visible lesions and accurate staging, confirming the absence of invasive carcinoma. - It also provides tissue for histopathological examination to ensure that the HGD has been adequately resected and to detect any underlying **adenocarcinoma**. *Photodynamic therapy* - **Photodynamic therapy (PDT)** uses light-activated drugs to destroy dysplastic cells, but it is less commonly used for **HGD** due to higher rates of stricture formation and incomplete eradication compared to modern endoscopic techniques. - While PDT can be effective for flat, multifocal dysplasia, it is generally considered a second-line therapy or for those who cannot undergo resection. *Proton pump inhibitor therapy* - **Proton pump inhibitors (PPIs)** are essential for managing **gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)** symptoms and preventing further progression of Barrett's esophagus, but they do not treat or eradicate existing **high-grade dysplasia**. - While PPIs create a less acidic environment, which can help prevent further injury, they do not remove the dysplastic cells themselves. *Esophagectomy* - **Esophagectomy** is a major surgical procedure involving the removal of part or all of the esophagus; it is typically reserved for patients with **invasive esophageal adenocarcinoma** or multifocal HGD that cannot be treated endoscopically. - The risks associated with esophagectomy, such as anastomotic leaks and strictures, are too high for HGD that can be managed with less invasive endoscopic techniques.

Question 1082: Most common type of Hiatal hernia is

A. Sliding (Correct Answer)
B. Rolling
C. Mixed
D. Type IV

Explanation: ***Sliding*** - **Type I hiatal hernia** is known as a sliding hiatal hernia, where the **gastroesophageal junction** and part of the stomach slide up into the mediastinum. - This is the **most common type**, accounting for over 90% of all hiatal hernias. *Rolling* - **Type II hiatal hernia**, or **paraesophageal hernia**, involves the fundus of the stomach herniating alongside the esophagus through the hiatus while the gastroesophageal junction remains in its normal anatomical position. - It is much **less common** than the sliding type and poses a higher risk of complications like **volvulus** or incarceration. *Mixed* - **Type III hiatal hernia** is a **mixed hernia**, combining features of both sliding and rolling types. - In this type, the **gastroesophageal junction** is displaced into the chest cavity, and another part of the stomach, typically the fundus, herniates next to it. *Type IV* - **Type IV hiatal hernia** is the rarest type, where other abdominal organs such as the **colon, spleen, pancreas, or small bowel** herniate through the diaphragmatic defect along with the stomach. - This type represents a complex hernia with significant risk of complications.

Question 1083: Which of the following statements is NOT true about highly selective vagotomy?

A. Entire gastric reservoir capacity is preserved
B. Nerves of Latarjet are sacrificed (Correct Answer)
C. It is also known as parietal cell vagotomy
D. Recurrence rates are higher than vagotomy and drainage and vagotomy and antrectomy.

Explanation: ***Nerves of Latarjet are sacrificed*** - Highly selective vagotomy (HSV) **preserves the nerves of Latarjet** to maintain pyloric function and gastric emptying. - Sacrificing these nerves would lead to impaired gastric emptying and necessitates a **drainage procedure**, thus transforming it into a truncal or selective vagotomy. *Recurrence rates are higher than vagotomy and drainage and vagotomy and antrectomy* - This statement is **true** because HSV is less complete in denervating the stomach, leading to higher rates of **ulcer recurrence** compared to more extensive vagotomies. - While it has a lower incidence of side effects, its **reduced efficacy** in preventing recurrence is a known trade-off. *Entire gastric reservoir capacity is preserved* - This statement is **true** because HSV specifically denervates only the acid-secreting parietal cell mass, preserving the **innervation to the antrum** and pylorus. - This preservation maintains normal **gastric motility** and reservoir function, preventing post-vagotomy syndromes. *It is also known as parietal cell vagotomy* - This statement is **true** because highly selective vagotomy targets only the nerve branches supplying the **parietal cell-containing** fundus and body of the stomach. - The goal is to reduce acid secretion without affecting the nerves responsible for **gastric emptying** or antral function.

Question 1084: What is the most commonly practiced operative procedure for a perforated duodenal ulcer?

