Colorectal Surgery — MCQs

Colorectal Surgery Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 291: During incision and drainage of ischiorectal abscess, which nerve is most likely to be injured?

A. Superior rectal nerve
B. Inferior rectal nerve (Correct Answer)
C. Superior gluteal nerve
D. Inferior gluteal nerve

Explanation: ***Inferior rectal nerve*** - The **inferior rectal nerve** innervates the **external anal sphincter** and the skin around the anus, making it vulnerable during an incision and drainage of an **ischiorectal abscess** due to its anatomical proximity. - Injury to this nerve can lead to **fecal incontinence** or altered sensation in the perianal region. *Superior rectal nerve* - The **superior rectal nerve** is primarily involved in the innervation of the **rectum** and is not directly located in the area of an **ischiorectal abscess**. - This nerve supplies the smooth muscle of the rectum and is not anatomically vulnerable during incision and drainage of an abscess in the ischiorectal fossa. *Superior gluteal nerve* - The **superior gluteal nerve** supplies the **gluteus medius**, **gluteus minimus**, and **tensor fasciae latae muscles**, which are typically located much more superior and lateral to an **ischiorectal abscess**. - Damage to this nerve causes a characteristic **Trendelenburg gait**, which is unrelated to perianal surgery. *Inferior gluteal nerve* - The **inferior gluteal nerve** innervates the **gluteus maximus muscle**, which is also located more superiorly and laterally relative to the **ischiorectal fossa**. - Injury to this nerve would primarily affect hip extension and is not a common complication of **ischiorectal abscess** drainage.

Question 292: What is the treatment of choice for a patient presenting with carcinoma of the rectum and obstruction in an emergency setting?

A. Total colectomy
B. Hartmann's procedure (Correct Answer)
C. Defunctioning colostomy
D. Left hemi-colectomy

Explanation: ***Hartmann's procedure*** - In an emergency setting with **obstructing carcinoma of the rectum**, Hartmann's procedure is the **treatment of choice**. - This procedure involves **resection of the tumor** with formation of an **end colostomy** and closure of the distal rectal stump. - It achieves **dual objectives**: relieves the obstruction AND removes the primary tumor, allowing proper oncological staging and planning of adjuvant therapy. - While more extensive than simple diversion, it is the **standard emergency operation** for obstructing left-sided and rectal cancers in patients who can tolerate resection. - The colostomy can be reversed later after adjuvant treatment (if needed), though many remain permanent. *Defunctioning colostomy* - A proximal diverting colostomy only diverts the fecal stream without addressing the primary tumor. - This is a **temporizing measure**, not definitive treatment, and leaves the malignancy in situ. - It may be considered in **highly unstable patients** or for purely **palliative** intent when resection is not feasible. - Requires a second major operation for definitive tumor resection, increasing overall morbidity. *Total colectomy* - This involves removing the entire colon and is performed for conditions like **familial adenomatous polyposis** or **synchronous colon cancers**. - Not indicated for isolated rectal cancer with obstruction. - Would be excessively extensive and carry unnecessary morbidity in this setting. *Left hemi-colectomy* - This procedure removes the left colon (descending and sigmoid) but typically does not include the rectum. - Not appropriate for **rectal cancer**, as it would not address the primary pathology. - Used for tumors of the descending or sigmoid colon, not rectum.

Question 293: What is the treatment of choice for a 70-year-old male patient who presents with peritonitis secondary to ruptured diverticulitis?

