Gastrointestinal Surgery — MCQs
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A 32 year old female underwent laparoscopic cholecystectomy which was difficult. On her second post operative day, she develops jaundice. Her LFT parameters show serum bilirubin 6.8 mg/dL; direct bilirubin 5.6 and indirect bilirubin 1.2 mg/dL; and serum alkaline phosphatase 1226 IU/L. She is most likely suffering from obstructive jaundice due to:
Heineke‐Mikulicz operation is done for:
Which of the following layers is most important in intestinal anastomosis?
Sengstaken-Blakemore tube is used to control bleeding in:
Mallory-Weiss tear causing haematemesis is seen over:
Which one of the following is NOT a surgical modality for management of femoral hernia?
Gastric conduit after oesophageal resection is based upon:
A 45 year old female patient presents with a painless firm abdominal swelling of size 10 x 8 cm near the umbilicus. The swelling is reducible and shows no fixation to deeper structures. The most probable clinical diagnosis in this patient is
A 35 year old male patient with enteric fever presents to the emergency with sudden onset of generalised abdominal pain, abdominal distension, nausea, vomiting and constipation for last 48 hours. On examination, patient is dehydrated with PR = 110/min and BP = 100/60 mm Hg. There is generalised tenderness, rebound tenderness present and board like rigidity on per abdomen examination. The most likely complication of enteric fever in this patient is
Which of the following is NOT a classical symptom of acute appendicitis ?
Gastrointestinal Surgery Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 991: A 32 year old female underwent laparoscopic cholecystectomy which was difficult. On her second post operative day, she develops jaundice. Her LFT parameters show serum bilirubin 6.8 mg/dL; direct bilirubin 5.6 and indirect bilirubin 1.2 mg/dL; and serum alkaline phosphatase 1226 IU/L. She is most likely suffering from obstructive jaundice due to:
- A. Hepatocellular carcinoma
- B. Carcinoma gallbladder
- C. Carcinoma head of pancreas
- D. Bile duct injury (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Bile duct injury*** - The patient developed jaundice two days after a "difficult" laparoscopic cholecystectomy, which is a common context for **iatrogenic bile duct injury**. - The lab results show **predominantly direct (conjugated) hyperbilirubinemia** and a significantly **elevated alkaline phosphatase**, highly indicative of extrahepatic **obstructive jaundice**. *Hepatocellular carcinoma* - This is unlikely given the **acute onset of jaundice** two days post-surgery; hepatocellular carcinoma typically presents with a more ** insidious onset** and features of chronic liver disease. - While it can cause obstructive jaundice, it is usually due to large masses compressing bile ducts or tumor thrombus in the portal vein, which doesn't fit the immediate postoperative timing. *Carcinoma gallbladder* - Gallbladder carcinoma can cause obstructive jaundice by invading or compressing the bile ducts, but it usually presents with more **chronic symptoms** and is rare in a 32-year-old. - The acute onset immediately following surgery makes an **iatrogenic cause** much more probable than a newly diagnosed cancer. *Carcinoma head of pancreas* - Pancreatic head carcinoma causes **obstructive jaundice** by compressing the common bile duct, but similar to other cancers, it presents more chronically with **weight loss**, **abdominal pain**, and potentially **pancreatitis**. - An acute presentation **post-cholecystectomy** in a young patient is not typical for this diagnosis.
Question 992: Heineke‐Mikulicz operation is done for:
- A. Pyloric stenosis (Correct Answer)
- B. Ureteric stricture
- C. Urethral stricture
- D. Stricture common bile duct
Explanation: ***Pyloric stenosis*** - The Heineke-Mikulicz pyloroplasty is a surgical procedure specifically designed to relieve obstruction in cases of **pyloric stenosis**. - This operation involves a **longitudinal incision** of the pylorus followed by a **transverse closure**, effectively widening the pyloric channel. *Ureteric stricture* - Ureteric strictures are typically treated with procedures like **ureteroplasty** (e.g., using a Foley Y-V plasty for ureteropelvic junction obstruction) or ureteral stenting, not the Heineke-Mikulicz operation. - The Heineke-Mikulicz technique is not anatomically or functionally suitable for the repair of a ureter, which is a muscular tube with distinct functions. *Urethral stricture* - Urethral strictures are managed by **urethroplasty**, which includes various techniques such as excision and primary anastomosis, or augmentation using grafts (e.g., buccal mucosa). - The Heineke-Mikulicz technique is not employed for the treatment of urethral strictures, which have different anatomical and surgical considerations. *Stricture common bile duct* - Common bile duct strictures are usually treated with procedures like **choledochoduodenostomy** or **choledochojejunostomy** (bile duct bypass) or endoscopic techniques like balloon dilation and stent placement. - The Heineke-Mikulicz operation is a pyloroplasty that is not applicable to the common bile duct, given its different anatomical location and physiological role.