A. Vagotomy and pyloroplasty
B. Vagotomy and antrectomy
C. Vagotomy and perforation closure
D. Graham's omentum patch repair (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Graham's omentum patch repair*** - This procedure involves covering the perforation with a piece of **omentum** secured with sutures, which **seals the defect** and allows healing with subsequent medical management. - It is currently the **most common and preferred operative approach** for perforated duodenal ulcers due to its simplicity, effectiveness, and lower morbidity compared to more extensive procedures. - The procedure is typically followed by **H. pylori eradication** and **proton pump inhibitor therapy** for ulcer healing. *Vagotomy and pyloroplasty* - This was a common procedure in the past, primarily for **recurrent or refractory ulcers** not responding to medical therapy, aiming to reduce acid secretion. - It is **more extensive** than a simple patch repair and carries higher risks, making it less suitable as a first-line treatment for an acute perforation. - With effective modern medical management of ulcers, definitive acid-reducing procedures are rarely needed. *Vagotomy and antrectomy* - This even more extensive procedure involves removing the **antrum of the stomach** and performing a **vagotomy**, significantly reducing acid production. - It was typically reserved for **severe, complicated, or recurrent ulcers** and is rarely performed for acute perforation due to its significant surgical morbidity and the success of medical acid suppression. *Vagotomy and perforation closure* - While closure of the perforation is essential, simply closing it with a vagotomy (without an omental patch) is **not the standard operative procedure**. - The **omental patch is crucial** for reinforcing the repair and reducing leak rates, which simple closure alone does not provide effectively.

Question 1085: Which of the following statements about corrosive injury of the esophagus is incorrect?

A. Acids form liquefactive necrosis (Correct Answer)
B. Alkalis are usually ingested in larger volumes
C. Alkalis cause liquefactive necrosis
D. Acids cause more gastric damage than alkalis

Explanation: ***Acids form liquefactive necrosis*** - This statement is **incorrect** because acids typically cause **coagulative necrosis**, not liquefactive necrosis. - **Coagulative necrosis** creates a firm eschar that limits deeper tissue penetration, making it a self-limiting injury. - This is the key distinguishing feature between acid and alkali injuries. *Alkalis are usually ingested in larger volumes* - This statement is **correct**; alkaline substances lack the immediate burning sensation of acids. - The absence of immediate pain feedback allows patients to ingest **larger quantities** before stopping. - This contributes to more extensive esophageal injury in alkali ingestions. *Alkalis cause liquefactive necrosis* - This statement is **correct**; alkalis cause **liquefactive (colliquative) necrosis** through saponification of fats and protein dissolution. - This type of necrosis allows for **continued deep penetration** into tissue layers. - Liquefactive necrosis is responsible for the severe, full-thickness esophageal injuries seen with alkali ingestion. *Acids cause more gastric damage than alkalis* - This statement is **correct**; acids preferentially damage the **stomach** due to pyloric spasm and pooling. - The acidic gastric environment provides some neutralization of alkalis, reducing gastric injury from alkaline substances. - Conversely, alkalis cause more severe **esophageal damage** than acids.

Question 1086: What is the preferred method of removal for a 3cm stone in the common bile duct near the ampulla of Vater?

A. Transduodenal approach (Correct Answer)
B. Supraduodenal approach
C. Lithotripsy
D. Chemical dissolution

Explanation: ***Transduodenal approach*** - A **transduodenal approach** (transduodenal sphincterotomy/sphincteroplasty) is preferred for large stones (≥1.5 cm) impacted near the **ampulla of Vater** due to better exposure and direct instrumentation. - This surgical approach allows for direct visualization and removal of the stone, as well as repair of the ampullary region if needed. *Supraduodenal approach* - A **supraduodenal choledochotomy** is generally used for stones located more proximally in the common bile duct, especially if the duct is dilated and the stone is not impacted in the distal stricture. - This approach may not provide adequate access for a large, impacted stone near the ampulla, increasing the risk of incomplete stone removal or injury. *Lithotripsy* - **Lithotripsy** (e.g., extracorporeal shockwave lithotripsy or endoscopic laser lithotripsy) can be used for difficult-to-remove large stones, but it is typically employed as a secondary measure after initial endoscopic or surgical attempts, or when other methods are not feasible. - It involves fragmenting the stone into smaller pieces, which then need to be extracted, and may not be as direct or efficient for a very large, impacted stone near the ampulla as a surgical approach. *Chemical dissolution* - **Chemical dissolution** involves infusing solvents (e.g., methyl tert-butyl ether or monooctanoin) into the common bile duct to dissolve cholesterol stones. - This method is generally slow, has limited efficacy for very large or non-cholesterol stones, and carries risks of chemical irritation and cholangitis, making it less suitable as a primary treatment for a 3 cm stone.

Question 1087: Most prevalent symptom in patients of leiomyoma of esophagus is

A. Pain
B. Pyrosis
C. Dysphagia (Correct Answer)
D. Weight loss

Explanation: ***Dysphagia*** - **Dysphagia (difficulty swallowing)** is the most common presenting symptom in patients with esophageal leiomyoma. - This occurs because the tumor, even if benign, can grow large enough to cause **mechanical obstruction** of the esophageal lumen. *Pain* - While some patients may experience chest pain or discomfort, it is generally **less frequent** and less severe than dysphagia. - Pain is more commonly associated with rapidly growing tumors or complications like **ulceration**, which are rare for leiomyomas. *Pyrosis* - **Pyrosis (heartburn)** is not a typical or prevalent symptom of esophageal leiomyomas. - Heartburn is more commonly associated with **gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)**. *Weight loss* - **Weight loss** is usually a symptom of more advanced or aggressive esophageal pathologies, such as **malignant tumors**. - Although severe dysphagia can eventually lead to reduced oral intake and weight loss, it is not often the initial or most prevalent symptom in benign leiomyomas.