A. Conservative
B. Primary resection and anastomosis
C. Whipple procedure
D. Hartmann's procedure (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Hartmann's procedure*** - For **peritonitis secondary to ruptured diverticulitis** in an elderly patient, a Hartmann's procedure is often the safest choice, involving resection of the diseased bowel and creation of an **end colostomy**. - This procedure avoids a primary anastomosis in the presence of **sepsis** and inflammation, reducing the risk of anastomotic leak in a high-risk patient. *Conservative* - **Conservative management** with antibiotics is typically reserved for **uncomplicated diverticulitis** (i.e., no perforation or generalized peritonitis). - Given the presence of **peritonitis**, a surgical intervention is necessary to address the source of infection and contamination. *Primary resection and anastomosis* - While possible in select, hemodynamically stable patients with localized contamination, **primary anastomosis** carries a higher risk of **anastomotic leak** in the setting of diffuse peritonitis and inflammation. - This approach is generally avoided in elderly patients with significant contamination due to increased morbidity and mortality risks. *Whipple procedure* - The **Whipple procedure**, or pancreaticoduodenectomy, is a complex surgical operation to remove the **head of the pancreas**, duodenum, gallbladder, and part of the bile duct. - It is used to treat **pancreatic cancer** and other tumors of the periampullary region, and is completely unrelated to diverticular disease or peritonitis.

Question 294: The ideal indication for injection of sclerosing agents is:

A. External hemorrhoids
B. Internal hemorrhoids (Correct Answer)
C. Immediate surgery for strangulated hemorrhoids
D. Surgical intervention for prolapsed hemorrhoids

Explanation: ***Internal hemorrhoids*** - Sclerotherapy is most effective for **first- and second-degree internal hemorrhoids**, where symptomatic bleeding is the primary concern. - The injected agent causes **fibrosis** and **scarring**, leading to fixation of the hemorrhoidal tissue and reduced blood flow. *External hemorrhoids* - External hemorrhoids are located **below the dentate line** and are covered by sensitive anoderm. - Sclerosing agents can cause **significant pain** and are generally ineffective for external hemorrhoids. *Immediate surgery for strangulated hemorrhoids* - **Strangulated hemorrhoids** are a medical emergency requiring **urgent surgical intervention** to prevent tissue necrosis. - Sclerotherapy is absolutely **contraindicated** in this scenario due to the risk of exacerbating ischemia and complications. *Surgical intervention for prolapsed hemorrhoids* - While sclerotherapy can be used for some early-stage prolapsed internal hemorrhoids (second degree), **surgical intervention** is more appropriate for **third- and fourth-degree prolapsed hemorrhoids**. - These more advanced hemorrhoids often require techniques like **hemorrhoidectomy** or stapling for definitive treatment.

Question 295: Treatment of choice for 3rd-degree hemorrhoids is:

A. Sclerotherapy
B. Band ligation
C. Hemorrhoidectomy (Correct Answer)
D. None of the above

Explanation: ***Hemorrhoidectomy*** - For **3rd-degree hemorrhoids**, which prolapse and require manual reduction, **hemorrhoidectomy** is considered the **definitive surgical treatment** with the highest long-term efficacy and lowest recurrence rates. - This procedure completely removes the hemorrhoidal tissue, providing a permanent solution for significant symptoms like bleeding, pain, and prolapse. - It is particularly indicated for **large 3rd-degree hemorrhoids**, patients who have **failed rubber band ligation**, or those desiring **definitive treatment**. *Sclerotherapy* - This method involves injecting a chemical solution to scar and shrink the hemorrhoid, primarily used for **1st and 2nd-degree hemorrhoids**. - It is **not effective** for 3rd-degree hemorrhoids due to the larger size and significant prolapse. *Band ligation* - Involves placing a rubber band around the base of the hemorrhoid to cut off blood supply, causing it to wither and fall off. - This is actually an **appropriate first-line treatment** for 3rd-degree hemorrhoids with **70-80% success rates** and can be performed in an outpatient setting. - However, when asking for the **definitive treatment of choice**, hemorrhoidectomy remains the gold standard due to its superior long-term outcomes and lower recurrence rates. - Multiple sessions may be required, and it has higher failure rates compared to surgical excision. *None of the above* - This option is incorrect because **hemorrhoidectomy** is the definitive treatment of choice for 3rd-degree hemorrhoids. - While band ligation is also appropriate, hemorrhoidectomy provides the most definitive cure.