Question 993: Which of the following layers is most important in intestinal anastomosis?
- A. Muscularis propria
- B. Submucosa (Correct Answer)
- C. Serosa
- D. Mucosa
Explanation: ***Submucosa*** - The **submucosa** is the most crucial layer for anastomosis strength due to its high concentration of **collagen** and **elastin fibers**, providing tensile strength to the repair. - Sutures placed in the submucosa hold the anastomotic ends together effectively, facilitating **healing** and preventing **dehiscence**. *Muscularis propria* - The **muscularis propria** provides contractility for peristalsis but contributes very little to the **tensile strength** of an anastomosis. - Although it needs to be approximated for proper function, it is not the primary load-bearing layer during healing. *Serosa* - The **serosa** is the outermost protective layer, reducing friction and promoting smooth movement of the intestines. - While its approximation is desirable for a good seal, it offers minimal **tensile strength** for holding the anastomosis together. *Mucosa* - The **mucosa** is the innermost layer responsible for absorption and protection but lacks the **collagenous strength** required for surgical anastomotic integrity. - Sutures placed solely in the mucosa would be prone to tearing, leading to **anastomotic leakage**.
Question 994: Sengstaken-Blakemore tube is used to control bleeding in:
- A. Duodenal ulcer bleed
- B. Renal trauma
- C. Bleeding varices (Correct Answer)
- D. Splenic injury in portal hypertension
Explanation: ***Bleeding varices*** - The **Sengstaken-Blakemore tube** is specifically designed with gastric and esophageal balloons to apply direct pressure and tamponade actively bleeding **esophageal** or **gastric varices**. - This device is a temporary measure used to control life-threatening hemorrhage from varices secondary to **portal hypertension** when endoscopic therapies are unsuccessful or unavailable. *Duodenal ulcer bleed* - Bleeding from a duodenal ulcer is typically managed with **endoscopic intervention** (e.g., clipping, injection, cautery) or **surgical repair**. - A Sengstaken-Blakemore tube is not suitable for controlling duodenal bleeds as it cannot reach or apply pressure to the bleeding site in the **duodenum**. *Renal trauma* - Renal trauma causes bleeding within or around the **kidney**, which is usually managed conservatively, with embolization of bleeding vessels, or surgically (e.g., nephrectomy). - The Sengstaken-Blakemore tube is an **upper gastrointestinal device** and has no role in managing bleeding from renal injuries. *Splenic injury in portal hypertension* - Splenic injury with bleeding in the context of portal hypertension typically requires **splenectomy** or **splenic artery embolization**. - While portal hypertension can be a contributing factor, the tube is not designed to control bleeding originating from a **damaged spleen**.
Question 995: Mallory-Weiss tear causing haematemesis is seen over:
- A. Oesophagus
- B. Gastroesophageal junction (Correct Answer)
- C. Anterior wall of stomach
- D. Fundus of stomach
Explanation: ***Gastroesophageal junction*** - Mallory-Weiss tears are **linear mucosal lacerations** typically located at the **gastroesophageal junction**, where the esophagus meets the stomach. - These tears are caused by sudden increases in **intra-abdominal pressure**, often due to forceful retching or vomiting, leading to bleeding. *Oesophagus* - While located close, Mallory-Weiss tears are specifically at the **junction**, not generally throughout the esophageal body. - **Esophageal varices** are a more common cause of hematemesis originating from the esophagus itself, distinct from Mallory-Weiss tears. *Anterior wall of stomach* - Tears in the anterior wall of the stomach are less common and typically associated with other conditions like **ulcers** or **trauma**, not the characteristic forceful vomiting seen in Mallory-Weiss syndrome. - The unique anatomical stress at the **gastroesophageal junction** during retching makes it the preferred site for Mallory-Weiss lacerations. *Fundus of stomach* - Tears in the fundus are rare in the context of Mallory-Weiss syndrome; the fundus is usually affected by other conditions such as **gastric ulcers** or **gastric varices**. - The biomechanical forces that cause Mallory-Weiss tears are concentrated where the **esophageal and gastric mucosa meet**, not primarily in the fundus.
