Reporter Gene Imaging — MCQs
What is the best imaging modality for detecting early osteomyelitis?
Which of the following is a primarily RNA based technique?
Investigation of choice for leptomeningeal carcinomatosis:
What is the imaging modality of choice for localizing neuroendocrine tumors?
Substance used for PET scan is
Tc-labeled RBCs are used for all except:
Two transgenic plants were genetically engineered using Recombinant DNA technology. One plant was transformed using a plasmid vector with GFP (Green Fluorescent Protein) gene and another plant was transformed with a complete Luciferase bioluminescent system (including luciferase gene and luciferin substrate availability). Which of these two plants will glow spontaneously in the dark?
Radiopharmaceutical used for phagocyte study scan:
Match the following: A) Caplan syndrome- 1) Found first in coal worker B) Asbestosis- 2) Upper lobe predominance C) Mesothelioma- 3) Involves lower lobe D) Sarcoidosis- 4) Pleural effusion is seen
Which one of the following hepatic lesions can be diagnosed with high accuracy by using nuclear imaging?
Reporter Gene Imaging Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: What is the best imaging modality for detecting early osteomyelitis?
- A. CT scan
- B. X-ray
- C. MRI (Correct Answer)
- D. Bone scintigraphy
Explanation: ***MRI*** - **Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)** is considered the **gold standard** for detecting early osteomyelitis due to its excellent soft tissue contrast and ability to visualize **bone marrow edema**, which is an early sign of infection. - It can identify changes within **3-5 days** of infection onset, much earlier than other modalities. *CT scan* - While useful for showing **bone destruction**, cortical integrity, and sequestra, **CT scans** are less sensitive than MRI for detecting early marrow edema. - Its ability to diagnose osteomyelitis is usually delayed until significant **bony changes** have occurred, typically around 1-2 weeks. *X-ray* - **Plain radiographs** are often the initial imaging study but are **insensitive** for early osteomyelitis, showing changes only after 10-14 days or more. - Early findings on X-rays can be subtle, such as **periosteal elevation** or **soft tissue swelling**, but frank bone destruction is a late finding. *Bone scintigraphy* - **Bone scintigraphy** (e.g., technetium-99m) is sensitive for detecting increased bone turnover associated with infection but lacks **specificity**, as it can be positive in other conditions like trauma or tumors. - While it can detect changes earlier than X-rays, typically within 2-3 days, it cannot clearly differentiate infection from other processes, and its spatial resolution is poor compared to MRI.
Question 2: Which of the following is a primarily RNA based technique?
- A. Western blotting
- B. Northern blotting (Correct Answer)
- C. Southern blotting
- D. Sanger's technique
Explanation: ***Northern blotting*** - **Northern blotting** is a molecular biology technique used to study **gene expression** by detecting specific **RNA molecules** (mRNA) in a sample. - It involves separating RNA fragments by **gel electrophoresis**, transferring them to a membrane, and then detecting specific sequences using **labeled probes**. *Western blotting* - **Western blotting** is a technique used to detect specific **proteins** in a sample. - It involves separating proteins by **gel electrophoresis**, transferring them to a membrane, and then detecting specific proteins using labeled **antibodies**. *Southern blotting* - **Southern blotting** is a molecular biology method used for the detection of **specific DNA sequences** in DNA samples. - It involves separating **DNA fragments** by **gel electrophoresis**, transferring them to a membrane, and then hybridizing with a labeled probe. *Sanger's technique* - **Sanger sequencing**, or the **dideoxy chain-termination method**, is a widely used method for **DNA sequencing**. - It uses **dideoxynucleotides** to terminate DNA synthesis at specific bases, allowing the determination of the **DNA sequence**.
