Substance Use Disorders — MCQs
On this page
Which of the following is NOT a paraphilia?
A 22-year-old man is persuaded by his wife to come to you for a general checkup. She hints of concern about alcohol use. He admits to drinking an average of three to four beers every night, with more on the weekends. He used alcohol rarely until 2 years ago when his brother died. He has never had withdrawal symptoms after several days of abstinence. What would be a practical next step to help further evaluate the physical consequences of this patient's drinking?
Substance dependence could be due to all of the following factors, EXCEPT:
A 24-year-old male presents to the emergency department with complaints of nausea, vomiting, sweating, excessive lacrimation, anxiety, and yawning. What is the probable diagnosis?
Which is the most common drug causing dependence?
Korsakoff psychosis is primarily associated with which of the following deficiencies?
A 30-year-old male with a 15-year history of alcohol abuse presents to the emergency department with fearfulness, misrecognition, talking to himself, aggressive behavior, tremulousness, and visual hallucinations of snakes and reptiles. His last alcohol consumption was two days prior to the onset of these symptoms. What is the most likely diagnosis?
In a patient with a history of prolonged alcohol intake, when do seizures typically occur after alcohol withdrawal?
Which of the following is NOT an anticraving agent for alcohol?
Which of the following drugs does NOT have abuse liability?
Substance Use Disorders Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 131: Which of the following is NOT a paraphilia?
- A. Bisexuality (Correct Answer)
- B. Homosexuality
- C. Bestiality
- D. Frottuerism
Explanation: **Explanation:** The correct answer is **Bisexuality** (and **Homosexuality**), as neither is classified as a paraphilia or a mental disorder in modern psychiatry. **1. Why Bisexuality/Homosexuality are the correct choices:** In the past, homosexuality was listed in the DSM; however, it was removed in 1973. Current diagnostic criteria (DSM-5 and ICD-11) recognize sexual orientations—including heterosexuality, homosexuality, and bisexuality—as normal variations of human sexuality. They do not meet the criteria for a paraphilic disorder because they do not involve non-consenting partners, significant distress, or functional impairment. *Note: This specific question contains two correct options (A and B) based on modern standards, though "Bisexuality" is often the marked key in older recall formats.* **2. Why the other options are wrong:** * **Bestiality (Zoophilia):** This is a paraphilia involving sexual arousal or acts involving animals. It is classified under "Other Specified Paraphilic Disorders." * **Frotteurism:** A common paraphilic disorder characterized by achieving sexual arousal from touching or rubbing against a non-consenting person, typically in crowded public places. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Definition:** A **Paraphilia** is an intense/persistent sexual interest other than in genital stimulation with phenotypically normal, consenting human partners. It becomes a **Paraphilic Disorder** only when it causes distress/impairment or involves non-consenting victims. * **Most common paraphilia:** Pedophilia. * **Most common paraphilia in law-breaking:** Exhibitionism. * **Voyeurism:** "Peeping Tom" (watching others undress/having sex). * **Masochism vs. Sadism:** Masochism is receiving pain; Sadism is inflicting pain.
Question 132: A 22-year-old man is persuaded by his wife to come to you for a general checkup. She hints of concern about alcohol use. He admits to drinking an average of three to four beers every night, with more on the weekends. He used alcohol rarely until 2 years ago when his brother died. He has never had withdrawal symptoms after several days of abstinence. What would be a practical next step to help further evaluate the physical consequences of this patient's drinking?