Question 996: Which one of the following is NOT a surgical modality for management of femoral hernia?
- A. The canal ring narrowing operation (Lytle’s) (Correct Answer)
- B. Lotheissen's (Inguinal) operation
- C. The low approach (Lockwood)
- D. The high approach (Mc Evedy)
Explanation: ***The canal ring narrowing operation (Lytle’s)*** - The **Lytle's operation** is a technique primarily used for the repair of **inguinal hernias**, specifically to reinforce the posterior wall of the inguinal canal, not for femoral hernias. - It involves repairing the **transversalis fascia** and strengthening the deep inguinal ring area. *Lotheissen's (Inguinal) operation* - This approach involves reducing the **femoral hernia sac** from above and repairing the defect through an **inguinal incision**. - It allows for exploration of the **inguinal canal** and is often used in cases of difficulty reducing the hernia or when a concomitant inguinal hernia is suspected. *The low approach (Lockwood)* - The **Lockwood operation** involves approaching the femoral hernia directly from **below the inguinal ligament** through a groin crease incision. - This method is straightforward for simple, uncomplicated femoral hernias. *The high approach (Mc Evedy)* - The **McEvedy approach** involves a **vertical incision** made above the inguinal ligament, providing excellent access to the **preperitoneal space** and the femoral canal. - This approach is particularly useful for **strangulated femoral hernias** as it allows for better visualization of compromised bowel and wider repair of the defect.
Question 997: Gastric conduit after oesophageal resection is based upon:
- A. Short gastric vessels and Vasa brevia
- B. Right Gastroepiploic artery (Correct Answer)
- C. Left gastric artery
- D. Right gastric artery
Explanation: ***Right Gastroepiploic artery*** - The **right gastroepiploic artery** is the primary arterial supply preserved when fashioning a gastric conduit for esophageal replacement. - This artery provides the main blood supply to the **greater curvature of the stomach**, which forms the basis of the conduit, ensuring its viability. *Short gastric vessels and Vasa brevia* - The **short gastric vessels** are typically ligated and divided during gastric conduit creation to mobilize the stomach for upward transposition. - These vessels supply the fundus and upper part of the greater curvature, which are often either resected or lose their primary blood supply, making them unsuitable as the sole basis for the conduit. *Left gastric artery* - The **left gastric artery** is usually ligated during oesophageal resection to facilitate gastric mobilization and conduit creation. - It supplies the lesser curvature and upper part of the stomach, but its division is necessary to free the stomach for transposition into the chest or neck. *Right gastric artery* - The **right gastric artery** supplies the lesser curvature of the stomach and is often ligated or preserved with care, but it is not the primary vessel relied upon for the blood supply of the gastric conduit. - Its contribution to the overall conduit's blood supply is secondary to the robust flow from the right gastroepiploic artery.
