Breast Surgery — MCQs

Breast Surgery Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 401: What is the treatment of choice for duct ectasia of the breast?

A. Lobectomy
B. Mastectomy
C. Microdochectomy (Correct Answer)
D. Lumpectomy

Explanation: ***Microdochectomy (Central Duct Excision)*** - For **symptomatic duct ectasia** that fails conservative management, the treatment involves **surgical excision of the affected duct(s)**, typically performed as **central duct excision** or **microdochectomy**. - This procedure removes the **dilated, inflamed subareolar ducts** while preserving healthy breast tissue. - **First-line treatment** is conservative (reassurance, antibiotics if infected, warm compresses), but surgery is indicated for **persistent nipple discharge, pain, or recurrent infections**. - Note: Some texts refer to major duct excision (Hadfield's operation) for extensive disease; microdochectomy is appropriate for localized symptomatic ducts. *Lobectomy* - Lobectomy refers to removal of a **lobe of an organ** (e.g., lung, liver, thyroid) and is **not applicable to breast surgery**. - This term is incorrectly used in breast pathology context. *Mastectomy* - Mastectomy involves **complete breast removal** and is vastly **excessive for benign duct ectasia**. - Reserved for **malignancy** or **high-risk prophylactic cases**, not benign ductal conditions. *Lumpectomy* - Lumpectomy is used for **discrete breast masses** (benign or malignant tumors) with surrounding margin excision. - Not the specific procedure for **ductal pathology** like duct ectasia, which requires targeted duct excision rather than mass removal.

Question 402: A 35-year-old female presents with a mass in her right breast. On examination, the mass is firm, mobile, and non-tender. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Breast abscess
B. Fibroadenoma (Correct Answer)
C. Invasive ductal carcinoma
D. Ductal carcinoma in situ

Explanation: ***Fibroadenoma*** - Fibroadenomas are common **benign breast tumors** in young women, presenting as **firm, mobile, non-tender masses**. - They are typically well-defined and can be described as **"rubbery"** or **"slippery"** on palpation due to their mobility. *Breast abscess* - A breast abscess typically presents with signs of **inflammation and infection**, including **pain, redness, warmth, and tenderness**. - The mass would usually be **fluctuant** and accompanied by systemic symptoms like fever, which are absent in this case. *Invasive ductal carcinoma* - Invasive ductal carcinoma often presents as a **hard, irregular, fixed mass** that may be **tender or non-tender**. - It is more common in **older women** and is less likely to be mobile compared to a fibroadenoma. *Ductal carcinoma in situ* - Ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS) is a **non-invasive cancer** that often presents as **microcalcifications on mammography** and is typically not palpable as a distinct, mobile mass. - If palpable, it would likely be an **irregular or ill-defined area of thickening**, not a smoothly mobile mass.

Question 403: A 40-year-old woman presents with a mass in the right breast, and a biopsy confirms breast cancer. Which lymph nodes should be checked first for metastasis?

A. Axillary nodes (Correct Answer)
B. Inguinal nodes
C. Cervical nodes
D. Mediastinal nodes

Explanation: ***Axillary nodes*** - The **axillary lymph nodes** are the primary drainage site for the majority of the **breast lymphatic system**. - Therefore, these are the **first regional lymph nodes** to be checked for metastasis in breast cancer staging. *Inguinal nodes* - **Inguinal lymph nodes** drain the lower extremities, perineum, and external genitalia, not the breast. - Metastasis to these nodes from breast cancer would indicate widespread, **distant disease**, not initial regional spread. *Cervical nodes* - **Cervical lymph nodes** drain the head and neck region. - While possible in very advanced or specific cases, this would not be the **first site of metastasis** from primary breast cancer. *Mediastinal nodes* - **Mediastinal lymph nodes** are located in the chest cavity and primarily drain organs within the mediastinum. - Metastasis to these nodes from breast cancer would represent a **more advanced stage** of disease involving internal lymphatic spread, not the initial regional drainage.

