PET/CT Principles and Applications — MCQs
Which radiopharmaceutical is commonly used in positron emission tomography (PET) imaging?
Which of the following investigations work on the same principle?
A lady presented with a 4 cm tumor in the left parietal lobe for which she underwent surgery and radiotherapy. After 3 months she presented with headache and vomiting. Which of the following would characterize the lesion in the patient?
Investigation of choice for vascular ring around airway:
Investigation of choice for leptomeningeal carcinomatosis:
Which common tracer in PET is usually administered in the form of a glucose sugar?
Distant bone metastases can be best detected by which of the following imaging techniques?
Statement 1 - A 59-year-old patient presents with flaccid bullae. Histopathology shows a suprabasal acantholytic split. Statement 2 - The row of tombstones appearance is diagnostic of Pemphigus vulgaris.
Which artificial radioisotopes are used in nuclear medicine?
Increased radio-isotope uptake is seen in which of the following conditions?
PET/CT Principles and Applications Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: Which radiopharmaceutical is commonly used in positron emission tomography (PET) imaging?
- A. 18F-FDG (Fluorodeoxyglucose) (Correct Answer)
- B. Oxygen-15 (used in specific PET scans)
- C. Carbon-11 acetate
- D. Nitrogen-13 ammonia
Explanation: ***18F-FDG (Fluorodeoxyglucose)*** - **18F-FDG** is the most widely used radiopharmaceutical in PET imaging, particularly for **oncology**, as it's a glucose analog that accumulates in metabolically active cells. - Its widespread use is due to its favorable physical properties for PET and its ability to reflect **tumor metabolism**. *Carbon-11 acetate* - **Carbon-11 acetate** is used in specific PET applications, primarily for **cardiac imaging** to assess myocardial oxidative metabolism. - It has a very short half-life (around 20 minutes) which limits its availability to centers with on-site cyclotrons. *Oxygen-15 (used in specific PET scans)* - **Oxygen-15** (e.g., O-15 water) is used in highly specialized PET scans for measuring **blood flow** and oxygen metabolism, especially in brain studies. - Its extremely short half-life (approximately 2 minutes) necessitates an on-site cyclotron and immediate use. *Nitrogen-13 ammonia* - **Nitrogen-13 ammonia** is a common radiopharmaceutical for **myocardial perfusion imaging** with PET, reflecting regional blood flow to the heart. - Like other C-11 and O-15 tracers, its short half-life (about 10 minutes) requires proximity to a cyclotron facility.
Question 2: Which of the following investigations work on the same principle?
- A. MRI and PET Scan
- B. CT and MRI
- C. CT and X-ray (Correct Answer)
- D. USG and HIDA Scan
Explanation: ***CT and X-ray*** - Both **Computed Tomography (CT)** and **X-ray** imaging utilize **ionizing radiation** to generate images of the body's internal structures. - They work by passing X-ray beams through the patient, with different tissues absorbing the radiation to varying degrees, which is then detected to create an image. *MRI and PET Scan* - **Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)** uses **strong magnetic fields and radio waves** to create detailed images of soft tissues, based on water content. - **Positron Emission Tomography (PET) scans** use **radioactive tracers** to visualize metabolic activity and blood flow, detecting gamma rays emitted from the patient. *CT and MRI* - **CT scans** use **ionizing radiation** (X-rays) to produce cross-sectional images. - **MRI scans** use **magnetic fields and radio waves** and do not involve ionizing radiation. *USG and HIDA Scan* - **Ultrasound (USG)** uses **high-frequency sound waves** to create real-time images of organs and structures. - **Hepatobiliary Iminodiacetic Acid (HIDA) scans** are a type of nuclear medicine study that uses a **radioactive tracer** to evaluate liver and gallbladder function.
Question 3: A lady presented with a 4 cm tumor in the left parietal lobe for which she underwent surgery and radiotherapy. After 3 months she presented with headache and vomiting. Which of the following would characterize the lesion in the patient?