- A. Ultrasound of the liver
- B. CT scan of the abdomen
- C. Liver function tests including aspartate transaminase (AST), alanine transaminase (ALT), gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase (GGT), and a complete blood count (CBC) (Correct Answer)
- D. Esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD) to look for silent esophageal varices
Explanation: ### Explanation The patient presents with a pattern of heavy alcohol consumption (3–4 beers daily plus weekend binges) following a stressful life event. To evaluate the **physical consequences** of chronic alcohol use, laboratory investigations are the most practical and cost-effective first-line screening tools. **Why Option C is Correct:** * **AST & ALT:** Chronic alcohol use often leads to alcoholic liver disease. A classic high-yield finding is an **AST:ALT ratio > 2:1**. * **GGT:** This is a highly sensitive marker for biliary stasis and recent heavy alcohol ingestion. It is often the first enzyme to rise in chronic drinkers. * **CBC:** Alcohol is a direct bone marrow toxin and interferes with folate metabolism, leading to **Macrocytosis (increased MCV)** even in the absence of anemia. This is a common early indicator of chronic heavy drinking. **Why Other Options are Incorrect:** * **Options A & B (Ultrasound/CT):** While these can detect fatty liver (steatosis) or cirrhosis, they are not as sensitive as laboratory markers for early-stage biochemical damage or nutritional deficiencies caused by alcohol. They are usually reserved for when physical exam findings (e.g., hepatomegaly) or abnormal LFTs are already present. * **Option D (EGD):** This is an invasive procedure. Esophageal varices are a late-stage complication of portal hypertension/cirrhosis. This patient has no clinical signs of end-stage liver disease (jaundice, ascites), making EGD premature. **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** 1. **Most sensitive marker for alcohol use:** GGT (Gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase). 2. **Most specific marker for chronic heavy drinking:** Carbohydrate-deficient transferrin (CDT). 3. **Hematological hallmark:** Increased Mean Corpuscular Volume (MCV). 4. **CAGE Questionnaire:** A quick clinical screening tool (Cut down, Annoyed, Guilty, Eye-opener). Two or more "yes" responses suggest alcohol misuse.
Question 133: Substance dependence could be due to all of the following factors, EXCEPT:
- A. Personality traits
- B. Peer pressure
- C. Family history of substance abuse
- D. Intelligence (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ### Explanation Substance dependence is a complex, multifactorial disorder resulting from the interplay of biological, psychological, and social factors. **Why Intelligence is the Correct Answer:** There is no established scientific evidence or clinical correlation suggesting that a person’s **Intelligence Quotient (IQ)** is a causative factor for substance dependence. High or low intelligence does not protect an individual from or predispose them to addiction. Dependence is driven by the brain's reward system (dopaminergic pathways), which functions independently of cognitive intellect. **Analysis of Other Options:** * **Personality Traits (Option A):** Certain personality profiles, such as **Sensation Seeking**, **Impulsivity**, and **Antisocial Personality Disorder**, are strongly linked to a higher risk of substance use and dependence. * **Peer Pressure (Option B):** This is a critical sociocultural factor, especially in adolescence. Social modeling and the need for peer acceptance often act as the primary triggers for the initiation of substance use. * **Family History (Option C):** Genetics play a significant role. Studies on twins and adopted children show that a family history of substance abuse increases vulnerability, likely due to inherited neurobiological sensitivities in the **Mesolimbic Dopamine Pathway**. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **The Reward Pathway:** The **Nucleus Accumbens** and **Ventral Tegmental Area (VTA)** are the primary brain regions involved in the development of dependence. * **Dual Diagnosis:** Substance use disorders frequently co-occur with other psychiatric conditions like Depression, Anxiety, or ADHD (Self-medication hypothesis). * **Protective Factors:** Strong family bonds, parental monitoring, and academic competence are considered protective, whereas intelligence itself is neutral.
Question 134: A 24-year-old male presents to the emergency department with complaints of nausea, vomiting, sweating, excessive lacrimation, anxiety, and yawning. What is the probable diagnosis?
- A. Organophosphate toxicity
- B. Cannabis toxicity
- C. Opioid withdrawal (Correct Answer)
- D. Lead toxicity
Explanation: ### Explanation The patient is presenting with a classic constellation of symptoms indicative of **Opioid Withdrawal**. **1. Why Opioid Withdrawal is Correct:** Opioids act on the mu-receptors to slow down bodily functions (miosis, constipation, sedation). When the drug is stopped, a "rebound" hyperactivity of the autonomic nervous system occurs. The clinical triad of **yawning, lacrimation (tearing), and rhinorrhea (runny nose)** is highly specific for opioid withdrawal. Other symptoms include nausea, vomiting, piloerection (goosebumps), sweating, and intense anxiety. While distressing, opioid withdrawal is generally not life-threatening (unlike alcohol or benzodiazepine withdrawal). **2. Why the Other Options are Incorrect:** * **Organophosphate Toxicity:** While it causes lacrimation and vomiting (SLUDGE syndrome), it typically presents with **miosis (pinpoint pupils)**, bradycardia, and muscle fasciculations. It does not cause yawning or the specific "flu-like" anxiety seen here. * **Cannabis Toxicity:** Usually presents with tachycardia, increased appetite, conjunctival injection (red eyes), and paranoia, rather than systemic autonomic discharge like lacrimation and yawning. * **Lead Toxicity:** Presents with abdominal pain (lead colic), peripheral neuropathy (wrist drop/foot drop), and "Burtonian lines" on the gums, but not acute lacrimation or yawning. **3. NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Objective Sign:** **Piloerection** (cold turkey) is a classic objective sign of opioid withdrawal. * **Pupils:** Opioid *intoxication* causes pinpoint pupils; Opioid *withdrawal* causes **mydriasis** (dilated pupils). * **Management:** The drug of choice for symptomatic relief of autonomic symptoms is **Clonidine** (alpha-2 agonist). Long-term replacement is done with **Methadone** or **Buprenorphine**. * **Timeframe:** Heroin withdrawal starts in 6–12 hours; Methadone withdrawal starts in 24–48 hours.