Question 3: Investigation of choice for leptomeningeal carcinomatosis:
- A. Gd enhanced MRI (Correct Answer)
- B. CT scan
- C. SPECT
- D. PET
Explanation: ***Gd enhanced MRI*** - **Gadolinium-enhanced MRI** is the investigation of choice for **leptomeningeal carcinomatosis** as it can visualize the subtle nodular or linear enhancement along the leptomeninges, indicating tumor dissemination. - It offers superior **soft tissue contrast** and spatial resolution compared to CT, enabling detection of small lesions and accurate mapping of disease extent. *CT scan* - A **CT scan** has limited sensitivity for detecting leptomeningeal involvement due to poor contrast resolution of soft tissues and the dura/arachnoid spaces. - It might show hydrocephalus or large tumor deposits, but subtle leptomeningeal enhancement is often missed. *SPECT* - **Single photon emission computed tomography (SPECT)** is primarily used for functional imaging and is not the investigation of choice for anatomical visualization of leptomeningeal carcinomatosis. - Its resolution is too low to detect the fine structural changes associated with leptomeningeal spread. *PET* - **Positron emission tomography (PET)**, often combined with CT, identifies metabolically active tumor cells and can detect diffuse metastatic disease. - While useful for overall cancer staging and identifying primary lesions, it is less effective than gadolinium-enhanced MRI for directly visualizing the morphology and enhancement patterns of leptomeningeal carcinomatosis due to limited spatial resolution in the CSF spaces.
Question 4: What is the imaging modality of choice for localizing neuroendocrine tumors?
- A. USG
- B. CT
- C. MRI
- D. Somatostatin receptor scintigraphy (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Somatostatin receptor scintigraphy*** - **Somatostatin receptor scintigraphy** is the imaging modality of choice given that most neuroendocrine tumors (NETs) express a high density of somatostatin receptors. - **68Ga-DOTATATE PET/CT** is the **current preferred technique**, offering superior sensitivity (>90%) and specificity compared to older methods like Indium-111 pentetreotide (Octreoscan). - This functional imaging allows for **whole-body evaluation** and can detect both primary tumors and metastases, including small lesions that may be missed on conventional anatomical imaging. - Particularly valuable for detecting occult primary tumors and staging metastatic disease. *USG* - **Ultrasound** is useful for initial screening or evaluating superficial NETs, particularly in organs like the pancreas or liver. - However, its utility is limited by **operator dependence**, gas artifact, and its inability to detect small or deeply located tumors effectively. - Does not provide functional information about somatostatin receptor expression. *CT* - **Computed tomography** provides good anatomical detail and is useful for assessing tumor size, local invasion, and detecting liver metastases. - While helpful for anatomical characterization, CT can **miss small lesions** (especially <1 cm) and does not provide functional information about receptor status. - Often used in combination with functional imaging for treatment planning. *MRI* - **Magnetic resonance imaging** offers excellent soft tissue contrast and is particularly useful for NETs in the liver and pancreas. - Superior to CT for detecting liver metastases due to better soft tissue resolution. - However, MRI has **lower sensitivity for small or widespread lesions** compared to somatostatin receptor imaging and does not provide functional receptor information.
Question 5: Substance used for PET scan is
- A. Gadolinium
- B. Gastrografin
- C. Iodine
- D. 18F-FDG (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***18F-FDG*** - **18F-FDG (Fluorodeoxyglucose)** is a glucose analog labeled with a **positron-emitting radioisotope**, fluorine-18 (18F). - It is the most commonly used radiotracer in PET scans, as it accumulates in cells with high metabolic activity, particularly **cancer cells** and activated brain cells. *Gadolinium* - **Gadolinium** is a paramagnetic contrast agent primarily used in **MRI scans** to enhance the visualization of blood vessels and abnormal tissues. - It does not emit positrons and is therefore not suitable for PET imaging. *Gastrografin* - **Gastrografin** is an oral, water-soluble contrast agent containing **iodine**, typically used in **X-rays** and **CT scans** of the gastrointestinal tract. - It is not a radioactive tracer and has no application in PET imaging. *Iodine* - **Iodine** in various forms can be used as a contrast agent in **X-rays** and **CT scans**, or as a radioactive isotope (e.g., **I-131**) for **thyroid imaging** and treatment. - While some isotopes of iodine are radioactive, they are not typically used for PET imaging, which relies on positron emission.