Question 404: A 40-year-old female presents with a 2 cm breast mass detected on routine mammography. A biopsy confirms invasive ductal carcinoma. Which of the following is the most important clinical factor in determining the feasibility of breast-conserving surgery (BCS) versus mastectomy?

A. Patient preference
B. Patient’s genetic risk factors
C. Tumor size relative to breast size (Correct Answer)
D. None of the options

Explanation: ***Tumor size relative to breast size*** - The **ratio of tumor size to breast size** is crucial for achieving clear surgical margins and a cosmetically acceptable outcome with **breast-conserving surgery (BCS)**. A small tumor in a large breast is more amenable to BCS. - If the tumor is large relative to the breast, adequate resection with clear margins might result in significant **breast disfigurement**, making a mastectomy a more viable option. *Patient’s genetic risk factors* - While **genetic risk factors** (e.g., BRCA mutations) are important for assessing future cancer risk and considering prophylactic mastectomy, they do not directly dictate the choice between BCS and mastectomy for an *existing* isolated tumor. - Genetic mutations primarily influence long-term risk management and contralateral breast cancer risk, not the immediate surgical approach for the current treatable lesion. *Patient preference* - **Patient preference** is undoubtedly important and should always be considered in shared decision-making. However, it is not the *most important* factor that determines the *feasibility and oncologic safety* of one surgery over another. - Clinical factors like tumor characteristics and anatomical considerations often dictate which surgical options are medically appropriate before patient preference finalizes the choice. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because the **relative tumor size to breast size** is a highly significant factor in determining the appropriateness and success of breast-conserving surgery.

Question 405: A 52-year-old woman with a 3 cm breast mass and palpable axillary nodes undergoes a core needle biopsy that confirms invasive ductal carcinoma. Evaluate the need for neoadjuvant therapy.

A. Proceed directly to surgery without neoadjuvant therapy
B. Administer radiotherapy before surgery
C. Provide endocrine therapy before surgery
D. Initiate neoadjuvant chemotherapy (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Initiate neoadjuvant chemotherapy*** - The presence of a **3 cm breast mass** and **palpable axillary nodes** indicates locally advanced breast cancer, for which neoadjuvant chemotherapy is often recommended. - **Neoadjuvant chemotherapy** can shrink the tumor, making breast-conserving surgery possible and assessing treatment response, particularly useful for high-risk tumors. *Proceed directly to surgery without neoadjuvant therapy* - Direct surgery for **locally advanced breast cancer** may lead to a higher likelihood of **incomplete resection margins** and local recurrence. - It would also forgo the opportunity to downstage the tumor and assess **chemotherapy sensitivity** in vivo. *Administer radiotherapy before surgery* - **Radiotherapy** is typically administered **post-surgically** in breast cancer to reduce local recurrence risk, especially after breast-conserving surgery or in cases with positive nodes. - Delivering radiotherapy before surgery is **not standard practice** and offers no established benefit over neoadjuvant chemotherapy in this scenario. *Provide endocrine therapy before surgery* - **Neoadjuvant endocrine therapy** is an option for **hormone receptor-positive** breast cancers, especially in elderly or frail patients, but it works slower than chemotherapy. - Given the patient's age and the presence of **palpable nodes**, a more aggressive approach like chemotherapy is usually preferred to rapidly reduce tumor burden and address potential micrometastatic disease.

Question 406: Microdochectomy is the treatment for which of the following?

