Neurointerventional Procedures — MCQs
Which of the following is not a contraindication for the use of rtPA in stroke management?
What is the imaging modality of choice for determining the etiology of subarachnoid hemorrhage?
Which circuit is specifically designed for anaesthesia in infants?
In spinal anesthesia, the needle is pierced up to which space?
Which of the following is the best management for radiation induced occlusive disease of carotid artery?
In which of the following conditions is Stereotactic Radiosurgery primarily indicated?
A 55-year-old male, known smoker, complains of calf pain while walking. He experiences calf pain while walking but can continue walking with effort. Which grade of claudication does this patient fall under?
Which of the following arteries is likely to be involved in a 3rd cranial nerve lesion?
Which condition is associated with a 'puff of smoke' appearance on cerebral angiography?
Parameningeal Rhabdomyosarcoma is best diagnosed by:
Neurointerventional Procedures Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: Which of the following is not a contraindication for the use of rtPA in stroke management?
- A. BP >185/110 mm Hg
- B. Heparin in the past 24 hrs
- C. Lesion occupying >1/3 of middle cerebral artery territory
- D. Presence of coma (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Presence of coma*** - While a severe neurological deficit, **coma itself is not an absolute contraindication** for rtPA if the stroke is acute ischemic and within the treatment window, and other contraindications are absent. - The decision to administer rtPA in comatose patients is complex and based on careful assessment of neurological impairment due to **ischemia**, not just a state of reduced consciousness. *BP >185/110 mm Hg* - **Elevated blood pressure** above 185/110 mmHg is a **major contraindication** for rtPA because it significantly increases the risk of **intracranial hemorrhage**. - Blood pressure must be **controlled below this threshold** before rtPA can be safely administered. *Heparin in the past 24 hrs* - Recent use of **anticoagulants**, especially heparin, within 24 hours, indicates a higher **risk of bleeding** if rtPA is given. - This significantly raises the potential for **hemorrhagic transformation** of the ischemic stroke. *Lesion occupying >1/3 of middle cerebral artery territory* - A **large ischemic lesion** (e.g., >1/3 of MCA territory) on initial imaging is a **contraindication** due to increased risk of **hemorrhagic conversion** and **edema** after reperfusion [1]. - Giving rtPA to such large lesions is associated with poorer outcomes and higher mortality [1].
Question 2: What is the imaging modality of choice for determining the etiology of subarachnoid hemorrhage?
- A. Non-contrast CT
- B. CECT
- C. Four vessel DSA (Correct Answer)
- D. MRI
Explanation: ***Four vessel DSA*** - **Four-vessel Digital Subtraction Angiography (DSA)** is considered the gold standard for identifying the source of subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH). - It provides high-resolution images of the **cerebral vasculature**, enabling the detection of small aneurysms, arteriovenous malformations, or other vascular lesions. *Non-contrast CT* - **Non-contrast CT** is the imaging modality of choice for the initial diagnosis of SAH itself. - However, it primarily identifies the presence of blood and its location, but is not as effective in determining the **underlying cause** of the hemorrhage in many cases. *CECT* - **Contrast-enhanced CT (CECT)** can help identify some vascular abnormalities by highlighting vessels, but its sensitivity for detecting small aneurysms or complex vascular lesions is lower than DSA. - It is often used as an alternative or supplementary study when DSA is not immediately available or contraindicated. *MRI* - **MRI** is highly sensitive for detecting intraparenchymal and subtle SAH in later stages but is less effective than CT for acute blood detection, especially within the first few hours. - While MRA (Magnetic Resonance Angiography) can identify vascular lesions, its resolution and ability to detect smaller aneurysms are generally inferior to DSA.
Question 3: Which circuit is specifically designed for anaesthesia in infants?