Question 6: Tc-labeled RBCs are used for all except:
- A. Liver adenoma (Correct Answer)
- B. LV function
- C. GI bleeding
- D. Liver hemangioma
Explanation: ***Liver adenoma*** - Tc-labeled RBCs are primarily used to highlight a specific type of tissue or process. **Liver adenomas** do not typically show an affinity for **Tc-labeled RBCs**, as they are benign epithelial tumors with a different vascular composition. - While adenomas can be vascular, they do not inherently contain the **vascular pooling** or blood volume characteristics that would be specifically targeted by **Tc-labeled RBCs** for diagnostic imaging. *LV function* - **Tc-labeled RBCs** (or Tc-99m-pertechnetate) are commonly used in **gated blood pool imaging** (MUGA scan) to assess **left ventricular (LV) function**, including **ejection fraction** and wall motion abnormalities. - This technique directly visualizes the blood pool within the cardiac chambers, making it suitable for assessing functional parameters of the heart. *GI bleeding* - **Tc-labeled RBCs** are a standard imaging agent for detecting and localizing **active gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding**, especially when the bleeding rate is intermittent or slow. - The labeled RBCs extravasate at the site of hemorrhage, creating a 'hot spot' that can be identified over time. *Liver hemangioma* - **Tc-labeled RBCs** are highly effective in diagnosing **liver hemangiomas**, which are benign vascular tumors composed of large, dilated blood vessels. - These lesions show characteristic uptake and retention of **labeled RBCs** due to their slow blood flow and large intravascular space, appearing as early peripheral enhancement with subsequent centripetal filling.
Question 7: Two transgenic plants were genetically engineered using Recombinant DNA technology. One plant was transformed using a plasmid vector with GFP (Green Fluorescent Protein) gene and another plant was transformed with a complete Luciferase bioluminescent system (including luciferase gene and luciferin substrate availability). Which of these two plants will glow spontaneously in the dark?
- A. Plant with Luciferase Gene (Correct Answer)
- B. Both plants
- C. Plant with GFP Gene
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***Plant with Luciferase Gene*** - The plant transformed with the **complete bioluminescent system**, including the **luciferase gene** and **luciferin substrate**, will glow spontaneously because luciferase acts on luciferin to produce light through a chemical reaction. - The question explicitly states "complete Luciferase bioluminescent system (including luciferase gene and luciferin substrate availability)," indicating all necessary components for bioluminescence are present. - **Bioluminescence** is light produced by living organisms through chemical reactions, requiring both enzyme (luciferase) and substrate (luciferin). *Both plants* - This is incorrect because the plant with the **GFP gene** alone will not glow spontaneously in the dark. - GFP requires **excitation by an external light source** (e.g., UV or blue light) to fluoresce, so it cannot contribute to spontaneous glowing. - Only the luciferase-transformed plant produces light spontaneously. *Plant with GFP Gene* - **GFP** (Green Fluorescent Protein) is **fluorescent**, not bioluminescent; it absorbs light at one wavelength and emits it at another wavelength. - GFP does not generate its own light in the dark and requires **illumination with an appropriate light source** (blue or ultraviolet light) to excite the protein and produce visible fluorescence. - Without external light excitation, GFP remains invisible in darkness. *None of the options* - This is incorrect because the plant equipped with a **complete luciferase bioluminescent system** is specifically designed to produce light spontaneously. - All required components (luciferase enzyme and luciferin substrate) are present and functional, enabling autonomous light production in the dark.
Question 8: Radiopharmaceutical used for phagocyte study scan:
- A. MDP scan
- B. Thallium 201
- C. Technetium pertechnetate scan
- D. Sulfur colloid scan (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Sulfur colloid scan*** - **Sulfur colloid** is readily phagocytosed by **Kupffer cells** in the liver and spleen, making it useful for evaluating their function. - This scan allows for the assessment of the **reticuloendothelial system's phagocytic activity**, which involves various phagocytes. *MDP scan* - **MDP (methylene diphosphonate)** is used primarily for **bone scans** to detect bone abnormalities, infections, or tumors. - It accumulates in areas of increased **osteoblastic activity**, not phagocytic activity. *Thallium 201* - **Thallium 201** is largely used in **myocardial perfusion imaging** to assess blood flow to the heart muscle. - It acts as a potassium analog and is taken up by viable myocardial cells, not phagocytes. *Technetium pertechnetate scan* - **Technetium pertechnetate** is commonly used for **thyroid scans**, Meckel's diverticulum scans, and brain scans. - It accumulates in glandular tissues with active transport mechanisms involving iodide, and is not involved in phagocyte studies.