A. Duct ectasia
B. Breast abscess
C. Duct papilloma (Correct Answer)
D. DCIS

Explanation: ***Duct papilloma*** - **Microdochectomy** is a targeted surgical procedure designed to remove a single, involved **milk duct**, which is the standard treatment for a **duct papilloma**. - A duct papilloma is a benign growth within a milk duct that often causes a **bloody or serous nipple discharge**. *Duct ectasia* - **Duct ectasia** typically involves multiple ducts and is often managed conservatively; if surgery is needed, a **total duct excision** (Hadfield's procedure) is usually performed. - This condition is characterized by dilatation of the mammary ducts, often leading to nipple discharge, but not usually addressed with microdochectomy. *Breast abscess* - A **breast abscess** is a collection of pus that requires **drainage** (either by needle aspiration or incision and drainage) and antibiotics, not duct excision. - It is an infectious process, distinct from a ductal lesion requiring surgical extirpation. *DCIS* - **Ductal Carcinoma In Situ (DCIS)** is a non-invasive form of breast cancer that requires broader surgical excision, such as **lumpectomy with clear margins**, often followed by radiation therapy. - Microdochectomy is too limited a procedure for DCIS, as it only removes a single duct segment and would not ensure complete removal of potentially multifocal or widespread disease.

Question 407: A female patient underwent mastectomy with axillary lymph node dissection for left breast cancer 3 years ago. She subsequently developed chronic lymphedema of the left arm. She now presents with a blue nodule on the left arm. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Cellulitis (skin infection)
B. Lymphangiosarcoma (Stewart-Treves syndrome) (Correct Answer)
C. Recurrence of breast cancer
D. Hemangioma (benign vascular tumor)

Explanation: ***Lymphangiosarcoma (Stewart-Treves syndrome)*** - The development of a **blue nodule** in a limb affected by **chronic lymphedema** following mastectomy for breast cancer is highly characteristic of **Stewart-Treves syndrome**. - This rare, aggressive soft tissue sarcoma arises from lymphatic vessels within the chronically edematous tissue. *Recurrence of breast cancer* - While breast cancer can recur locally, it typically presents as a **red or skin-colored nodule**, palpable mass, or inflammatory changes, not usually a distinct blue nodule associated with chronic lymphedema. - A blue appearance is more suggestive of a vascular or lymphatic origin. *Cellulitis (skin infection)* - Cellulitis presents as a **red, warm, tender, and spreading area of infection** of the skin, often accompanied by fever and malaise. - It does not typically form a localized, blue nodule, and the clinical presentation of infection is usually more acute. *Hemangioma (benign vascular tumor)* - Hemangiomas are **benign vascular proliferations** that are either present from birth or appear in early childhood and tend to regress. - While they can be blue, developing a new hemangioma in adulthood, especially in a post-mastectomy lymphedematous limb, is highly unlikely to be the cause of such a lesion and lacks the malignant potential suggested by the history.

Question 408: Hadfield's operation is performed for which of the following pathology?

A. Duct ectasia (Correct Answer)
B. Fibroadenoma
C. Mondor's disease
D. Inflammatory breast carcinoma

Explanation: ***Duct ectasia*** - **Hadfield's operation** (microdochectomy) involves excision of a **single dilated lactiferous duct** along with the terminal duct lobular unit. When **duct ectasia** affects a single duct causing persistent nipple discharge, microdochectomy (Hadfield's operation) may be performed. - **Duct ectasia** involves dilatation and inflammation of breast ducts with periductal fibrosis and can present with nipple discharge, nipple retraction, or a palpable mass. - When duct ectasia is limited to a single duct with troublesome discharge, Hadfield's operation is appropriate. For more extensive disease involving multiple ducts, **major duct excision** (also called Urban's operation or Hadfield's procedure in some texts) may be needed. - **Note:** While some sources associate Hadfield's operation primarily with **duct papilloma**, the procedure of single duct excision (microdochectomy) is also used for symptomatic single-duct ectasia. *Fibroadenoma* - A **fibroadenoma** is a benign tumor of the breast composed of both glandular and stromal tissue. - Surgical removal is by simple excision or enucleation, not Hadfield's operation, which is specifically a duct excision procedure. *Mondor's disease* - **Mondor's disease** is a rare, benign condition characterized by **thrombophlebitis** of the superficial veins of the breast or chest wall, presenting as a palpable cord-like structure. - It is typically self-limiting and managed conservatively with NSAIDs; surgery is not indicated. *Inflammatory breast carcinoma* - **Inflammatory breast carcinoma (IBC)** is an aggressive form of breast cancer characterized by diffuse erythema and edema (peau d'orange) of the breast, often without a discrete mass. - Treatment involves multimodal therapy: neoadjuvant chemotherapy, followed by mastectomy with axillary clearance, and radiation therapy. Hadfield's operation has no role in IBC management.