Question 135: Which is the most common drug causing dependence?
- A. Cannabis (Correct Answer)
- B. Cocaine
- C. Heroin
- D. Amphetamine
Explanation: **Explanation:** The correct answer is **Cannabis**. In the context of global and national epidemiological data (including reports by the WHO and AIIMS NDDTC), **Cannabis** is identified as the most commonly used illicit drug worldwide. Due to its high prevalence of use and widespread availability, it accounts for the highest number of individuals meeting the clinical criteria for "drug dependence" among the illicit substances listed. While substances like Heroin have a higher *addictive potential* per user, the sheer volume of Cannabis users makes it the most common cause of dependence in the general population. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **B. Cocaine:** While highly addictive due to its potent effect on the dopaminergic reward system (Nucleus Accumbens), its use is geographically restricted and less prevalent than cannabis globally. * **C. Heroin:** This opioid has the highest "dependence liability" (the likelihood of becoming addicted after trying it once). However, because it is less commonly used by the general population compared to cannabis, it is not the *most common* cause of dependence. * **D. Amphetamine:** These stimulants are widely used (including ATS - Amphetamine Type Stimulants), but they rank lower than cannabis in terms of total global dependence cases. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Most common substance used in India:** Alcohol (followed by Cannabis among illicit drugs). * **Most common substance used globally:** Caffeine (followed by Nicotine). * **Highest Dependence Liability:** Nicotine (often cited as more addictive than Heroin). * **Cannabis Clinical Sign:** Conjunctival injection (red eyes) and increased appetite ("munchies"). * **Amotivational Syndrome:** A chronic psychiatric complication associated specifically with long-term Cannabis use.
Question 136: Korsakoff psychosis is primarily associated with which of the following deficiencies?
- A. Thiamine deficiency (Correct Answer)
- B. Folate deficiency
- C. Niacin deficiency
- D. Pyridoxine deficiency
Explanation: **Explanation:** **Korsakoff Psychosis** is a chronic neuropsychiatric syndrome resulting from a severe, prolonged deficiency of **Thiamine (Vitamin B1)**. Thiamine is a critical cofactor for enzymes like transketolase and pyruvate dehydrogenase, which are essential for cerebral glucose metabolism. In chronic alcoholics, thiamine deficiency occurs due to poor dietary intake, impaired gastrointestinal absorption, and reduced hepatic storage. This leads to neuronal loss and hemorrhage in the mammillary bodies and dorsomedial nucleus of the thalamus. **Why the other options are incorrect:** * **Folate (B9) Deficiency:** Primarily leads to megaloblastic anemia and neural tube defects. While common in alcoholics, it does not cause the specific amnestic syndrome of Korsakoff. * **Niacin (B3) Deficiency:** Causes **Pellagra**, characterized by the "4 Ds": Dermatitis, Diarrhea, Dementia, and Death. * **Pyridoxine (B6) Deficiency:** Typically presents with peripheral neuropathy, sideroblastic anemia, or seizures (especially during Isoniazid therapy), but not Korsakoff psychosis. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** 1. **Wernicke-Korsakoff Syndrome (WKS):** Wernicke Encephalopathy is the *acute* phase (triad of Confusion, Ataxia, and Ophthalmoplegia), while Korsakoff Psychosis is the *chronic* phase. 2. **Hallmark Symptom:** The defining feature of Korsakoff is **anterograde amnesia** accompanied by **confabulation** (filling memory gaps with fabricated stories). 3. **Management Rule:** Always administer Thiamine **before** Glucose in a malnourished or alcoholic patient to prevent precipitating Wernicke Encephalopathy. 4. **Neuroanatomy:** The most characteristic lesion in Korsakoff psychosis is atrophy of the **mammillary bodies**.