- A. Digital subtraction angiography with dual source CT scan
- B. Gd-enhanced MRI
- C. 99Tc-HMPAO SPECT brain
- D. 18FDG PET Scan (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***18FDG PET Scan*** - This patient, presenting with new neurological symptoms after **surgery and radiotherapy** for a cerebral tumor, faces a diagnostic dilemma: differentiating between **tumor recurrence** and **radiation necrosis**. - **18FDG PET scans** effectively distinguish between these two conditions because viable tumor cells exhibit high metabolic activity and thus actively take up **fluorodeoxyglucose (FDG)**, while radiation necrosis is metabolically inactive and shows little to no FDG uptake. *Digital subtraction angiography with dual source CT scan* - **Digital subtraction angiography (DSA)** is primarily used to visualize **vascular structures** and is not the modality of choice for differentiating tumor recurrence from radiation necrosis. - A **dual-source CT scan** is useful for rapid imaging and dynamic studies but lacks the metabolic information needed for this specific differentiation. *Gd-enhanced MRI* - While **Gd-enhanced MRI** is excellent for detecting **structural changes** and **blood-brain barrier disruption**, it often cannot definitively differentiate between **tumor recurrence** and **radiation necrosis**. - Both conditions can present with similar **enhancement patterns** on MRI, making differentiation challenging without additional metabolic information. *99Tc-HMPAO SPECT brain* - **99mTc-HMPAO SPECT** measures **regional cerebral blood flow (rCBF)**, which can be altered in both tumors and areas of radiation injury. - However, it does not provide the specific metabolic information (glucose metabolism) needed to reliably distinguish between **viable tumor cells** and **radiation necrosis** as effectively as FDG PET.
Question 4: Investigation of choice for vascular ring around airway:
- A. PET
- B. Catheter directed angiography
- C. MRI
- D. CT (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***CT*** - **CT angiography (CTA)** is the **investigation of choice** for diagnosing vascular rings due to its ability to provide detailed anatomical visualization of the great vessels and their relationship to the trachea and esophagus. - It offers high spatial resolution, allowing precise identification of the type of vascular anomaly, the degree of **airway and esophageal compression**, and guiding surgical planning. *PET* - **PET scans** are primarily used for assessing **metabolic activity**, particularly in oncology or to evaluate organ function, and do not provide sufficient anatomical detail for vascular rings. - While it can detect metabolically active lesions, it is **not suitable** for visualizing the structural abnormalities of blood vessels and their compressive effects on the airway. *Catheter directed angiography* - **Catheter-directed angiography** is an **invasive procedure** involving radiation and contrast, primarily used for assessing blood flow dynamics, identifying stenosis, or guiding interventions. - While it can visualize vessels, CTA is **less invasive**, provides comparable or superior anatomical detail for vascular rings, and is generally preferred for initial diagnosis. *MRI* - **MRI** can provide good soft tissue contrast and visualize vascular structures without radiation, but it is often **less readily available** and can be more challenging for pediatric patients due to the need for sedation and longer scan times. - For comprehensive anatomical detail including bone and calcifications, and in patients who might struggle with breath-holding, **CT angiography** often offers clearer and more consistent images of complex vascular anatomy.
Question 5: Investigation of choice for leptomeningeal carcinomatosis:
- A. Gd enhanced MRI (Correct Answer)
- B. CT scan
- C. SPECT
- D. PET
Explanation: ***Gd enhanced MRI*** - **Gadolinium-enhanced MRI** is the investigation of choice for **leptomeningeal carcinomatosis** as it can visualize the subtle nodular or linear enhancement along the leptomeninges, indicating tumor dissemination. - It offers superior **soft tissue contrast** and spatial resolution compared to CT, enabling detection of small lesions and accurate mapping of disease extent. *CT scan* - A **CT scan** has limited sensitivity for detecting leptomeningeal involvement due to poor contrast resolution of soft tissues and the dura/arachnoid spaces. - It might show hydrocephalus or large tumor deposits, but subtle leptomeningeal enhancement is often missed. *SPECT* - **Single photon emission computed tomography (SPECT)** is primarily used for functional imaging and is not the investigation of choice for anatomical visualization of leptomeningeal carcinomatosis. - Its resolution is too low to detect the fine structural changes associated with leptomeningeal spread. *PET* - **Positron emission tomography (PET)**, often combined with CT, identifies metabolically active tumor cells and can detect diffuse metastatic disease. - While useful for overall cancer staging and identifying primary lesions, it is less effective than gadolinium-enhanced MRI for directly visualizing the morphology and enhancement patterns of leptomeningeal carcinomatosis due to limited spatial resolution in the CSF spaces.
Question 6: Which common tracer in PET is usually administered in the form of a glucose sugar?
