Breast Surgery Practice Questions

Q: Sentinel lymph node biopsy is an important part of the management of which of the following malignancies?

Carcinoma breast. **Explanation:** **Sentinel Lymph Node Biopsy (SLNB)** is based on the concept that the lymphatic drainage from a primary tumor follows a predictable path to a specific "sentinel" node. If this first node is negative for metastasis, the remaining nodes in the basin are likely clear, allowing the surgeon to avoid morbid procedures like Axillary Lymph Node Dissection (ALND). **Why Carcinoma Breast is correct:** SLNB is the **standard of care** for clinically node-negative (cN0) breast cancer. It is performed using a radioactive tracer (Technetium-99m) and/or blue dye (Isosulfan or Methylene blue). If the sentinel node is negative, ALND is omitted, significantly reducing the risk of complications like lymphedema, seroma, and nerve injury. **Why other options are incorrect:** * **Carcinoma Prostate:** Lymph node assessment is usually done via pelvic lymph node dissection (PLND) during radical prostatectomy. While SLNB is being researched, it is not the standard clinical practice. * **Carcinoma Lung:** Staging involves mediastinoscopy or EBUS (Endobronchial Ultrasound). The lymphatic drainage of the lung is complex and multidirectional, making SLNB unreliable. * **Carcinoma Nasopharynx:** This is primarily a non-surgical disease treated with radiotherapy and chemotherapy. Lymph node management is addressed via radiation fields or neck dissection for residual disease. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Indications for SLNB:** Breast cancer (cN0), Early-stage Melanoma, and Carcinoma Penis (if nodes are non-palpable). * **Contraindications in Breast Cancer:** Inflammatory breast cancer, clinically positive nodes (cN1), and large tumors (T3/T4) where drainage patterns are disrupted. * **The "Hot and Blue" Rule:** Using both radioisotope and blue dye increases the identification rate to >95%. * **Skip Metastasis:** This refers to a positive non-sentinel node despite a negative sentinel node (rare in breast cancer, ~5-10%).

Q: True about breast cancer in pregnancy?

All of the above. **Explanation:** Breast cancer is the most common non-gynecologic malignancy encountered during pregnancy. Understanding its epidemiology and pathology is crucial for NEET-PG. * **Option A (Incidence):** Pregnancy-associated breast cancer (PABC) is defined as breast cancer diagnosed during pregnancy or within one year postpartum. It occurs in approximately **1 in 3,000 to 1 in 10,000 pregnancies**. * **Option B (Prevalence):** While cervical cancer is a common gynecologic malignancy in pregnancy, **breast cancer** holds the title for the most frequent **non-gynecologic** malignancy associated with the gestational period. * **Option C (Histology):** The histological distribution of PABC is similar to that in non-pregnant women of the same age. **Infiltrating Ductal Carcinoma (IDC)** is the predominant subtype, accounting for **75–90%** of cases. These tumors are often high-grade, hormone receptor-negative (ER/PR negative), and frequently overexpress HER2/neu. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** 1. **Diagnosis:** Ultrasound is the initial imaging modality of choice. Mammography with fetal shielding is safe but has decreased sensitivity due to increased breast density during pregnancy. 2. **Biopsy:** Core needle biopsy is the gold standard for diagnosis. 3. **Treatment:** * **Surgery** (MRM or BCS) is safe in all trimesters. * **Chemotherapy** (FAC/CAF regimens) is contraindicated in the 1st trimester (teratogenic) but relatively safe in the 2nd and 3rd trimesters. * **Radiotherapy and Tamoxifen** are strictly contraindicated throughout pregnancy and should be deferred until after delivery. 4. **Prognosis:** Stage-for-stage, the prognosis is similar to non-pregnant women; however, PABC often presents at an advanced stage due to physiological breast changes masking the lumps.

Q: Tietz syndrome is:

Costochondritis of the second rib. **Explanation:** **Tietze Syndrome** (often referred to as costochondritis) is a benign, inflammatory condition characterized by painful swelling of the costochondral or costosternal joints. 1. **Why Option A is correct:** The hallmark of Tietze syndrome is localized pain and palpable swelling of the upper costal cartilages. It most commonly involves the **second costochondral junction** (followed by the third). Unlike general costochondritis, Tietze syndrome specifically presents with **visible/palpable swelling** and is usually unilateral. 2. **Why the other options are incorrect:** * **Option B:** While costochondritis can involve the fourth rib, the classic description and most frequent site for Tietze syndrome is the second rib. * **Option C:** Superficial thrombophlebitis of the breast or anterior chest wall is known as **Mondor’s Disease**. It presents as a "cord-like" structure and is a common differential in breast surgery questions. * **Option D:** Fibroadenoma is a benign breast tumor ("breast mouse") and is unrelated to the thoracic cage or costal cartilages. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Tietze vs. Costochondritis:** The presence of **swelling** is the key differentiator; costochondritis has pain without swelling. * **Mondor’s Disease:** Often associated with trauma, tight clothing, or surgery; it is self-limiting and treated with NSAIDs. * **Differential Diagnosis:** In a surgical or emergency setting, always rule out myocardial infarction or pleurisy before diagnosing Tietze syndrome. * **Management:** Treatment is conservative, involving rest, NSAIDs, or local steroid injections in refractory cases.