Question 137: A 30-year-old male with a 15-year history of alcohol abuse presents to the emergency department with fearfulness, misrecognition, talking to himself, aggressive behavior, tremulousness, and visual hallucinations of snakes and reptiles. His last alcohol consumption was two days prior to the onset of these symptoms. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Delirium tremens (Correct Answer)
- B. Alcoholic hallucinosis
- C. Schizophrenia
- D. Seizure disorder
Explanation: **Explanation:** The patient is presenting with **Delirium Tremens (DT)**, the most severe form of alcohol withdrawal. The diagnosis is confirmed by the classic triad of **clouding of consciousness** (misrecognition/disorientation), **autonomic hyperactivity** (tremulousness, aggression), and **perceptual disturbances** (visual hallucinations of snakes/reptiles, known as *zoopsia*). DT typically occurs **48 to 96 hours** after the last drink, matching this patient's two-day timeline. **Why other options are incorrect:** * **Alcoholic Hallucinosis:** Unlike DT, this occurs in a state of **clear consciousness** (the patient is oriented). It usually presents within 12–24 hours of abstinence and is characterized primarily by auditory hallucinations, with stable vital signs. * **Schizophrenia:** While it involves hallucinations and talking to oneself, it is a chronic condition requiring symptoms for at least six months. It does not present with acute autonomic instability or a specific temporal relationship to alcohol withdrawal. * **Seizure Disorder:** Alcohol withdrawal seizures (rum fits) typically occur **6–48 hours** after the last drink. While they can precede DT, they are characterized by generalized tonic-clonic activity rather than prolonged delirium and zoopsia. **High-Yield NEET-PG Pearls:** * **Timeline:** 6–12h (Tremors) → 12–24h (Hallucinosis) → 6–48h (Seizures) → 48–96h (Delirium Tremens). * **Zoopsia:** Visual hallucinations of small animals/insects is a hallmark of DT. * **Treatment of Choice:** Benzodiazepines (e.g., Diazepam, Lorazepam) are the gold standard to prevent progression and manage symptoms. * **Mortality:** Untreated DT has a mortality rate of up to 20%, usually due to cardiovascular collapse or hyperthermia.
Question 138: In a patient with a history of prolonged alcohol intake, when do seizures typically occur after alcohol withdrawal?
- A. 4-6 hours
- B. 24-48 hours (Correct Answer)
- C. 2-4 days
- D. 4-7 days
Explanation: Alcohol withdrawal symptoms occur due to the sudden cessation of alcohol's inhibitory effect on the CNS (mediated by GABA receptors) and a compensatory overactivity of excitatory neurotransmitters (NMDA/Glutamate). **Explanation of the Correct Option:** * **B. 24-48 hours:** Alcohol withdrawal seizures (historically called "rum fits") are typically generalized tonic-clonic seizures. They most commonly occur between **12 to 48 hours** after the last drink. This is a critical window where CNS hyperexcitability peaks before the potential onset of Delirium Tremens. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **A. 4-6 hours:** This period marks the onset of **Minor Withdrawal Symptoms** (Autonomic hyperactivity), such as tremors, anxiety, palpitations, and insomnia. * **C. 2-4 days:** While seizures can occasionally occur up to 72 hours, this timeframe is more characteristic of the transition into **Alcoholic Hallucinosis** (24-72 hours) or the beginning of Delirium Tremens. * **D. 4-7 days:** This is the typical window for **Delirium Tremens (DTs)**, the most severe form of withdrawal characterized by clouded consciousness, vivid hallucinations, and autonomic instability. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Seizure Type:** Usually generalized tonic-clonic; if focal, suspect a structural brain lesion (e.g., subdural hematoma). * **Treatment of Choice:** **Benzodiazepines** (e.g., Diazepam, Lorazepam). Phenytoin is ineffective for alcohol withdrawal seizures. * **Kindling Phenomenon:** Each subsequent withdrawal episode increases the risk and severity of future seizures. * **Alcoholic Hallucinosis vs. DTs:** In hallucinosis, sensorium is clear (patient is oriented); in DTs, there is global confusion/disorientation.
Question 139: Which of the following is NOT an anticraving agent for alcohol?