Question 1088: What is the critical diameter of the caecum when perforation is considered imminent in pseudo-obstruction?

A. 7 cm
B. 8 cm
C. 9 cm (Correct Answer)
D. 10 cm

Explanation: ***9 cm*** - A cecal diameter of **9-12 cm** is the critical threshold beyond which the risk of **perforation** in pseudo-obstruction becomes imminent. - This is based on **Laplace's Law**: wall tension is proportional to radius, making larger diameter bowel more susceptible to perforation. - At 9 cm, aggressive management including decompression should be strongly considered to prevent perforation. *7 cm* - While representing colonic dilatation, **7 cm** is below the critical threshold for imminent perforation. - This diameter typically warrants monitoring but does not necessitate immediate aggressive intervention. *8 cm* - A cecal diameter of **8 cm** indicates significant dilatation with increased risk. - Usually managed with close observation and conservative measures before considering urgent decompression. - Perforation risk rises sharply as diameter approaches 9 cm. *10 cm* - A diameter of **10 cm** definitely signifies imminent perforation risk requiring immediate intervention. - However, **9 cm** is recognized as the lower end of the critical range where aggressive management should be initiated to prevent perforation. - The critical range is generally considered **9-12 cm**.

Question 1089: Which of the following statements about traction diverticula of the esophagus is false?

A. Maintains elastic recoil
B. Does not empty completely
C. Triangular appearance (Correct Answer)
D. Contains all layers

Explanation: ***Triangular appearance*** - This is the **FALSE statement** and therefore the correct answer to this question. - Traction diverticula typically have a **broad neck** and appear **conical or tent-shaped**, not triangular. - The shape results from **external traction** on the esophageal wall, usually caused by mediastinal inflammation or fibrosis (classically from tuberculosis lymphadenitis). *Maintains elastic recoil* - This is a **TRUE statement** about traction diverticula. - Since they are **true diverticula** containing all layers of the esophageal wall (including the muscularis propria), the muscular and elastic components are preserved. - This allows for normal contractile function and elastic recoil. *Does not empty completely* - This is a **TRUE statement** about **pulsion diverticula**, NOT traction diverticula. - Traction diverticula are **wide-mouthed with broad necks**, allowing for efficient emptying. - They rarely retain food or secretions, unlike pulsion diverticula which have narrow necks and tend to retain contents. *Contains all layers* - This is a **TRUE statement** about traction diverticula. - They are **true diverticula**, meaning they involve all layers of the esophageal wall (mucosa, submucosa, muscularis propria, and adventitia). - This distinguishes them from **pseudodiverticula** (pulsion type), which only involve herniation of mucosa and submucosa through the muscular layer.

Question 1090: Which of the following signs of acute appendicitis is characterized by pain in the right lower quadrant upon palpation of the left lower quadrant?

A. Psoas sign
B. Rovsing's (Correct Answer)
C. Obturator sign
D. McBurney's point tenderness

Explanation: ***Rovsing's sign*** - **Rovsing's sign** is characterized by pain in the **right lower quadrant** when the **left lower quadrant** is palpated. - This occurs due to the movement of gas/contents in the colon, causing pressure on the inflamed appendix and producing **referred pain** in the RLQ. - It is a reliable clinical sign with good specificity for acute appendicitis. *Psoas sign* - The **psoas sign** is elicited by **pain on right hip extension** when the patient lies on their left side. - This indicates irritation of the **psoas muscle** by an inflamed **retrocecal appendix**. - This is not related to left lower quadrant palpation. *Obturator sign* - The **obturator sign** involves pain on **internal rotation of the flexed right hip**. - This suggests irritation of the **obturator internus muscle** by a **pelvic appendix**. - This is not elicited by abdominal palpation but by hip manipulation. *McBurney's point tenderness* - **McBurney's point** is located at the junction of the **lateral one-third and medial two-thirds** of a line from the anterior superior iliac spine to the umbilicus. - Direct tenderness at this point is highly suggestive of appendicitis. - However, this involves **direct palpation of the RLQ**, not left-sided palpation causing right-sided pain.

Practice by Chapter

Esophageal Disorders

Practice Questions

Gastric Disorders

Practice Questions

Small Intestine Pathology

Practice Questions

Appendicitis

Practice Questions

Inflammatory Bowel Disease

Practice Questions

Intestinal Obstruction

Practice Questions

Gastrointestinal Bleeding

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Diverticular Disease

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Anorectal Disorders

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Colorectal Neoplasms

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Gastrointestinal Stomas

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Bariatric Surgery Principles

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