Question 409: Which of the following statements about Patey's mastectomy is incorrect?

A. All lymph nodes of axilla are removed (Correct Answer)
B. Pectoralis minor muscle is either divided or retracted
C. Intercosto brachial nerves are usually preserved
D. It is also called modified radical mastectomy

Explanation: ***All lymph nodes of axilla are removed*** - This statement is incorrect because, in **Patey's mastectomy** (a type of **modified radical mastectomy**), **axillary lymph node dissection** (ALND) aims to remove all **level I and II lymph nodes**, but some level III nodes might be preserved or remain, especially those medial to the pectoralis minor. - The goal is **therapeutic axillary clearance**, which usually includes removing most, but not absolutely all, of the axillary nodes, particularly sparing the **axillary vein** and **neurovascular structures**. *Pectoralis muscle is either divided or retracted* - The **pectoralis minor muscle** is typically **divided or retracted** in **Patey's mastectomy** to gain access to the **axillary lymph nodes**, particularly level II and III nodes. - This approach allows for a more complete **axillary lymph node dissection** while preserving the **pectoralis major muscle**. *Intercosto brachial nerves are usually preserved* - The **intercostobrachial nerves** are generally identified and **preserved** during axillary dissection in **Patey's mastectomy**. - Preservation of these nerves helps to reduce **postoperative numbness** or pain in the upper arm, although injury can still occur. *It is also called modified radical mastectomy* - **Patey's mastectomy** is indeed a specific type of **modified radical mastectomy** (MRM). - It involves removal of the breast, **axillary lymph nodes (levels I and II, and often III with pectoralis minor division/retraction)**, while preserving the **pectoralis major muscle**.

Question 410: In which of the following conditions is breast conservation surgery not indicated?

A. Autoimmune conditions requiring careful radiation planning
B. Widespread microcalcifications on imaging (Correct Answer)
C. All of the options are suitable for BCS
D. Large breast size posing technical challenges

Explanation: ***Widespread microcalcifications on imaging*** - Widespread microcalcifications typically indicate **extensive ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS)** or **multifocal invasive cancer** that cannot be adequately excised with a single lumpectomy - Achieving **clear margins** with breast conservation surgery (BCS) becomes extremely difficult in these cases, significantly **increasing the risk of local recurrence** - This is a **relative contraindication** to BCS, making **mastectomy** the more appropriate surgical option to ensure complete tumor clearance - Per standard oncologic guidelines, BCS requires the ability to achieve negative margins while maintaining acceptable cosmetic outcomes *Autoimmune conditions requiring careful radiation planning* - Connective tissue diseases such as **lupus** or **scleroderma** increase the risk of **radiation-induced toxicities** including severe fibrosis, skin breakdown, and poor wound healing - These conditions are a **relative contraindication to adjuvant radiation therapy**, not to the surgical excision itself - BCS may still be performed with **modified radiation protocols** or in select cases without radiation (though this compromises oncologic outcomes) - Requires **individualized treatment planning** with multidisciplinary team discussion *All of the options are suitable for BCS* - This statement is **incorrect** because widespread microcalcifications represent a contraindication to BCS - Not all clinical scenarios are suitable for breast conservation approaches *Large breast size posing technical challenges* - Large breast size can present **technical and cosmetic challenges** for achieving optimal results with standard BCS - However, this is **not a contraindication** to breast conservation surgery - **Oncoplastic surgery techniques** (combining oncologic resection with plastic surgery reconstruction) can successfully manage larger breasts while maintaining symmetry and appearance - Modern surgical approaches have expanded BCS candidacy to include patients with larger breast volumes

Practice by Chapter

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Benign Breast Diseases

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Oncoplastic Breast Surgery

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