Question 998: A 45 year old female patient presents with a painless firm abdominal swelling of size 10 x 8 cm near the umbilicus. The swelling is reducible and shows no fixation to deeper structures. The most probable clinical diagnosis in this patient is
- A. Incisional hernia
- B. Umbilical hernia (Correct Answer)
- C. Inguinal hernia
- D. Femoral hernia
Explanation: ***Umbilical hernia*** - An **umbilical hernia** presents as a swelling near the umbilicus, is often **painless**, and tends to be **reducible**, especially in adults where it can be acquired. - The patient's age and the location and characteristics of the swelling (painless, firm, reducible, unfixed near the umbilicus) are highly consistent with an umbilical hernia, which commonly affects middle-aged women. *Incisional hernia* - An **incisional hernia** develops at the site of a previous surgical incision, which is not mentioned in the patient's history. - While it can be reducible, its location near the umbilicus without a history of abdominal surgery makes it less likely than an umbilical hernia. *Inguinal hernia* - An **inguinal hernia** occurs in the **groin region**, above the inguinal ligament, and not typically near the umbilicus. - While also often **reducible**, its anatomical location differentiates it from the described swelling. *Femoral hernia* - A **femoral hernia** presents as a swelling in the **upper thigh**, inferior to the inguinal ligament, and is more common in women. - The described swelling's location near the umbilicus rules out a femoral hernia.
Question 999: A 35 year old male patient with enteric fever presents to the emergency with sudden onset of generalised abdominal pain, abdominal distension, nausea, vomiting and constipation for last 48 hours. On examination, patient is dehydrated with PR = 110/min and BP = 100/60 mm Hg. There is generalised tenderness, rebound tenderness present and board like rigidity on per abdomen examination. The most likely complication of enteric fever in this patient is
- A. Small bowel perforation (Correct Answer)
- B. Cholecystitis
- C. Small bowel enteritis
- D. Small bowel obstruction
Explanation: ***Small bowel perforation*** - The sudden onset of **generalised abdominal pain**, **distension**, **rebound tenderness**, and **board-like rigidity** in a patient with enteric fever strongly indicate **peritoneal irritation** due to perforation. - **Enteric fever** (typhoid) commonly causes **Peyer's patch hyperplasia and necrosis**, leading to full-thickness bowel wall damage and perforation, typically in the **ileum**. *Cholecystitis* - While cholecystitis can occur with enteric fever, it usually presents with **right upper quadrant pain**, **fever**, and **leukocytosis**, not generalized abdominal pain or peritoneal signs. - It does not typically cause **board-like rigidity** or signs of **perforation**. *Small bowel enteritis* - Small bowel enteritis causes **crampy abdominal pain**, **diarrhea**, and **vomiting**, but usually without the severe peritoneal signs like generalized tenderness and board-like rigidity. - It does not typically lead to systemic signs of shock and severe peritonitis as seen in this patient. *Small bowel obstruction* - Small bowel obstruction presents with **abdominal pain**, **distension**, **vomiting**, and **constipation**, but usually with **hyperactive bowel sounds** initially, progressing to absent. - The presence of **rebound tenderness** and **board-like rigidity** points more towards peritonitis from perforation rather than uncomplicated obstruction.
Question 1000: Which of the following is NOT a classical symptom of acute appendicitis ?
- A. Periumbilical colic
- B. Anorexia
- C. Constipation (Correct Answer)
- D. Nausea
Explanation: ***Constipation*** - While patients with appendicitis may experience altered bowel habits, **constipation is not a classic or defining symptom**; **diarrhea** can even be present. - The primary symptoms relate to inflammation and irritation of the appendix, not typically leading to significant constipation. *Periumbilical colic* - This is a very common early symptom, often described as a **vague, dull pain around the umbilicus** as the appendix initially becomes inflamed. - The pain later **migrates to the right lower quadrant** as the inflammation localizes to the parietal peritoneum. *Anorexia* - **Loss of appetite** is a highly characteristic and almost universal symptom in patients with acute appendicitis. - It often precedes the onset of abdominal pain and is considered a significant diagnostic indicator. *Nausea* - **Nausea and vomiting** are very common symptoms, often following the onset of abdominal pain. - These gastrointestinal symptoms are due to the visceral irritation caused by the inflamed appendix.
Practice by Chapter
Esophageal Disorders
Practice Questions
Gastric Disorders
Practice Questions
Small Intestine Pathology
Practice Questions
Appendicitis
Practice Questions
Inflammatory Bowel Disease
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Intestinal Obstruction
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Gastrointestinal Bleeding
Practice Questions
Diverticular Disease
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Anorectal Disorders
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Colorectal Neoplasms
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Gastrointestinal Stomas
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Bariatric Surgery Principles
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