Rectal Prolapse — MCQs

A 65-year-old P3+0 female complains of procidentia. She has a past history significant for MI and is diabetic and hypertensive. The patient is not sexually active. Ideal management of prolapse in this patient is:

In Procidentia which of the following is true?

A 57-year-old man presents to the office with complaints of perianal pain during defecation and perineal heaviness for 1 month. He also complains of discharge around his anus, and bright red bleeding during defecation. The patient provides a history of having a sexual relationship with other men without using any methods of protection. The physical examination demonstrates edematous verrucous anal folds that are of hard consistency and painful to the touch. A proctosigmoidoscopy reveals an anal canal ulcer with well defined, indurated borders on a white background. A biopsy is taken and the results are pending. What is the most likely diagnosis?

What is the treatment for uterine prolapse in nulliparous women?

In gonorrhea, which is not a presenting feature?

Risk factors for stress urinary incontinence are all except

Investigation of choice for lumbar prolapsed disc -

A 60-year-old woman comes with 3rd degree uterine prolapse. What will be the management?

A young male patient presents with complete rectal prolapse and no history of previous surgeries. The surgery of choice is:

Rectal prolapse occurs due to all EXCEPT: