Colorectal Surgery Practice Questions

Q: All of the following statements regarding this image are true except:

They are a result of tractional force. ***They are a result of tractional force*** - This statement is **false**. Colonic diverticula are **pulsion diverticula** caused by increased intraluminal pressure, not external tractional forces. - They result from **herniation of mucosa and submucosa** through weak points in the muscular wall due to elevated intraluminal pressure during defecation. *Defect occurs usually between tenia coli and the blood vessel entering colonic wall* - This statement is **true**. Diverticula form at anatomical weak points where **vasa recta** penetrate the muscular layers between the **tenia coli**. - These penetration sites create natural defects in the **muscularis propria**, predisposing to herniation of inner layers. *Most common site for this defect is sigmoid colon* - This statement is **true**. The **sigmoid colon** has the smallest diameter and experiences the highest intraluminal pressures. - Its **narrow caliber** and increased muscular contractions during defecation make it the most susceptible site for diverticular formation. *High fiber diet will reduce the incidence of this defect* - This statement is **true**. High fiber intake increases **stool bulk** and reduces intraluminal pressure during bowel movements. - It helps prevent **constipation** and excessive straining, which are key factors in the development of diverticular disease.

Q: A 47-year-old man comes to Surgery OPD with history of recurrent episodes of UTI. He gives history of the urine being frothy and occasionally having bubbles. The probable diagnosis is :

Colovesical fistula. ***Colovesical fistula*** - The presence of **pneumaturia (gas/bubbles in urine)** and **frothy urine** is pathognomonic of colovesical fistula, indicating abnormal communication between the colon and bladder with gas passage from bowel to bladder. - **Recurrent UTIs** occur in >50% of cases due to constant contamination of the bladder with fecal bacteria. - Other features include **fecaluria** (fecal matter in urine) - though less common than pneumaturia. - Most commonly caused by diverticular disease (65%), followed by colorectal cancer and Crohn's disease. *Tubercular cystitis* - While it can cause recurrent UTIs and bladder irritation, it does not typically present with **pneumaturia** or frothy urine. - Presents with sterile pyuria, dysuria, hematuria, and frequency. - Diagnosis requires identification of *Mycobacterium tuberculosis* in urine culture or bladder biopsy. *Urethrocutaneous fistula* - This involves an abnormal communication between the urethra and the skin, leading to urine leakage onto the skin surface. - Does not cause gas to enter the bladder or result in **pneumaturia**. - May cause recurrent UTIs if fistula leads to inadequate bladder emptying, but not the presenting features. *Anaerobic bacterial infection* - Although anaerobic bacteria can cause UTIs, they do not produce sufficient gas to cause **pneumaturia** without an underlying anatomical defect. - **Pneumaturia** is a mechanical sign indicating an abnormal connection with a gas-containing organ (colon), not merely infection.

Q: Which of the following statements with regard to Colorectal Carcinoma are correct ? 1. Left-sided Colorectal Carcinoma presents with bleeding per rectum. 2. Right-sided Colorectal Carcinoma presents with iron deficiency anaemia. 3. Right-sided Colorectal Carcinoma is more common as compared to the left-sided Colorectal Carcinoma. 4. Colonoscopy is the investigation of choice for suspected Colorectal Carcinoma. Select the correct answer using the code given below :