- A. Bains circuit
- B. Magill circuit
- C. Ayres t piece (Correct Answer)
- D. Water's circuit
Explanation: ***Ayres t piece*** - The **Ayres t piece (Jackson-Rees modification)** lacks a reservoir bag, which reduces **dead space** and resistance, making it ideal for infants with low tidal volumes. - Its simple design and **low resistance** minimize the work of breathing, crucial for neonates and infants. *Bains circuit* - The Bains circuit is a **modified Mapleson D system** often used in older children and adults. - It features a concentric design with a fresh gas flow lumen inside the expiratory limb, making it suitable for moderate to high fresh gas flows but less ideal for the very low tidal volumes of infants. *Magill circuit* - The Magill circuit is a **Mapleson A system**, most efficient for **spontaneous ventilation** in adults, requiring low fresh gas flows. - Its design with the APL valve near the patient leads to significant rebreathing if used with controlled ventilation or in infants due to their small tidal volumes. *Water's circuit* - The Water's circuit (also known as the **Mapleson E or F system**) is primarily used as an open-system mask for **spontaneous respiration**, often for induction or emergency situations. - It provides minimal control over ventilation and is generally not preferred for precise anesthesia management in any age group, especially not infants.
Question 4: In spinal anesthesia, the needle is pierced up to which space?
- A. Subarachnoid space (Correct Answer)
- B. Intrathecal space
- C. Epidural space
- D. Subdural space
Explanation: ***Subarachnoid space*** - In **spinal anesthesia**, the anesthetic agent is injected directly into the **cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)**, which is located in the subarachnoid space. - This space is targeted to achieve rapid and widespread blockade of spinal nerves, leading to anesthesia and paralysis below the level of injection. *Epidural space* - The **epidural space** is located outside the **dura mater** and contains fat and blood vessels; it is targeted in **epidural anesthesia**, not spinal anesthesia. - Anesthetic agents in the epidural space provide a slower onset and a more segmental block compared to spinal anesthesia. *Intrathecal space* - The term **intrathecal space** broadly refers to the space containing CSF, which includes the subarachnoid space, but is a less precise anatomical term for the site of injection in spinal anesthesia. - While technically correct in referring to an injection into the CSF, "subarachnoid space" is the specific anatomical term for where the needle tip rests. *Subdural space* - The **subdural space** is a potential space between the **dura mater** and the **arachnoid mater**; it is not the intended target for either spinal or epidural anesthesia. - Accidental injection into the subdural space during spinal or epidural procedures can lead to an unpredictable block with delayed onset and variable spread.
Question 5: Which of the following is the best management for radiation induced occlusive disease of carotid artery?
- A. Carotid endarterectomy
- B. Low dose aspirin
- C. Carotid bypass procedure
- D. Carotid angioplasty and stenting (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Carotid angioplasty and stenting*** - **Radiation-induced carotid artery disease** often involves the distal part of the carotid artery, making it less amenable to surgical endarterectomy. - **Angioplasty and stenting** offer a less invasive approach with good technical success in these challenging cases, especially given the increased fragility and fibrosis of radiated tissues. *Carotid endarterectomy* - **Carotid endarterectomy** in previously radiated fields is associated with a significantly higher risk of complications, including **cranial nerve injury**, **wound infection**, and **carotid artery rupture**, due to tissue fibrosis and scarring. - The disease often extends beyond the easily accessible segment for endarterectomy in radiation-induced cases. *Low dose aspirin* - **Low-dose aspirin** is an important component of medical therapy for **atherosclerotic disease** and **stroke prevention**, but it is insufficient as a sole treatment for symptomatic or high-grade occlusive disease of the carotid artery. - It helps manage the underlying **atherosclerotic process** but does not directly address the severe stenosis or occlusion. *Carotid bypass procedure* - **Carotid bypass procedures** are complex surgical interventions usually reserved for cases of **carotid artery occlusion** or **recurrent stenosis** after previous interventions where endarterectomy or stenting is not feasible. - While an option, it is more invasive and technically demanding than angioplasty and stenting, particularly in already radiated tissues with compromised vascular integrity.
Question 6: In which of the following conditions is Stereotactic Radiosurgery primarily indicated?