- A. Aluminum - 12
- B. Fluorine 18 (Correct Answer)
- C. Carbon 11
- D. Oxygen 15
Explanation: ***Fluorine 18*** - **18F-FDG** (Fluorodeoxyglucose) is the most common PET tracer, utilizing **Fluorine-18** as its radioactive component. - FDG is a glucose analog, meaning it mimics glucose and is taken up by metabolically active cells, allowing for imaging of **glucose metabolism**. *Aluminum - 12* - **Aluminum-12** is not a common radionuclide used in PET imaging. - The most common tracers in PET are **positron emitters** like Fluorine-18, Carbon-11, Nitrogen-13, and Oxygen-15. *Carbon 11* - **Carbon-11** can be used in PET tracers (e.g., 11C-methionine), but it is **less common** than 18F-FDG due to its shorter half-life. - Its short half-life (20 minutes) requires an **on-site cyclotron** for production, limiting its widespread use. *Oxygen 15* - **Oxygen-15** is employed in PET tracers (e.g., 15O-water for cerebral blood flow), but it has an **even shorter half-life** (2 minutes) than Carbon-11. - Its extremely short half-life makes it **impractical** for routine clinical use in the form of a glucose sugar.
Question 7: Distant bone metastases can be best detected by which of the following imaging techniques?
- A. Bone scan (Correct Answer)
- B. CT
- C. Intravenous venogram
- D. PET scan
Explanation: ***Bone scan*** - A **bone scan** is highly sensitive for detecting **osteoblastic activity**, which is characteristic of most bone metastases. - It involves injecting a **radioactive tracer** (usually technetium-99m methylene diphosphonate) that accumulates in areas of increased bone turnover, making it excellent for surveying the entire skeletal system. *PET scan* - While a **PET scan** (Positron Emission Tomography) can detect bone metastases, especially with **FDG-PET**, it is generally more expensive and may not be as sensitive for purely **osteoblastic lesions** as a bone scan. - Its primary role is often in assessing metabolic activity of the primary tumor and other distant soft tissue metastases. *CT* - **CT scans** (Computed Tomography) are excellent for assessing bone anatomy, cortical destruction, and soft tissue involvement, but they are generally less sensitive for detecting early or widespread **osseous metastatic disease** compared to a bone scan. - CT provides detailed anatomical information but may miss early **marrow involvement** that alters bone metabolism. *Intravenous venogram* - An **intravenous venogram** is an imaging technique used to visualize veins, primarily for detecting **thrombosis** or venous insufficiency. - It has no role in the detection of **bone metastases**, as it provides no information about bone structure or metabolic activity.
Question 8: Statement 1 - A 59-year-old patient presents with flaccid bullae. Histopathology shows a suprabasal acantholytic split. Statement 2 - The row of tombstones appearance is diagnostic of Pemphigus vulgaris.
- A. Statements 1 & 2 are correct, 2 is not explaining 1 (Correct Answer)
- B. Statements 1 and 2 are correct and 2 is the correct explanation for 1
- C. Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect
- D. Statement 1 is incorrect
Explanation: ***Correct: Statements 1 & 2 are correct, 2 is not explaining 1*** **Analysis of Statement 1:** - A 59-year-old patient with **flaccid bullae** and **suprabasal acantholytic split** on histopathology is the classic presentation of **Pemphigus vulgaris** - The flaccid (easily ruptured) nature of bullae distinguishes it from tense bullae seen in bullous pemphigoid - The suprabasal location of the split (just above the basal layer) with acantholysis (loss of cell-to-cell adhesion) is pathognomonic - **Statement 1 is CORRECT** ✓ **Analysis of Statement 2:** - The **"row of tombstones" or "tombstone appearance"** is indeed a diagnostic histopathological feature of Pemphigus vulgaris - This appearance results from basal keratinocytes remaining attached to the basement membrane while suprabasal cells separate due to acantholysis - The intact basal cells standing upright resemble a row of tombstones - **Statement 2 is CORRECT** ✓ **Does Statement 2 explain Statement 1?** - Statement 2 describes a **histopathological appearance** (tombstone pattern) that is a **consequence** of the suprabasal split - However, it does NOT explain the **underlying cause** of the flaccid bullae or the suprabasal split - The true explanation involves **IgG autoantibodies against desmoglein 3 (and desmoglein 1)**, which attack intercellular adhesion structures (desmosomes), causing **acantholysis** - Therefore, **Statement 2 does NOT explain Statement 1** ✗ *Incorrect: Statement 2 is the correct explanation for Statement 1* - While both statements describe features of Pemphigus vulgaris, the tombstone appearance is a descriptive finding, not an explanatory mechanism *Incorrect: Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect* - Both statements are medically accurate descriptions of Pemphigus vulgaris features *Incorrect: Statement 1 is incorrect* - Statement 1 correctly describes the cardinal clinical and histopathological features of Pemphigus vulgaris
Question 9: Which artificial radioisotopes are used in nuclear medicine?