Q: Retromammary abscess arises from which of the following?

All of the above. **Explanation:** A **retromammary abscess** is a collection of pus located in the potential space between the posterior capsule of the breast and the pectoralis major muscle (the retromammary space). Unlike intramammary abscesses, which typically arise from lactational mastitis, retromammary abscesses usually originate from structures deep to the breast tissue. **Why "All of the above" is correct:** The retromammary space can become infected through the direct extension of pathology from the chest wall or underlying pleura: * **Tuberculous rib (Option A):** Tuberculosis of the rib or costal cartilage can lead to a "cold abscess" that tracks forward into the retromammary space. * **Infected hematoma (Option B):** Trauma or surgery can lead to blood collection in this potential space. If this hematoma becomes secondarily infected (e.g., via lymphatic or hematogenous spread), it forms an abscess. * **Chronic empyema (Option C):** Pus from a chronic pleural infection (empyema necessitans) can occasionally erode through the intercostal muscles and present as a swelling in the retromammary area. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Clinical Presentation:** Unlike acute intramammary abscesses, a retromammary abscess typically pushes the entire breast forward (**"breast on a pedestal"** appearance) rather than causing localized skin erythema. * **Differential Diagnosis:** It is crucial to differentiate this from a deep intramammary abscess. * **Surgical Management:** The preferred treatment is incision and drainage via a **Gaillard-Thomas (submammary) incision**, which ensures dependent drainage and a superior cosmetic outcome. * **High-Yield Fact:** If the cause is a tuberculous rib, the underlying bone pathology must be addressed to prevent recurrence or sinus formation.

Q: A 29-year-old woman presents with a recurrent right breast lump noticed 4 months ago. Initial aspirations with negative cytology were followed by recurrence. Examination reveals a 4 cm cystic lesion at 10 o'clock, approximately 4 cm from the areola, confirmed by ultrasound. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

Open biopsy. **Explanation:** The management of a breast cyst follows a specific algorithm. While simple cysts are typically managed with Fine Needle Aspiration (FNA), certain "red flags" necessitate a definitive tissue diagnosis via **open biopsy** (excisional biopsy). **Why Open Biopsy is the Correct Choice:** In this patient, the primary indication for open biopsy is **recurrence**. A cyst that recurs multiple times (usually defined as more than twice) or fails to resolve after aspiration must be surgically excised to rule out an underlying intracystic neoplasm or malignancy that was missed by cytology. Other indications for biopsy include bloody aspirate or a residual solid mass post-aspiration. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **A & B (Mammography/Ultrasound in 1 year):** These represent a "wait and watch" approach. In a 29-year-old with a recurrent symptomatic mass, delayed imaging is inappropriate as it risks missing a malignancy. Furthermore, mammography is less sensitive in younger women due to dense breast tissue. * **C (Tamoxifen therapy):** Tamoxifen is used for hormone-receptor-positive breast cancer or severe mastalgia. It has no role in the primary management of a recurrent cystic breast lump. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Triple Assessment:** Includes clinical examination, imaging (USG 30 years), and pathology (FNAC/Core Biopsy). * **Cyst Aspiration Rules:** If the fluid is straw-colored and the mass disappears completely, no further workup is needed. If the fluid is **bloody**, the cyst **recurs**, or a **residual mass** remains, proceed to biopsy. * **Most common cause of breast lumps** in women aged 30–50 is fibrocystic change. * **Investigation of choice** for a woman under 30 with a breast lump is **Ultrasound**.

Q: Which of the following statements about breast carcinoma in males is NOT true?

Its staging is different than in females.. **Explanation:** Male breast cancer is a rare malignancy, accounting for less than 1% of all breast cancers. The correct answer is **C** because the **TNM staging for breast carcinoma in males is identical to that in females.** The anatomical boundaries and lymphatic drainage patterns are the same, thus the same criteria for tumor size (T), nodal involvement (N), and metastasis (M) are applied. **Analysis of Options:** * **Option A (Advanced Stage):** This is a **true** statement. Due to a lack of screening programs and a low index of suspicion, males often present late with skin involvement or nipple retraction. Furthermore, the lack of breast tissue allows for early invasion of the pectoralis major muscle. * **Option B (Gynecomastia):** This is a **true** statement. While most cases are idiopathic, there is a known association between gynecomastia and male breast cancer, particularly in conditions involving estrogen/androgen imbalance (e.g., Klinefelter syndrome, liver cirrhosis). * **Option D (Tamoxifen):** This is a **true** statement. Approximately 90% of male breast cancers are Estrogen Receptor (ER) positive. Therefore, hormonal therapy with Tamoxifen is the gold standard for adjuvant treatment. **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Most common type:** Invasive Ductal Carcinoma (NOS) is the most common histological subtype. Lobular carcinoma is extremely rare in men due to the absence of acini. * **Genetic Risk:** The strongest risk factor is **BRCA2 mutation** (more common than BRCA1 in males) and **Klinefelter Syndrome (47, XXY)**. * **Clinical Presentation:** Usually presents as a painless, firm subareolar mass. * **Treatment:** Modified Radical Mastectomy (MRM) is the standard surgical approach.