- A. Ependymoma
- B. Arteriovenous malformation of the brain (Correct Answer)
- C. Medulloblastoma of the spinal cord
- D. Glioblastoma multiforme
Explanation: ***Arteriovenous malformation of the brain*** - **Stereotactic Radiosurgery (SRS)** is a highly effective treatment for brain AVMs, particularly those that are **small to medium-sized** and located in eloquent brain regions. - SRS delivers a **highly focused dose of radiation** directly to the AVM, causing the abnormal blood vessels to gradually close off over time, reducing the risk of hemorrhage. *Medulloblastoma of the spinal cord* - Medulloblastoma is a **highly aggressive malignant brain tumor** that often metastasizes to the spinal cord via cerebrospinal fluid. - Treatment for spinal medulloblastoma typically involves **cranio-spinal irradiation with chemotherapy**, and SRS is generally not the primary treatment modality for diffuse spinal disease. *Ependymoma* - Ependymomas are tumors arising from the **ependymal cells** lining the ventricles and spinal cord. - While surgery is the primary treatment, radiotherapy, including **conventional fractionated external beam radiation**, is often used as adjuvant therapy, but SRS is less commonly the sole primary indication. *Glioblastoma multiforme* - Glioblastoma multiforme (GBM) is the **most aggressive primary brain tumor** and is typically treated with **maximal surgical resection followed by concurrent chemoradiotherapy**. - While SRS may be used in carefully selected cases for **recurrent GBM** or as a boost in primary treatment, it is not the primary solitary indication for initial management.
Question 7: A 55-year-old male, known smoker, complains of calf pain while walking. He experiences calf pain while walking but can continue walking with effort. Which grade of claudication does this patient fall under?
- A. Grade I (Mild claudication)
- B. Grade II (Moderate claudication) (Correct Answer)
- C. Grade III (Severe claudication)
- D. Grade IV (Ischemic rest pain)
Explanation: ***Grade II (Moderate claudication)*** - **Grade II claudication** is characterized by **intermittent claudication** where the patient experiences pain while walking but can **continue walking with effort**. - This level of claudication reflects a moderate degree of peripheral arterial disease, where blood flow is sufficiently compromised to cause pain with exertion but not severe enough to force immediate cessation of activity. - The patient in this scenario can continue ambulation despite discomfort, which is the defining feature of this grade. *Grade I (Mild claudication)* - **Grade I claudication** involves discomfort or pain that the patient can **tolerate without significantly altering their gait or pace**. - In this stage, the pain is minimal, and the patient may perceive it as a dull ache or mild fatigue rather than true pain. - Walking can continue without significant effort or limitation. *Grade III (Severe claudication)* - **Grade III claudication** is marked by pain that is **severe enough to stop the patient from walking within a short distance** (typically less than 200 meters). - The pain forces the patient to rest and recover before they can resume walking. - This represents significant functional limitation in daily activities. *Grade IV (Ischemic rest pain)* - **Grade IV**, also known as **critical limb ischemia**, involves **pain even at rest**, especially in the feet or toes, often worsening at night when the limb is elevated. - This stage indicates severe arterial obstruction and is frequently associated with **ulcers, non-healing wounds, or gangrene**. - This represents advanced peripheral arterial disease requiring urgent intervention. **Note:** This grading system is a simplified clinical classification. The standard medical classifications for peripheral arterial disease are the **Fontaine classification** (Stages I-IV) and **Rutherford classification** (Categories 0-6).
Question 8: Which of the following arteries is likely to be involved in a 3rd cranial nerve lesion?