1, 2 and 4. ***1, 2 and 4*** - **Left-sided colorectal carcinoma** often presents with **bleeding per rectum** due to its proximity to the anus [1]. - **Right-sided colorectal carcinoma** is more likely to cause insidious blood loss, leading to **iron deficiency anemia** [1]. - **Colonoscopy** is considered the **gold standard** for diagnosing colorectal carcinoma due to its ability to visualize the entire colon and allow for biopsy [1]. *2, 3 and 4* - While statements 2 and 4 are correct, statement 3 is incorrect. **Left-sided colorectal carcinoma is more common** than right-sided colorectal carcinoma [1]. - Right-sided lesions more generally cause anemia, and colonoscopy is the appropriate investigation of choice [1]. *1, 2 and 3* - Statements 1 and 2 are correct. However, statement 3 is incorrect; **left-sided colorectal carcinoma has a higher incidence** compared to right-sided colorectal carcinoma [1]. - Bleeding per rectum is characteristic of left-sided lesions while iron deficiency anemia for right-sided lesions [1]. *1, 3 and 4* - While statements 1 and 4 are correct, statement 3 is incorrect. **Left-sided colorectal carcinoma is more prevalent** than right-sided colorectal carcinoma [1]. - Clinical presentation with bleeding per rectum is typical for left-sided cancers, and colonoscopy is the definitive diagnostic tool [1].

Q: A 45 year old underwent surgery for rectal prolapse. At present, he complains of sexual dysfunction which is probably due to the injury of:

Pelvic autonomic nerves. ***Pelvic autonomic nerves*** - Surgical procedures in the **pelvic region**, such as for rectal prolapse, carry a risk of damaging the **pelvic autonomic nerves**, which are crucial for sexual function. - Injury to these nerves can lead to various forms of **sexual dysfunction**, including erectile dysfunction in men, due to impaired nerve signaling to the genital organs. *Urinary bladder* - While the urinary bladder is anatomically close to the rectum, direct injury to the bladder itself during rectal prolapse surgery typically leads to **urinary symptoms** (e.g., incontinence, retention), not primarily sexual dysfunction. - Though bladder dysfunction can indirectly impact sexual activity, it's not the direct cause of primary sexual dysfunction following injury in this context. *Rectum* - The surgery is performed on the rectum, and while complications can occur, direct injury to the rectal wall itself primarily results in issues such as **fecal incontinence, bleeding, or infection**. - The rectum's primary role is in digestion and defecation, and its injury does not directly cause sexual dysfunction unrelated to nerve damage. *Inferior mesenteric artery* - The **inferior mesenteric artery (IMA)** supplies blood to the distal colon and rectum, and its injury during surgery would primarily lead to **ischemia or necrosis** of the supplied bowel segments. - While a severely compromised blood supply could have systemic effects, direct injury to the IMA is not a direct or common cause of sexual dysfunction.

Q: A 22 year old young man came with history of occasional bleeding per rectum. On colonoscopy, numerous sessile polyps were seen in descending and sigmoid colon. On family history his elder brother was operated for thyroid malignancy. The young man should be advised:

Prophylactic panproctocolectomy. ***Prophylactic panproctocolectomy*** - This patient presents with multiple sessile polyps in the descending and sigmoid colon, along with a family history of **thyroid malignancy** in his brother. This constellation of findings is highly suggestive of **Familial Adenomatous Polyposis (FAP)**, specifically **Gardner syndrome**, which is a variant of FAP associated with extracolonic manifestations like thyroid tumors. - Due to the high risk of **colorectal cancer** development in FAP (nearly 100% by age 40 without intervention), **prophylactic panproctocolectomy** is the recommended treatment to prevent progression to malignancy. *Prophylactic anterior resection* - An anterior resection typically involves removing only a segment of the colon, which would be insufficient for a patient with FAP, as polyps can develop throughout the entire colon and rectum. - This procedure would leave a significant portion of the colon at risk for **neoplastic transformation**, necessitating further surgeries or intense surveillance. *Surveillance colonoscopy every 6 months* - While surveillance is crucial in risk assessment, for diagnosed FAP, particularly with symptomatic polyps and a family history suggestive of a syndrome, surveillance alone is inadequate due to the **high and inevitable risk of cancer**. - Delaying definitive surgical intervention would expose the patient to a very high probability of developing **colorectal carcinoma**. *Colonoscopic removal of all polyps* - Given the presence of **numerous sessile polyps**, endoscopic polypectomy would be impractical, incomplete, and would likely miss microscopic or nascent lesions. - This approach offers only temporary management and does not address the underlying genetic predisposition to continuous polyp formation and high malignancy risk.

Q: A colonic carcinoma involving muscularis propria, with one or two nodes involved with a solitary metastasis in the liver, the TNM stage would be:

T2 N1 M1. ***T2 N1 M1*** **(Correct Answer)** - **T2** indicates the tumor invades the **muscularis propria** in the TNM classification for colorectal cancer. - **N1** signifies involvement of **one to three regional lymph nodes**, which corresponds to "one or two nodes involved" in the question. - **M1** denotes the presence of **distant metastasis**, specifically a "solitary metastasis in the liver" as described. *T1 N2 M1* - **T1** describes a tumor that invades the **submucosa** but not the muscularis propria, which is less advanced than the scenario described. - **N2** would imply involvement of **four or more regional lymph nodes**, contradicting the "one or two nodes involved" stated in the question. *T1 N1 M1* - **T1** indicates invasion into the **submucosa**, not reaching the muscularis propria as specified in the case description. - The **N1** and **M1** components are consistent with the nodal involvement and distant metastasis, but the **T stage** is incorrect. *T2 N2 M1* - While **T2** is correct for invasion into the muscularis propria, **N2** incorrectly implies involvement of **four or more regional lymph nodes**. - The question states "one or two nodes involved," making **N1** the appropriate nodal classification.

Q: A 52 year old male patient comes with history of rectal bleeding, alteration in bowel habits and tenesmus. The ideal investigation would be:

Colonoscopy. ***Colonoscopy*** - **Colonoscopy** is the gold standard for investigating symptoms like rectal bleeding, altered bowel habits, and tenesmus, as it allows for direct visualization of the entire colon and rectum. - It enables **biopsy of suspicious lesions** for histopathological diagnosis, which is crucial for confirming conditions like colorectal cancer or inflammatory bowel disease. *Contrast-enhanced CT scan* - A **contrast-enhanced CT scan** is primarily used for **staging known malignancies** and assessing for distant metastases, not as a primary diagnostic tool for initial symptoms. - While it can identify large masses, it might miss smaller lesions and does not allow for tissue biopsy. *Fecal occult blood test* - A **fecal occult blood test** screens for blood in the stool, which indicates gastrointestinal bleeding but does not pinpoint the source or cause. - It has **low sensitivity and specificity** for diagnosing underlying conditions like colorectal cancer or inflammatory bowel disease and is mainly a screening tool. *Ultrasonogram* - An **ultrasonogram** is generally not effective for evaluating the colon and rectum due to bowel gas interference. - It is more commonly used for investigating abdominal organs like the liver, gallbladder, and kidneys, or for pelvic pathology, but not the primary investigation for these colorectal symptoms.

Q: A 60 year old male presents with bleeding per rectum. Proctoscopy reveals 2nd degree hemorrhoids. The treatment of choice is:

Banding. ***Banding*** - **Rubber band ligation** is the preferred treatment for **second-degree hemorrhoids** because it is effective, minimally invasive, and can be done in an outpatient setting. - The bands cause the hemorrhoid tissue to necrose and fall off within a few days, alleviating symptoms. *Cryotherapy* - **Cryotherapy** involves freezing the hemorrhoid tissue, but it is rarely used due to a **higher risk of complications** such as pain, prolonged discharge, and incomplete tissue destruction. - It is generally considered less effective and associated with more discomfort and potential for recurrence compared to other treatments. *Sclerotherapy* - **Sclerotherapy** involves injecting a chemical solution into the hemorrhoid to cause fibrosis and shrinkage, primarily used for **first-degree hemorrhoids**. - While it can be effective for smaller hemorrhoids, it is less effective than banding for **second-degree hemorrhoids** and has a higher recurrence rate for this grade. *Surgery* - **Surgical hemorrhoidectomy** is typically reserved for **third- and fourth-degree hemorrhoids** or those that have failed other less invasive treatments. - While highly effective, surgery is more invasive, carries **higher risks of complications**, and requires a longer recovery period, making it overtreatment for second-degree hemorrhoids.

Question 1

All of the following statements regarding this image are true except:

Accepted Answer

They are a result of tractional force

Answer

Defect occurs usually between tenia coli and the blood vessel entering colonic wall

Answer

Most common site for this defect is sigmoid colon

Answer

High fiber diet will reduce the incidence of this defect

Question 2

A 47-year-old man comes to Surgery OPD with history of recurrent episodes of UTI. He gives history of the urine being frothy and occasionally having bubbles. The probable diagnosis is :

Accepted Answer

Colovesical fistula

Answer

Tubercular cystitis

Answer

Urethrocutaneous fistula

Answer

Anaerobic bacterial infection

Question 3

Which of the following statements with regard to Colorectal Carcinoma are correct ?

1. Left-sided Colorectal Carcinoma presents with bleeding per rectum.
2. Right-sided Colorectal Carcinoma presents with iron deficiency anaemia.
3. Right-sided Colorectal Carcinoma is more common as compared to the left-sided Colorectal Carcinoma.
4. Colonoscopy is the investigation of choice for suspected Colorectal Carcinoma.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

Accepted Answer

1, 2 and 4

Answer

1, 2 and 3

Answer

2, 3 and 4

Answer

1, 3 and 4

Question 4

Which one of the following statements is true regarding "injection sclerotherapy" for haemorrhoids ?

Accepted Answer

Injection of sclerosant is made above the dentate line (pectinate line)

Answer

Sclerotherapy is the treatment of choice for the prolapsed haemorrhoids

Answer

In patients with haemorrhoids at 3 o'clock, 7 o'clock and 11 o'clock positions, the injection is made in the sitting position

Answer

Sclerotherapy is the ideal treatment for acute external haemorrhoids

Question 5

In a 65 year old, double contrast barium enema shows cancer of colon with an apple core appearance. Colonoscopic biopsy shows adenocarcinoma. What will be the next step of management?

Accepted Answer

CECT to stage disease

Answer

Surgery

Answer

Radiotherapy

Answer

Chemotherapy

Question 6

A 45 year old underwent surgery for rectal prolapse. At present, he complains of sexual dysfunction which is probably due to the injury of:

Accepted Answer

Pelvic autonomic nerves

Answer

Urinary bladder

Answer

Rectum

Answer

Inferior mesenteric artery

Question 7

A 22 year old young man came with history of occasional bleeding per rectum. On colonoscopy, numerous sessile polyps were seen in descending and sigmoid colon. On family history his elder brother was operated for thyroid malignancy. The young man should be advised:

Accepted Answer

Prophylactic panproctocolectomy

Answer

Prophylactic anterior resection

Answer

Surveillance colonoscopy every 6 months

Answer

Colonoscopic removal of all polyps

Question 8

A colonic carcinoma involving muscularis propria, with one or two nodes involved with a solitary metastasis in the liver, the TNM stage would be:

Accepted Answer

T2 N1 M1

Answer

T1 N2 M1

Answer

T1 N1 M1

Answer

T2 N2 M1

Question 9

A 52 year old male patient comes with history of rectal bleeding, alteration in bowel habits and tenesmus. The ideal investigation would be:

Accepted Answer

Colonoscopy

Answer

Contrast-enhanced CT scan

Answer

Fecal occult blood test

Answer

Ultrasonogram

Question 10

A 60 year old male presents with bleeding per rectum. Proctoscopy reveals 2nd degree hemorrhoids. The treatment of choice is:

Accepted Answer

Banding

Answer

Cryotherapy

Answer

Sclerotherapy

Answer

Surgery

Colorectal Surgery — MCQs

Colorectal Surgery — MCQs

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