- A. Lorazepam (Correct Answer)
- B. Naltrexone
- C. Topiramate
- D. Acamprosate
Explanation: **Explanation:** The goal of pharmacological treatment in alcohol use disorder is divided into two phases: **Management of Withdrawal** and **Relapse Prevention (Anticraving).** **Why Lorazepam is the correct answer:** Lorazepam is a **Benzodiazepine**. Its primary role is in the management of **Acute Alcohol Withdrawal Syndrome**. It acts as a substitute for alcohol at the GABA-A receptors, preventing seizures and delirium tremens. However, it has no role as an anticraving agent. In fact, due to its high addiction potential, long-term use in recovering alcoholics is generally avoided. **Why the other options are incorrect:** * **Naltrexone:** An opioid antagonist that blocks the "reward" or euphoric effects of alcohol by inhibiting dopamine release in the nucleus accumbens. It is FDA-approved for reducing cravings and the frequency of heavy drinking. * **Acamprosate:** A NMDA receptor antagonist and GABA-A agonist. It helps maintain abstinence by restoring the chemical balance (homeostasis) in the brain that was disrupted by chronic alcohol use. It is particularly useful in patients with liver disease (as it is renally excreted). * **Topiramate:** An anti-epileptic drug that modulates GABA and glutamate. While not FDA-approved, it is a well-recognized second-line agent used "off-label" to reduce alcohol cravings and consumption. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Disulfiram:** Not an anticraving agent; it is an **Aversive agent** that causes an unpleasant reaction (DDR) if alcohol is consumed. * **Drug of Choice (DOC) for Withdrawal:** Benzodiazepines (Chlordiazepoxide or Diazepam). * **DOC for Withdrawal in Liver Failure:** **L**orazepam, **O**xazepam, **T**emazepam (Mnemonic: **LOT** - these undergo direct glucuronidation). * **Acamprosate** is the preferred anticraving agent in patients with **liver cirrhosis**.
Question 140: Which of the following drugs does NOT have abuse liability?
- A. Alprazolam
- B. Buprenorphine
- C. Dextropropoxyphene
- D. Fluoxetine (Correct Answer)
Explanation: **Explanation:** The correct answer is **Fluoxetine**. The core concept behind abuse liability is the drug's ability to produce **euphoria, reinforcement, or a "high,"** leading to compulsive seeking behavior. This is typically mediated by a rapid increase in dopamine levels within the brain's reward system (mesolimbic pathway). * **Fluoxetine (Option D):** It is a Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitor (SSRI). Unlike drugs of abuse, SSRIs do not cause immediate euphoria or dopamine surges. While stopping SSRIs abruptly can lead to "discontinuation syndrome," they do not cause craving or compulsive drug-seeking behavior. Therefore, they have no abuse liability. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Alprazolam (Option A):** A high-potency, short-acting Benzodiazepine. It has significant abuse potential due to its rapid onset of action and GABA-A receptor modulation, which can produce sedation and anxiolysis that users find reinforcing. * **Buprenorphine (Option B):** A partial opioid mu-receptor agonist. While used in Opioid Substitution Therapy (OST), it still possesses intrinsic opioid activity and can be abused, especially by individuals without a high opioid tolerance or when administered intravenously. * **Dextropropoxyphene (Option C):** A weak opioid analgesic. Despite being "weak," it acts on mu-opioid receptors and has a well-documented history of abuse and overdose, leading to its ban in several countries. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Most common SSRI side effect:** Gastrointestinal upset (nausea/diarrhea). * **Longest half-life SSRI:** Fluoxetine (due to its active metabolite, norfluoxetine), making it the SSRI with the lowest risk of discontinuation syndrome. * **Drug of choice for OCD:** SSRIs (Fluoxetine, Fluvoxamine). * **Benzodiazepine with highest abuse potential:** Alprazolam and Diazepam (due to rapid absorption/onset).
Practice by Chapter
Neurobiology of Addiction
Practice Questions
Alcohol Use Disorder
Practice Questions
Opioid Use Disorder
Practice Questions
Cannabis Use Disorder
Practice Questions
Stimulant Use Disorders
Practice Questions
Sedative, Hypnotic, and Anxiolytic Use Disorders
Practice Questions
Tobacco Use Disorder
Practice Questions
Hallucinogen-Related Disorders
Practice Questions
Substance Withdrawal Syndromes
Practice Questions
Pharmacotherapy for Substance Use Disorders
Practice Questions
Psychosocial Interventions
Practice Questions
Dual Diagnosis Management
Practice Questions
Want unlimited practice?
Get full access to all questions, explanations, and performance tracking.
Start For Free