- A. Anterior communicating
- B. Posterior communicating (Correct Answer)
- C. Posterior cerebral
- D. Anterior cerebral
Explanation: ***Posterior communicating*** - The **posterior communicating artery (PCoA)** is anatomically juxtaposed to the **oculomotor nerve (CN III)** as it exits the midbrain. - An **aneurysm** of the PCoA can compress the CN III, leading to findings such as **ptosis**, **mydriasis**, and **"down and out" deviation** of the eye [1]. *Anterior communicating* - The **anterior communicating artery (AComA)** is located more anteriorly and inferiorly, primarily associated with the **optic chiasm** and **olfactory tracts**. - While aneurysms here can cause visual field defects or frontal lobe dysfunction, they are less likely to directly compress the **oculomotor nerve**. *Posterior cerebral* - The **posterior cerebral artery (PCA)** supplies regions like the **visual cortex** and midbrain. - PCA aneurysms or infarctions typically result in deficits such as **hemianopia**, **alexia**, or specific midbrain syndromes, not isolated CN III compression. *Anterior cerebral* - The **anterior cerebral artery (ACA)** supplies the medial aspects of the frontal and parietal lobes. - Aneurysms or strokes in the ACA territory commonly lead to **contralateral leg weakness** or behavioral changes, not cranial nerve palsies due to its anatomical location.
Question 9: Which condition is associated with a 'puff of smoke' appearance on cerebral angiography?
- A. Anterior cerebral artery aneurysm
- B. Cavernous sinus thrombosis
- C. Moyamoya disease (Correct Answer)
- D. Vein of Galen malformation
Explanation: ***Moyamoya disease*** - Moyamoya disease classically presents with a "puff of smoke" appearance on cerebral angiography due to the development of an abnormal network of fragile, collateral vessels at the base of the brain. - This characteristic angiographic finding results from chronic, progressive **stenosis** or **occlusion** of the terminal internal carotid arteries and their main branches, prompting the growth of these compensatory vessels. *Anterior cerebral artery aneurysm* - An **aneurysm** is a localized bulge or ballooning in a blood vessel, which would appear as a sac-like or fusiform dilation, not a diffuse network of fine vessels. - While aneurysms can rupture and cause hemorrhage, they do not exhibit the "puff of smoke" collateralization pattern. *Cavernous sinus thrombosis* - **Cavernous sinus thrombosis** involves a blood clot within the cavernous sinus, leading to symptoms like ophthalmoplegia, proptosis, and vision loss. - It would be visualized on imaging as absence of flow or filling defects within the cavernous sinus, not by a distinct "puff of smoke" angiographic pattern in the brain vasculature. *Vein of Galen malformation* - A **Vein of Galen malformation** is a rare arteriovenous malformation (AVM) involving the deep venous system of the brain, characterized by direct shunting of arterial blood into a dilated vein of Galen. - On angiography, it would appear as an enlarged, dilated vein of Galen with rapid arteriovenous shunting, not as a fine network of collateral arteries.
Question 10: Parameningeal Rhabdomyosarcoma is best diagnosed by:
- A. MRI (Correct Answer)
- B. CT Scan
- C. SPECT
- D. PET
Explanation: ***MRI*** - **Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)** provides excellent soft tissue contrast, which is crucial for visualizing the extent of **parameningeal rhabdomyosarcoma** and its relationship to critical structures like the **meninges**, **brainstem**, and **cranial nerves**. - It is superior for detecting **intracranial extension**, **bone erosion**, and assessing response to treatment, making it the preferred imaging modality for diagnosis and staging. *CT Scan* - **Computed Tomography (CT) scans** are good for evaluating bone involvement and calcifications but offer less detailed soft tissue resolution compared to MRI. - While it can identify large masses, it may miss subtle extensions or involvement of the **meninges** that are readily seen on MRI. *SPECT* - **Single-Photon Emission Computed Tomography (SPECT)** is a nuclear medicine imaging technique primarily used to assess organ function and blood flow, often in cardiology or neurology for functional studies. - It provides limited anatomical detail for the precise localization and characterization of soft tissue tumors like **rhabdomyosarcoma**. *PET* - **Positron Emission Tomography (PET) scans** are excellent for detecting metabolically active tumors, assessing disease burden, and identifying distant metastases, especially when combined with CT (**PET/CT**). - However, while useful for staging and follow-up, it does not provide the high-resolution anatomical detail of the primary tumor's local extent and its relationship to adjacent structures as effectively as **MRI**.
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