- A. Radium
- B. Uranium
- C. Plutonium (Correct Answer)
- D. Iridium
Explanation: ### Explanation **Correct Answer: C. Plutonium** In nuclear medicine, radioisotopes are categorized as either **natural** (found in nature) or **artificial** (man-made via nuclear reactors or cyclotrons). **Plutonium (specifically Pu-238)** is an artificial radioisotope produced in nuclear reactors. While not used as a diagnostic tracer or therapeutic agent for internal administration, it has a significant historical and niche clinical application as a power source for **Radioisotope Thermoelectric Generators (RTGs)** in long-lived **cardiac pacemakers**. Its high energy density and long half-life made it ideal for devices requiring decades of operation without battery replacement. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **A. Radium:** This is a **naturally occurring** radioactive metal found in uranium ores. While Radium-223 is used in treating bone metastases (Xofigo), the element itself is classified as natural. * **B. Uranium:** This is a **naturally occurring** heavy metal. It is the raw material used to produce artificial isotopes but is not used directly in clinical nuclear medicine. * **C. Iridium:** While Iridium-192 is used in Brachytherapy, it is generally classified as a transition metal used in "sealed sources" for radiotherapy rather than being the classic example of an "artificial radioisotope" in the context of general nuclear medicine tracers (like Technetium-99m). However, in the context of this specific question, Plutonium is the most distinct "artificial/man-made" element. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Technetium-99m (Tc-99m):** The most commonly used artificial radioisotope in diagnostic nuclear medicine (produced in a Mo-99/Tc-99m generator). * **Cyclotron-produced isotopes:** Include F-18 (used in PET scans), I-123, and Thallium-201. * **Reactor-produced isotopes:** Include I-131, Mo-99, and Xenon-133. * **Therapeutic Alpha Emitter:** Radium-223 is the first alpha-emitting radiopharmaceutical approved to improve survival in castration-resistant prostate cancer with bone metastases.
Question 10: Increased radio-isotope uptake is seen in which of the following conditions?
- A. Osteoclastoma
- B. Enchondroma
- C. Pseudoarthrosis (Correct Answer)
- D. Ewing's sarcoma
Explanation: **Explanation:** In nuclear medicine, bone scintigraphy (Bone Scan) using **99mTc-MDP** (Methylene Diphosphonate) is the gold standard for assessing bone turnover. The uptake of the radiopharmaceutical depends on two primary factors: **blood flow** and **osteoblastic activity** (bone formation). **Why Pseudoarthrosis is the Correct Answer:** Pseudoarthrosis (a "false joint" resulting from non-union of a fracture) is characterized by persistent mechanical stress and abnormal motion at the fracture site. This leads to continuous, localized **reactive osteoblastic activity** and increased vascularity as the body attempts to heal the bone. On a bone scan, this manifests as a focal area of **increased radio-isotope uptake** (a "hot spot"). **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Osteoclastoma (Giant Cell Tumor):** While GCT can show uptake, it typically presents with a "cold" center (photopenia) due to extensive bone destruction and hemorrhage, surrounded by a rim of increased uptake. * **Enchondroma:** These are benign cartilaginous tumors. They are typically **"cold"** or show very minimal uptake unless they are complicated by a pathological fracture or undergo malignant transformation. * **Ewing’s Sarcoma:** While Ewing’s sarcoma generally shows increased uptake due to its aggressive nature, in the context of this specific question (often derived from standard textbooks like *Bailey & Love* or *Maheshwari*), **Pseudoarthrosis** is the classic teaching example for identifying active bone remodeling in non-malignant conditions. **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Hot Spots (Increased Uptake):** Osteoblastic metastases (Prostate CA), Osteoid Osteoma (Double density sign), Paget’s Disease, and Fractures. * **Cold Spots (Decreased Uptake):** Multiple Myeloma (often missed on bone scans), Renal Cell Carcinoma metastases, and early Avascular Necrosis (AVN). * **Three-Phase Bone Scan:** Used to differentiate Cellulitis (increased uptake in first two phases) from Osteomyelitis (increased uptake in all three phases).
Want unlimited practice?
Get full access to all questions, explanations, and performance tracking.
Start For Free