Question 296: Emergency management of Ulcerative colitis is by:

A. Subtotal colectomy with end ileostomy (Correct Answer)
B. Right hemicolectomy
C. Total proctocolectomy with end ileostomy
D. Left hemicolectomy

Explanation: ***Subtotal colectomy with end ileostomy*** - This is the **standard emergency procedure** for fulminant ulcerative colitis, toxic megacolon, perforation, or massive hemorrhage - Involves removal of the **entire colon** (from ileocecal junction to upper rectum) while **preserving the rectal stump** as a Hartmann's pouch - Creates an **end ileostomy** for fecal diversion - **Proctectomy is avoided** in the emergency setting due to higher morbidity, risk of pelvic sepsis, and technical difficulty in acutely ill patients - The rectal stump can be removed later (2nd stage) with consideration for **ileal pouch-anal anastomosis (IPAA)** after patient stabilization - This staged approach allows for optimization of the patient's condition and future reconstructive options *Total proctocolectomy with end ileostomy* - This involves removal of both the **colon and rectum** with permanent ileostomy - **NOT recommended in emergency settings** as proctectomy adds significant morbidity in critically ill patients - Requires pelvic dissection in inflamed tissues, increasing risk of complications - May be performed electively as a **second-stage procedure** or in patients not candidates for reconstructive surgery *Right hemicolectomy* - Removes only the **right side of the colon** (cecum, ascending colon, and part of transverse colon) - Inappropriate for ulcerative colitis, which is a **pan-colonic disease** that always involves the rectum and extends proximally - Inadequate resection would leave diseased colon in place *Left hemicolectomy* - Removes only the **left side of the colon** (descending colon and part of transverse colon) - Inadequate for ulcerative colitis as it doesn't address the **entire diseased colon** - Would leave inflamed segments and the **always-involved rectum** in place

Question 297: Massive colonic bleeding in a patient with diverticulosis is most likely from which artery?

A. Superior mesenteric artery (Correct Answer)
B. Inferior mesenteric artery
C. Celiac artery
D. Gastro-duodenal artery

Explanation: ***Superior mesenteric artery*** - The **superior mesenteric artery** supplies the **right colon** (cecum, ascending colon, and proximal transverse colon), which is the **most common site of diverticular bleeding**. - Although **diverticula are more common in the left colon**, **50-90% of diverticular bleeding** occurs from **right-sided diverticula**. - Right-sided diverticula tend to have a **wider neck and thinner wall**, making the penetrating vasa recta more vulnerable to injury and bleeding. - This is a classic teaching point: **diverticula are more common on the left, but bleeding is more common from the right**. *Inferior mesenteric artery* - The **inferior mesenteric artery** supplies the **left colon** (descending colon, sigmoid colon, and upper rectum), where **diverticula are most prevalent**. - While left-sided diverticulosis is more common, these diverticula **bleed less frequently** than right-sided diverticula. - Left-sided diverticular disease more commonly presents with **diverticulitis** rather than massive bleeding. *Celiac artery* - The **celiac artery** supplies the **foregut** organs, including the stomach, liver, spleen, and pancreas. - It does **not supply the colon** and therefore cannot be the source of colonic diverticular bleeding. *Gastro-duodenal artery* - The **gastroduodenal artery** is a branch of the **common hepatic artery** (from the celiac trunk) that supplies the **duodenum and pancreas**. - It is associated with **upper gastrointestinal bleeding** (e.g., from posterior duodenal ulcers) but has no role in colonic bleeding.

Question 298: Which of the following is NOT used as a sclerosing agent for hemorrhoids?