Q: What is the most common presenting symptom of fibroadenosis?

Pain. **Explanation:** **Fibroadenosis**, also known as **Fibrocystic Change (FCC)** or ANDI (Aberrations of Normal Development and Involution), is the most common benign condition of the breast in women of reproductive age (typically 25–45 years). **1. Why Pain is the Correct Answer:** The hallmark of fibroadenosis is **mastalgia** (breast pain). This pain is characteristically **cyclical**, occurring or worsening during the luteal phase (premenstrual) due to hormonal fluctuations (estrogen excess or progesterone deficiency). The pain is often associated with a generalized "heaviness" or "fullness" of the breasts. **2. Why Other Options are Incorrect:** * **Discharge from nipple:** While nipple discharge (serous or greenish) can occur in fibrocystic disease, it is less common than pain. Spontaneous discharge is more characteristic of intraductal papilloma or duct ectasia. * **Non-tender lump:** Fibroadenosis typically presents with **tender**, ill-defined "lumpiness" rather than a discrete non-tender mass. A painless, firm, mobile lump is the classic presentation of a **Fibroadenoma** (the "breast mouse"). * **Mass:** In fibroadenosis, the "mass" is usually a vague, diffuse area of nodularity (often in the upper outer quadrant) rather than a distinct, solitary surgical mass. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Most common benign breast lesion:** Fibroadenosis (FCC). * **Most common benign breast tumor:** Fibroadenoma. * **Management:** Reassurance, well-fitted sports bras, and occasionally Evening Primrose Oil or Danazol for severe symptoms. * **Histology:** Look for a triad of cysts (blue-domed cysts), fibrosis, and adenosis. Only the presence of **atypical hyperplasia** increases the risk of future breast cancer.

Question 1

Sentinel lymph node biopsy is an important part of the management of which of the following malignancies?

Accepted Answer

Carcinoma breast

Answer

Carcinoma prostate

Answer

Carcinoma lung

Answer

Carcinoma nasopharynx

Question 2

True about breast cancer in pregnancy?

Accepted Answer

All of the above

Answer

Occurs in 1 of every 3000 pregnant women

Answer

Most common non-gynecologic malignancy associated with pregnancy

Answer

Ductal carcinoma is the most common type, accounting for 75-90% of breast cancer in pregnancy

Question 3

Danazol is used in the treatment of:

Accepted Answer

Cyclical mastalgia

Answer

Breast cyst

Answer

Non-cyclical mastalgia

Answer

Epithelial changes in breast

Question 4

Tietz syndrome is:

Accepted Answer

Costochondritis of the second rib

Answer

Costochondritis of the fourth rib

Answer

Superficial thrombophlebitis of the breast

Answer

Fibroadenoma of the breast

Question 5

What is an absolute contraindication of conservative breast cancer therapy?

Accepted Answer

History of previous radiation therapy and first-trimester pregnancy

Answer

Large pendulous breast and subareolar lump presence

Answer

History of previous radiation therapy and subareolar lump presence

Answer

Axillary node involvement and first-trimester pregnancy

Question 6

The Van Nuys grading system is used for the assessment of which of the following conditions?

Accepted Answer

Ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS)

Answer

Lobular carcinoma in situ (LCIS)

Answer

Inflammatory carcinoma of the breast

Answer

Medullary carcinoma of the breast

Question 7

Retromammary abscess arises from which of the following?

Accepted Answer

All of the above

Answer

Tuberculous rib

Answer

Infected hematoma

Answer

Chronic empyema

Question 8

A 29-year-old woman presents with a recurrent right breast lump noticed 4 months ago. Initial aspirations with negative cytology were followed by recurrence. Examination reveals a 4 cm cystic lesion at 10 o'clock, approximately 4 cm from the areola, confirmed by ultrasound. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

Accepted Answer

Open biopsy

Answer

Mammography in 1 year

Answer

Ultrasound in 1 year

Answer

Tamoxifen therapy

Question 9

Which of the following statements about breast carcinoma in males is NOT true?

Accepted Answer

Its staging is different than in females.

Answer

It often presents at an advanced stage at the time of diagnosis.

Answer

It is associated with gynecomastia.

Answer

Tamoxifen is used in its treatment.

Question 10

What is the most common presenting symptom of fibroadenosis?

Accepted Answer

Pain

Answer

Discharge from nipple

Answer

Non-tender lump in the breast

Answer

Mass

Breast Surgery — MCQs

Breast Surgery — MCQs

On this page

Practice by Chapter

Want unlimited practice?