Question 9: Match the following: A) Caplan syndrome- 1) Found first in coal worker B) Asbestosis- 2) Upper lobe predominance C) Mesothelioma- 3) Involves lower lobe D) Sarcoidosis- 4) Pleural effusion is seen
- A. A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
- B. A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2 (Correct Answer)
- C. A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1
- D. A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1
Explanation: **A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2** - **Caplan syndrome** was first described in **coal workers** with **rheumatoid arthritis** and progressive massive fibrosis. - **Asbestosis** is often associated with **pleural effusion**, which can be benign or malignant. - **Mesothelioma** typically involves the **lower lobes** of the lungs, specifically the pleura, and is strongly linked to asbestos exposure. - **Sarcoidosis** is characterized by **non-caseating granulomas**, which have a predilection for the **upper lobes** of the lungs. *A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1* - This option incorrectly states that Caplan syndrome involves the lower lobe; **Caplan syndrome** is defined by the presence of large nodules in the lungs of coal workers with rheumatoid arthritis, and their specific lobar distribution is not a defining characteristic. - This option incorrectly states that Mesothelioma has an upper lobe predominance; **Mesothelioma** is a pleural malignancy and typically involves the **lower lobes**, extending along the pleura. *A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1* - This option incorrectly associates Caplan syndrome with pleural effusion; **Caplan syndrome** manifests as rheumatoid nodules in the lungs, not primarily pleural effusion. - This option incorrectly states that Asbestosis has an upper lobe predominance; **Asbestosis** predominantly affects the **lower lobes** of the lungs, causing interstitial fibrosis. *A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1* - This option incorrectly states that Caplan syndrome has an upper lobe predominance; the defining feature of **Caplan syndrome** is the combination of rheumatoid arthritis and pneumoconiosis, not specific lobar involvement. - This option correctly identifies pleural effusion with asbestosis and lower lobe involvement with mesothelioma, but **Caplan syndrome** is not characterized by upper lobe predominance.
Question 10: Which one of the following hepatic lesions can be diagnosed with high accuracy by using nuclear imaging?
- A. Cholangiocarcinoma
- B. Hepatocellular carcinoma
- C. Hepatic adenoma
- D. Focal nodular hyperplasia (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Focal nodular hyperplasia*** - **Focal nodular hyperplasia** (FNH) contains functioning Kupffer cells, which take up **Technetium-99m sulfur colloid** used in nuclear imaging. - FNH typically shows **normal or increased uptake** on sulfur colloid scans, which distinguishes it from other hepatic lesions with high accuracy. - The presence of functional **Kupffer cells and hepatocytes** allows FNH to be diagnosed with high specificity using nuclear imaging. *Cholangiocarcinoma* - **Cholangiocarcinoma** is a malignant tumor of the bile ducts and does not contain Kupffer cells. - It appears as a **photopenic defect** (decreased or absent uptake) on nuclear scans due to its lack of functional liver cells. *Hepatocellular carcinoma* - **Hepatocellular carcinoma** (HCC) is a primary liver malignancy that typically lacks functional Kupffer cells. - HCC usually shows **decreased or absent uptake** on **Technetium-99m sulfur colloid scans**, appearing as a cold lesion. *Hepatic adenoma* - A **hepatic adenoma** is a benign liver tumor that lacks Kupffer cells and thus does not take up the tracer in nuclear imaging. - Adenomas appear as **photopenic defects** on sulfur colloid scans and are better characterized by their enhancement patterns on MRI or CT.
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