A. Polidocanol
B. Phenol in olive oil
C. Sodium morrhuate
D. Quinine urea (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Quinine urea*** - **Quinine urea** was historically used as a sclerosing agent but is **no longer used** in modern practice due to significant adverse effects, including **tissue necrosis**, **gangrene**, and **anaphylaxis**. - Its use has been abandoned and replaced by safer alternatives, making it the agent that is NOT used for hemorrhoids today. *Phenol in olive oil* - **Phenol in olive oil** (typically 5%) is one of the most commonly used sclerosing agents for hemorrhoids, especially for **Grade I and early Grade II hemorrhoids**. - It induces an **inflammatory reaction** and subsequent fibrosis, fixing the hemorrhoidal tissue to the underlying musculature. *Sodium morrhuate* - **Sodium morrhuate** is a fatty acid salt derived from cod liver oil and is actively used as a sclerosing agent for hemorrhoids. - It generates a **local inflammatory response**, leading to venous thrombosis and fibrosis of hemorrhoidal tissue. *Polidocanol* - **Polidocanol** (Aethoxysklerol) is a modern sclerosing agent commonly used for hemorrhoid treatment. - It is effective, has a good safety profile, and works by damaging the vascular endothelium, causing thrombosis and fibrosis.

Question 299: Most common early complication of end ileostomy is

A. Prolapse
B. Hernia
C. Necrosis
D. Dermatitis (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Dermatitis*** - **Peristomal dermatitis** is the most common early complication of an end ileostomy, typically occurring due to irritation from digestive enzymes in the ileostomy effluent. - The effluent is highly proteolytic and enzymatic, causing **skin breakdown** and inflammation around the stoma. *Necrosis* - While a serious complication, **stoma necrosis** is less common than dermatitis and usually manifests within the first few days post-operatively due to compromised blood supply. - It often presents with a **dark purple or black discoloration** of the stoma, indicating tissue death. *Prolapse* - **Stoma prolapse** is an uncommon early complication, more frequently seen weeks to months after surgery, particularly if there is increased intra-abdominal pressure. - It involves the bowel protruding excessively through the stoma opening. *Hernia* - A **parastomal hernia** is a late complication, typically developing months to years after surgery, due to weakening of the abdominal wall muscles around the stoma. - Clinical signs include a **bulge around the stoma**, which may be more noticeable when coughing or straining.

Question 300: What is the most common presentation of rectal polyps?

A. Bleeding (Correct Answer)
B. Abdominal pain
C. Mucus discharge
D. Bowel obstruction due to large polyps

Explanation: ***Bleeding*** - As polyps are vascularized structures, trauma from passing stool can cause them to **bleed**, leading to **hematochezia** (bright red blood in stool). - This symptom, often **painless**, is the most frequent clinical presentation that prompts patients to seek medical attention. *Abdominal pain* - While large or obstructive polyps can cause abdominal pain, it is **not the most common presentation** for typical rectal polyps. - Abdominal pain is more commonly associated with other gastrointestinal conditions like **inflammatory bowel disease** or **diverticulitis**. *Mucus discharge* - Some polyps, particularly **villous adenomas**, can secrete mucus, but this is **less common than bleeding** as a presenting symptom. - Mucus discharge is often an incidental finding rather than the chief complaint that brings patients to medical attention. *Bowel obstruction due to large polyps* - Bowel obstruction is a **rare complication** that occurs only with very large, usually malignant, or multiple polyps, and is **not a common initial presentation**. - Most polyps are small and do not significantly impede stool passage.

Practice by Chapter

Colorectal Anatomy and Physiology

Practice Questions

Diverticular Disease

Practice Questions

Inflammatory Bowel Disease

Practice Questions

Colorectal Polyps

Practice Questions

Colorectal Cancer

Practice Questions

Anorectal Abscess and Fistula

Practice Questions

Hemorrhoids

Practice Questions

Rectal Prolapse

Practice Questions

Fecal Incontinence

Practice Questions

Intestinal Stomas Creation and Management

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Pelvic Floor Disorders

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Enhanced Recovery After Colorectal Surgery

Practice Questions

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